CCRN-Adult Practice Exam Questions with Answers CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Certification

JVD stands for jugular venous distension, which is a sign of increased pressure in the right atrium and the superior vena cava. Hepatomegaly means enlargement of the liver, which can occur due to congestion of blood in the portal vein and the hepatic vein. Both JVD and hepatomegaly are common symptoms of right-sided heart failure, as they indicate fluid retention and backup in the systemic circulation12. Hypotension and oliguria are not specific to right-sided heart failure, as they can also occur in left-sided heart failure or other conditions that affect the cardiac output and renal perfusion. Hypertension and polyuria are unlikely to be seen in right-sided heart failure, as they indicate increased blood pressure and urine output, which are opposite to the effects of reduced cardiac function and fluid overload. Pulmonary edema and restlessness are more characteristic of left-sided heart failure, as they indicate fluid accumulation and impaired gas exchange in the lungs12.

Haloperidol

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Haloperidol has a known side effect of prolonging the QT interval, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias123. Therefore, after the administration of haloperidol, it is important for a nurse to monitor for a prolonged QT interval and cardiac dysrhythmias123. This is why continuous cardiac monitoring is recommended if repeated doses are given1.

Hyponatremia

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A patient with a sodium level of 114 mEq/L is most likely to develop seizures, which are a manifestation of severe hyponatremia and cerebral edema. Hyponatremia is a low level of sodium in the blood, which can cause water to move into the brain cells and cause them to swell. This can lead to increased intracranial pressure, neurological dysfunction, and seizures. Seizures are a medical emergency and require prompt treatment to prevent brain damage or death. Tetany, flaccid paralysis, and cardiac arrhythmias are not typical signs of hyponatremia, but may occur in other electrolyte disorders, such as hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.

References:

• Overview of the treatment of hyponatremia in adults - UpToDate1, p. 1-2.
• Manifestations of hyponatremia and hypernatremia in adults - UpToDate2, p. 1-2.

Hypovolemic shock

Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is a late finding in hypovolemic shock, which means that it occurs when the condition has progressed to a severe stage. Hypotension indicates that the body’s compensatory mechanisms, such as vasoconstriction, tachycardia, and increased cardiac output, have failed to maintain adequate perfusion and oxygen delivery to the vital organs. Hypotension is a sign of impending circulatory collapse and organ failure, and requires immediate intervention to restore blood volume and blood pressure. Hypotension is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg or a mean arterial pressure below 65 mmHg1.

References:

• Hypovolemic Shock: Causes, Symptoms and Treatment - Cleveland Clinic: This article states that “As you keep losing blood or fluids, your systolic (top or first number) blood pressure comes down.” and “Your blood pressure drops very low and your heart rate and breathing get faster.”

The first step in developing a teaching plan is to assess the learner’s needs, knowledge, and readiness to learn. This will help the nurse tailor the teaching plan to the individual’s learning style, preferences, and goals. Obtaining written information, determining a schedule, and encouraging observation are all strategies that can be used later in the teaching plan, but they are not the first step.

References:

• AACN Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, Fourth Edition, page 18.
• Patient Education and Counseling, page 3.

Laboratory values diagnostic for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) include increased prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), and fibrin split products (FSP), also known as fibrin degradation products (FDP). These increases indicate widespread clotting and subsequent fibrinolysis, which are characteristic of DIC. The consumption of clotting factors and platelets in DIC leads to prolonged clotting times and elevated levels of fibrin degradation products.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 42

Cerebral angiography is considered the gold standard for diagnosing and pinpointing the location, size, and origin of cerebral aneurysms. It involves the use of contrast material injected into the cerebral arteries and imaging to provide detailed visualization of the blood vessels in the brain, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and planning treatment strategies. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

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A patient with acetaminophen overdose is at risk for acute liver failure, which can lead to coagulopathy. This condition is often marked by an increased International Normalized Ratio (INR) due to impaired synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Decreasing level of consciousness can also result from hepatic encephalopathy, a complication of liver failure. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

