Summer Sale Coupon - 60% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: c4sbfdisc

156-215.81 PDF

$44

$109.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Printable Format
  • Value of Money
  • 100% Pass Assurance
  • Verified Answers
  • Researched by Industry Experts
  • Based on Real Exams Scenarios
  • 100% Real Questions

156-215.81 PDF + Testing Engine

$70.4

$175.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20
  • Last Update: Apr 18, 2024
  • Questions and Answers: 400
  • Free Real Questions Demo
  • Recommended by Industry Experts
  • Best Economical Package
  • Immediate Access

156-215.81 Engine

$52.8

$131.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Best Testing Engine
  • One Click installation
  • Recommended by Teachers
  • Easy to use
  • 3 Modes of Learning
  • State of Art Technology
  • 100% Real Questions included

156-215.81 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 Certification

Question # 6

Choose what BEST describes a Session

A.

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

B.

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

C.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

D.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

Full Access
Question # 7

Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

A.

Anti-spoofing is not needed when IPS software blade is enabled

B.

It is more secure to create anti-spoofing groups manually

C.

It is BEST Practice to have anti-spoofing groups in sync with the routing table

D.

With dynamic routing enabled, anti-spoofing groups are updated automatically whenever there is a routing change

Full Access
Question # 8

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

Full Access
Question # 9

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

Full Access
Question # 10

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

A.

cphaprob state

B.

cphaprob status

C.

cphaprob

D.

cluster state

Full Access
Question # 11

: 370

What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

A.

Stateful Inspection. Firewall Blade, and URL'Application Blade

B.

Packet Filtenng. Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall

C.

Firewall Blade. URL/Application Blade and IPS

D.

Stateful Inspection. URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention

Full Access
Question # 12

What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

A.

To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base

B.

To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports

C.

To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database

D.

To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

Full Access
Question # 13

When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

A.

When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta

B.

When an interface fails the delta claims the priority

C.

When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority

D.

When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

Full Access
Question # 14

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

A.

CloudSec deployment

B.

Disliked deployment

C.

Router only deployment

D.

Standalone deployment

Full Access
Question # 15

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

Full Access
Question # 16

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Full Access
Question # 17

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

Full Access
Question # 18

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

A.

add rba user roles

B.

add user

C.

add rba user

D.

add user roles

Full Access
Question # 19

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Full Access
Question # 20

Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.

A.

675, 389

B.

389, 636

C.

636, 290

D.

290, 675

Full Access
Question # 21

What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

A.

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

B.

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

C.

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

D.

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

Full Access
Question # 22

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

Full Access
Question # 23

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

Full Access
Question # 24

You can see the following graphic:

156-215.81 question answer

What is presented on it?

A.

Properties of personal. p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

C.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

D.

Expired. p12 certificate properties for user John.

Full Access
Question # 25

A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

A.

Allow security audits.

B.

Handle traffic as defined in the policy.

C.

Monitor sequence activity.

D.

Block suspicious activity.

Full Access
Question # 26

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

Full Access
Question # 27

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Full Access
Question # 28

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

Full Access
Question # 29

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge

Full Access
Question # 30

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Full Access
Question # 31

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

A.

License and Update

B.

Package Repository and Licenses

C.

Update and License & Contract

D.

License & Contract and Package Repository

Full Access
Question # 32

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

A.

The firewall topologies

B.

NAT Rules

C.

The Rule Base

D.

The VPN Domains

Full Access
Question # 33

What is a role of Publishing?

A.

The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public

B.

The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways

C.

The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways

D.

Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base

Full Access
Question # 34

Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?

A.

The Security Gateway is upgraded.

B.

The existing license expires.

C.

The license is upgraded.

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

Full Access
Question # 35

What is the order of NAT priorities?

A.

IP pool NAT static NAT. hide NAT

B.

Static NAT hide NAT, IP pool NAT

C.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT hide NAT

D.

Static NAT automatic NAT hide NAT

Full Access
Question # 36

What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

A.

To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

B.

To reduce the number of rules in the database.

C.

To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.

D.

To hide the gateway from the Internet.

Full Access
Question # 37

When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option?

A.

Accounting Log

B.

Extended Log

C.

Log

D.

Detailed Log

Full Access
Question # 38

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

A.