In hypertensive crisis, neurologic changes are often caused by increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as a result of loss of cerebral autoregulation. Autoregulation normally maintains consistent cerebral blood flow despite changes in systemic blood pressure. In hypertensive crisis, the extremely high blood pressure overwhelms these mechanisms, leading to increased cerebral blood flow, disruption of the blood-brain barrier, and cerebral edema, which subsequently increases ICP and causes neurologic changes.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 48

The nurse should place the patient in contact isolation, which is a type of precaution used to prevent the transmission of microorganisms that are spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or the patient’s environment. Contact isolation requires the use of gloves and gowns when entering the patient’s room, as well as dedicated patient-care equipment and proper hand hygiene. Vancomycin resistant enterococcus (VRE) is a type of bacteria that is resistant to the antibiotic vancomycin and can cause infections in various sites, such as the urinary tract, bloodstream, or wounds. VRE can be spread by contact with contaminated surfaces, equipment, or hands.

References:

• AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Handbook. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Handbook], p. 18.
• AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Blueprint. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Blueprint], p. 2.
• CDC. (2019). Guidelines for Isolation Precautions: Preventing Transmission of Infectious Agents in Healthcare Settings. Retrieved from [CDC Guidelines], p. 69-70.
• CDC. (2019). Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci (VRE) and the Clinical Laboratory. Retrieved from [CDC Fact Sheet], p. 1-2.

Pulmonary embolism

Pulmonary angiography is the most definitive diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism, as it provides a clear picture of the blood flow in the arteries of the lungs. It can detect even small clots and determine the location and extent of the obstruction. However, because it requires a high degree of skill to perform and has potentially serious risks, it is usually done when other tests fail to provide a definite diagnosis1. Other tests that can be used to diagnose pulmonary embolism include CT pulmonary angiography, ventilation-perfusion scan, D-dimer test, chest X-ray, ultrasound, and MRI23. However, these tests may have limitations such as low sensitivity, low specificity, radiation exposure, contrast allergy, or availability4.

References:

• Pulmonary embolism - Diagnosis and treatment - Mayo Clinic, under “Pulmonary angiogram”.
• Pulmonary Embolism (PE): Symptoms, Signs & Treatment - Cleveland Clinic, under “How is a pulmonary embolism diagnosed?”.
• Diagnosis of Pulmonary embolism and what are its different treatment options?, under “Diagnosis for Pulmonary embolism”.
• Diagnosis of pulmonary embolism - UpToDate, under “Overview”.

Spinal cord injury

The patient with a C5 spinal cord injury may have anxiety, fear, or depression due to the loss of function and independence. The patient may also have difficulty breathing, swallowing, or regulating body temperature. The patient may call the nurse frequently to seek reassurance, attention, or comfort. The nurse should respond with empathy and compassion, and provide the patient with emotional support and psychological counseling. The nurse should also assess the patient’s physical needs and provide adequate hydration, nutrition, and skin care. The nurse should not dismiss the patient’s requests, ignore the patient’s feelings, or limit the patient’s contact with the nurse. The nurse should also not give false reassurance or minimize the patient’s concerns. Therefore, the best response is to get someone to sit with the patient, such as a family member, a friend, or a volunteer. This will help the patient feel less isolated, anxious, or depressed, and provide the patient with a sense of security and companionship.

This is the nurse’s best initial response, as it expresses empathy, validates the patient’s feelings, and assesses the patient’s risk of suicide. Depression is a common and serious mental health condition that affects older adults, especially those living in nursing homes. Depression can cause persistent sadness, hopelessness, loss of interest, and suicidal thoughts or behaviors. The nurse should screen the patient for depression using a validated tool, such as the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) 1, and ask about any suicidal ideation or plans. The nurse should also provide emotional support, education, and referral to appropriate resources for the patient.

B. “Those feelings should resolve when the medication you’ve started has a chance to take effect.”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it dismisses the patient’s feelings, implies that the patient just needs to wait for the medication to work, and does not address the patient’s psychosocial needs. Antidepressants are one of the treatment options for depression, but they may take several weeks to show their full effect, and they may not work for everyone. The nurse should also explore other factors that may contribute to the patient’s depression, such as social isolation, loss of autonomy, chronic illness, or grief, and offer interventions that may help the patient cope, such as counseling, psychotherapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, or social activities.

C. “I understand how you feel. We all get that way when we’re depressed.”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it assumes that the nurse knows how the patient feels, minimizes the patient’s experience, and generalizes the patient’s condition. Depression is not a normal or inevitable part of aging, and it affects each person differently. The nurse should not compare the patient’s feelings to their own or to others, but rather acknowledge and respect the patient’s unique perspective and situation. The nurse should also avoid using words like “we” or “you” that may create a sense of distance or judgment, and instead use words like “I” or “me” that may convey a sense of empathy or rapport.

D. “Have you talked to anyone about what is bothering you?”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it may sound like the nurse is trying to avoid listening to the patient, or that the patient is bothering the nurse with their problems. The nurse should not imply that the patient should talk to someone else, but rather show interest and willingness to listen to the patient. The nurse should also use open-ended questions that invite the patient to share more, such as “How are you feeling today?” or “What has been on your mind lately?” The nurse should also use active listening skills, such as nodding, paraphrasing, reflecting, or summarizing, to demonstrate understanding and engagement.

For an oncology patient presenting with hematuria and bleeding from injection sites, reviewing the coagulation panel first is crucial. This test will provide information on the patient's clotting status, helping to identify potential coagulopathies such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is common in cancer patients. References: = AACN Certification and Core Review for High Acuity and Critical Care, 7th Edition, AACN Handbook for CCRN Certification, pp. 112-115.

Pulmonary hypertension leads to increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation, which can cause right ventricular hypertrophy and failure. This results in systemic venous congestion, presenting as distended neck veins. Crackles, rhonchi, and pink frothy sputum are more indicative of pulmonary edema or other respiratory conditions rather than pulmonary hypertension. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.

The first step in developing an orientation plan is to assess the new nurse’s current knowledge and skills. This helps tailor the orientation to address any gaps and build on existing competencies. Understanding the new nurse's background ensures that the training is efficient and effective, focusing on areas that need improvement rather than repeating familiar information. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

The initial step in facilitating a change in practice regarding visiting hours should involve a literature search on family visitation practices. This allows the nurse to gather evidence-based information that can support any proposed changes. After gathering sufficient evidence, the nurse can then schedule an interdisciplinary team meeting to discuss the findings, consult with medical staff, and draft a new policy if necessary. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 35, section on Professional Caring and Ethical Practice.

In a patient with a chest tube, an air leak in the pleural space is indicated by an increase in bubbling in the water-seal chamber. Bubbling in this chamber occurs when air escapes from the pleural space into the chest drainage system. An increase in bubbling signifies an ongoing air leak, indicating that air is still entering the pleural space, often due to a bronchopleural fistula or lung injury.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 36

Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) is the most appropriate medication for managing agitation and delirium in a critically ill intubated patient. It provides sedation without significant respiratory depression and has analgesic properties, which makes it suitable for patients who are disoriented and confused. Unlike benzodiazepines (lorazepam and midazolam) or neuromuscular blockers (cisatracurium), dexmedetomidine can improve delirium outcomes and facilitates easier weaning from mechanical ventilation. References: = AACN Certification and Core Review for High Acuity and Critical Care, 7th Edition, AACN Handbook for CCRN Certification, pp. 57-60.

Salicylate poisoning

Alkalinization of urine is one of the main goals of treatment for salicylate poisoning, as it enhances the renal excretion of salicylate and reduces its reabsorption. Alkalinization of urine can be achieved by administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate and maintaining adequate hydration and urine output. Alkalinization of urine can be monitored by measuring the urine pH, which should be above 7.5. Osmotic diuresis, decrease in gastric pH, and decrease in CPK are not indicative of successful treatment for salicylate poisoning. Osmotic diuresis may occur as a result of salicylate toxicity, but it does not improve the elimination of salicylate. Decrease in gastric pH may impair the absorption of salicylate, but it does not affect the elimination of salicylate. Decrease in CPK may reflect the resolution of rhabdomyolysis, which is a possible complication of salicylate poisoning, but it does not reflect the clearance of salicylate.