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

D.

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

Full Access
Question # 39

Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

Full Access
Question # 40

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

Full Access
Question # 41

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Full Access
Question # 42

What SmartEvent component creates events?

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

Full Access
Question # 43

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

Full Access
Question # 44

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Full Access
Question # 45

Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

Full Access
Question # 46

If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network what is the best way to accomplish this?

A.

Create an inline layer where the destination is the target network resource Define sub-rules allowing only specific sources to access the target resource

B.

Use a "New Legacy User at Location", specifying the LDAP user group that the users belong to, at the desired location

C.

Create a rule allowing only specific source IP addresses access to the target network resource.

D.

Create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined Use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule

Full Access
Question # 47

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

Full Access
Question # 48

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

Full Access
Question # 49

Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

A.

Object Browser

B.

Object Editor

C.

Object Navigator

D.

Object Explorer

Full Access
Question # 50

Most Check Point deployments use Gaia but which product deployment utilizes special Check Point code (with unification in R81.10)?

A.

Enterprise Network Security Appliances

B.

Rugged Appliances

C.

Scalable Platforms

D.

Small Business and Branch Office Appliances

Full Access
Question # 51

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

A.

Client machine IP address.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Log server IP address.

D.

Gateway proxy IP address.

Full Access
Question # 52

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.

A.

SecurID

B.

LDAP

C.

NT domain

D.

SMTP

Full Access
Question # 53

The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

A.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

B.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

C.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

D.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Full Access
Question # 54

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

A.

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

B.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

C.

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

Full Access
Question # 55

Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

A.

Anti-Bot

B.

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

Full Access
Question # 56

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

A.

Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.

B.

Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.

C.

Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.

D.

Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run

Full Access
Question # 57

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

A.

Cloud/data Center

B.

perimeter

C.

Sandbox

D.

Guest Network

Full Access
Question # 58

What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

A.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

Full Access
Question # 59

Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

A.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

B.

WebUI. CLI. or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI. SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartConsole, WebUI. or CLI

Full Access
Question # 60

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

A.

8080

B.

80

C.

4434

D.

443

Full Access
Question # 61

Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

A.

cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.

B.

In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

C.

WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.

D.

Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

Full Access
Question # 62

Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

A.

Inline

B.

Explicit

C.

Implicit drop

D.

Implicit accept

Full Access
Question # 63

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Full Access
Question # 64

Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various

A.

Rule base. Security Management Server Security Gateways

B.

The Check Point database. SmartConsole, Security Gateways

C.

SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers

D.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

Full Access
Question # 65

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

Full Access
Question # 66

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

Full Access
Question # 67

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

A.

Save and install the Policy

B.

Delete older versions of database

C.

Revert the session.

D.

Publish or discard the session

Full Access
Question # 68

Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.

A.

Main

B.

Authentication

C.

Quick

D.

High Alert

Full Access
Question # 69

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Full Access
Question # 70

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

A.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_di and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks

B.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.

C.

Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring

D.

All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.

Full Access
Question # 71

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

156-215.81 question answer

A.

Those rules have been published in the current session.

B.

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

C.

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

D.

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

Full Access
Question # 72

Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.

A.

User and objects databases

B.

Network databases

C.

SmartConsole databases

D.

User databases

Full Access
Question # 73

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Full Access
Question # 74

What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

A.

license view

B.

fw ctl tab -t license -s

C.

show license -s

D.

cplic print

Full Access
Question # 75

Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

A.

Central

B.

Corporate

C.

Local

D.

Formal

Full Access
Question # 76

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

A.

Firewall

B.

Application Control

C.

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.

Anti-Virus

Full Access
Question # 77

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write

Full Access
Question # 78

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

A.

Command line interface; WebUI

B.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

C.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

D.

GaiaUI; command line interface

Full Access
Question # 79

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Access Control

C.

Desktop Security

D.

Threat Prevention

Full Access
Question # 80

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

156-215.81 question answer

Choose the BEST answer.

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Full Access
Question # 81

Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

A.

Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

B.

Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

C.

Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

D.

Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Full Access
Question # 82

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.

A.

Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security

B.

Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway

C.

Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

D.

Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management

Full Access
Question # 83

In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

A.

Publish changes

B.

Save changes

C.

Install policy

D.

Install database

Full Access
Question # 84

In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

A.