References:

• Salicylate (aspirin) poisoning: Management - UpToDate1, p. 1-2.
• Salicylate poisoning - Symptoms, diagnosis and treatment | BMJ Best Practice US2, p. 4-5.

A consistent prolongation of the P-R interval beyond 0.20 seconds indicates a first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. This type of block is characterized by a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses through the AV node, resulting in a prolonged P-R interval. However, every P wave is still followed by a QRS complex, distinguishing it from higher-degree AV blocks where some P waves are not followed by QRS complexes.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 35

A serum potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. The most immediate intervention is the administration of 50% dextrose followed by insulin, which helps drive potassium back into the cells, thereby rapidly lowering the serum potassium level. Hemodialysis and Kayexalate are also effective but may not act as quickly as the dextrose-insulin combination. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

The laboratory values indicate hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS), characterized by high glucose levels, high osmolality, and dehydration. The primary management includes aggressive IV hydration to correct dehydration and improve circulation. Hemodialysis and intubation are not immediate priorities unless there are other indications, and osmotic diuresis is not appropriate in this context. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

Hypoxia-induced cerebral edema after a near-drowning incident can be managed by administering osmotic diuretics like mannitol. These medications help reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue and into the bloodstream, thereby alleviating cerebral edema. Maintaining a MAP of 60-70 mm Hg may not be sufficient to address the elevated intracranial pressure, keeping the patient flat could worsen cerebral edema, and hyperventilation with a PaCO2 of 40-45 mm Hg is not typically recommended for managing increased intracranial pressure as it can lead to vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral perfusion. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

Mild, intermittent diarrhea in a patient receiving continuous enteral feedings can often be managed by reviewing and possibly adjusting the feeding formula. This approach can address potential intolerance or sensitivity to the current formula. An abdominal x-ray or considering PICC line placement are not appropriate first-line responses to mild diarrhea, and holding feedings without further assessment could negatively impact the patient's nutritional status. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

The patient's ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis (pH 7.33, PaCO2 48 mm Hg) with a slightly elevated temperature (103.2° F). In the context of fever and acidosis, hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases, a phenomenon described by the Bohr effect. This means that hemoglobin will release oxygen more readily to the tissues. Factors like increased temperature and acidosis cause a rightward shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 44

The nurse should respect the mother’s request and facilitate the family’s emotional needs during the end-of-life care. The nurse should also ensure the patient’s safety and dignity by preparing and organizing the necessary equipment and monitoring before moving the mother next to the patient. The other options are not appropriate because they either deny the mother’s request, imply that the patient is no longer alive, or delay the organ donation process.

References:

• Donor Family Care Service - NHS Blood and Transplant
• Family-Centered Care to Improve Family Consent for Organ Donation

Verified Answer: C. establish a schedule with the provider. Neurological assessments are important for monitoring the patient’s neurological status and detecting any changes that may indicate a complication or improvement. However, frequent interruptions of sleep can have negative effects on the patient’s health and well-being, such as impaired cognition, mood, immune function, and wound healing. Therefore, the nurse should collaborate with the provider to establish a schedule for neurologic assessments that balances the need for monitoring and the need for rest. This may involve reducing the frequency of assessments during the night, clustering other interventions to minimize disruptions, and using non-invasive methods of assessment when possible. Discontinuing neurologic assessments, encouraging the patient to sleep between assessments, or moving the patient to a quieter part of the unit are not appropriate actions as they do not address the root cause of the problem or ensure adequate monitoring of the patient’s condition.

In a patient with head trauma, the primary pathophysiology underlying acute respiratory failure often involves hypercapnia due to decreased minute ventilation. Head trauma can impair the central nervous system's ability to regulate breathing, leading to inadequate ventilation and a build-up of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood. Other factors like shifting of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, increased intrapulmonary shunt, and dehydration due to diabetes insipidus may be present but are not the primary causes. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 25, section on Respiratory.