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

B.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

C.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

D.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

Full Access
Question # 85

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

Full Access
Question # 86

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

A.

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

B.

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

C.

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

D.

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

Full Access
Question # 87

For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator what is a TRUE statement?

A.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default

B.

Automate NAT rules are supported for Network objects only.

C.

Automatic NAT rules are supported for Host objects only.

D.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is disabled by default

Full Access
Question # 88

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

A.

Access Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Threat Prevention

D.

QoS

Full Access
Question # 89

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal

Communication (SIC)?

A.

After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.

B.

Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

C.

A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.

D.

New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.

Full Access
Question # 90

Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

A.

IPS blade

B.

IPSEC VPN Blade

C.

Identity Awareness Blade

D.

Firewall Blade

Full Access
Question # 91

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

Full Access
Question # 92

Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious.

A.

Penalty Box

B.

Drop Rule in the rulebase

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM)

D.

Stealth rule

Full Access
Question # 93

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

Full Access
Question # 94

A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time. What tool can you use to block this traffic?

A.

Anti-Bot protection

B.

Anti-Malware protection

C.

Policy-based routing

D.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

Full Access
Question # 95

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartcenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

Full Access
Question # 96

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Spam

D.

Anti-bot

Full Access
Question # 97

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

CloudGuard

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

Full Access
Question # 98

In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

A.

Different computers or appliances.

B.

The same computer or appliance.

C.

Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.

D.

In Azure and AWS cloud environments.

Full Access
Question # 99

When a gateway requires user information for authentication, what order does it query servers for user information?

A.

First - Internal user database, then LDAP servers in order of priority, finally the generic external user profile

B.

First the Internal user database, then generic external user profile, finally LDAP servers in order of priority.

C.

First the highest priority LDAP server, then the internal user database, then lower priority LDAP servers, finally the generic external profile

D.

The external generic profile, then the internal user database finally the LDAP servers in order of priority.

Full Access
Question # 100

You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

A.

backup

B.

logswitch

C.

Database Revision

D.

snapshot

Full Access
Question # 101

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A.

Monitoring the status of processes

B.

Sending and receiving logs

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.

Generating and modifying certificates

Full Access
Question # 102

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

A.

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

B.

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

D.

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

Full Access
Question # 103

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Full Access
Question # 104

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

C.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server's Mgmt-interface and has no dependency

on the gateway.

D.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server

dependency.

Full Access
Question # 105

Where can alerts be viewed?

A.

Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor

B.

Alerts can be seen in the Threat Prevention policy.

C.

Alerts can be seen in SmartUpdate.

D.

Alerts can be seen from the CLI of the gateway.

Full Access
Question # 106

Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

A.

Active Directory Query

B.

User Directory Query

C.

Account Unit Query

D.

UserCheck

Full Access
Question # 107

Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?

A.

Central Licensing is actually not supported with Gaia.

B.

Central Licensing is the only option when deploying Gaia

C.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of a gateway and can be changed to any gateway if needed.

D.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.

Full Access
Question # 108

Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

A.

backup

B.

snapshot

C.

Database Revision

D.

migrate export

Full Access
Question # 109

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B.

Proactively detects threats

C.

Delivers file with original content

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Full Access
Question # 110

Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

A.

Pencil

B.

Padlock

C.

Book

D.

Eyeglasses

Full Access
Question # 111

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

A.

Application Independence

B.

High Performance

C.

Scalability

D.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

Full Access
Question # 112

Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

A.

SHA-256

B.

SHA-200

C.

MD5

D.

SHA-128

Full Access
Question # 113

Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

A.

hostname myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Full Access
Question # 114

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

A.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

B.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

Full Access
Question # 115

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

A.

The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.

B.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.

C.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

D.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

Full Access
Question # 116

How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser administrator?

A.

By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option

B.

They cannot be seen

C.

From the SmartView Tracker audit log

D.

From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’

Full Access
Question # 117

Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

A.

Manage and Command Line

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateway and Servers

Full Access
Question # 118

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Complete

D.

Light

Full Access
Question # 119

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

A.

Tracking

B.

Log

C.

None

D.

Alert

Full Access
Question # 120

What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

A.

ifconfig -a

B.

show interfaces

C.

show interfaces detail

D.

show configuration interface

Full Access