The clinical presentation of lower left quadrant pain with guarding, abdominal distention, rigidity, and free air in the abdominal cavity on a KUB (kidney, ureter, and bladder) radiograph strongly suggests a perforated bowel. The presence of free air indicates that there is a breach in the gastrointestinal tract, allowing air to escape into the peritoneal cavity. The patient's vital signs, including hypotension (BP 76/40), tachycardia (HR 130), tachypnea (RR 32), and fever (T 101.7°F), are consistent with sepsis and shock, which are common complications of bowel perforation. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 30, section on Gastrointestinal.

A negative apnea test means that the patient does not breathe spontaneously when disconnected from the ventilator and exposed to a high level of carbon dioxide, which normally stimulates breathing. A negative apnea test is one of the criteria for brain death, as it indicates the loss of brainstem function. A positive vestibulo-ocular reflex, also known as the oculocephalic or doll’s eye reflex, means that the eyes move in the opposite direction of the head when the head is turned. A positive cough reflex means that the patient coughs when the trachea is stimulated. A negative cold caloric test means that the eyes do not move when cold water is injected into the ear canal. All these tests assess the integrity of the brainstem, and a positive result would exclude brain death. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

References:

• Diagnosis of brain death - UpToDate, under “Apnea testing”.
• Brain Death | Critical Care Medicine | JAMA | JAMA Network, under “How Is Brain Death Diagnosed?”.
• The 2023 AAN/AAP/CNS/SCCM Pediatric and Adult Brain Death/Death by …, under “Apnea Testing”.

Anaphylactic shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation due to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. This vasodilation causes a significant drop in systemic vascular resistance and maldistribution of blood volume, leading to hypotension. The explanation addresses the pathophysiological changes that occur during anaphylactic shock. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema is most often associated with damage to the alveolar capillary membrane secondary to aspiration. This condition occurs when there is increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary barrier, leading to fluid leakage into the alveoli. It is a hallmark of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), which can be triggered by aspiration, resulting in inflammatory damage to the lungs.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 29

Early enteral feeding in patients with sepsis is crucial as it helps maintain gut integrity, thereby minimizing the translocation of gastrointestinal (GI) bacteria. The presence of nutrients in the gut lumen supports the mucosal barrier function and reduces bacterial translocation, which can lead to secondary infections and further complications in septic patients. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

The patient who has been in the unit for 60 hours and reports agitation, noise disturbances, and an inability to get peace and quiet may be experiencing sleep disturbances. Factors such as the ICU environment, frequent interventions, and the medications being administered (e.g., benzodiazepines, opioids, and bronchodilators) can significantly disrupt sleep patterns, leading to further agitation and delirium. Addressing the patient's sleep hygiene and implementing measures to promote rest can be beneficial.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 52

The nurse's role in this situation is to provide clear and compassionate guidance regarding the complex decision about continuing or discontinuing ventilator support. Referring to the hospital's policies provides a structured approach to making such decisions and ensures that the decision aligns with ethical and legal standards. This approach also supports the spouse by providing concrete information and a framework within which to make an informed decision. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

The patient has signs of severe hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. Hyponatremia can cause cerebral edema, which can lead to seizures, confusion, coma, and death. The patient needs a hypertonic solution, which is a fluid that has a higher concentration of solutes than the blood, to draw water out of the brain cells and restore the normal sodium level. 3% sodium chloride is a hypertonic solution that can be used to treat severe hyponatremia. 0.45% sodium chloride, 0.9% sodium chloride, and 5% dextrose with 0.25% sodium chloride are all hypotonic solutions, which are fluids that have a lower concentration of solutes than the blood, and would worsen the patient’s condition by adding more water to the blood and the brain.

References:

• AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Handbook. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Handbook], p. 18.
• AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Blueprint. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Blueprint], p. 2.
• AACN. (2020). Practice Alert: Hyponatremia. Retrieved from [Practice Alert], p. 1-2.
• Lewis, S. L., Bucher, L., Heitkemper, M. M., Harding, M. M., Kwong, J., & Roberts, D. (2017). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (11th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier. Retrieved from [Textbook], p. 303-304.