Practice Free CPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

CPT Code 43246: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, with transoral insertion of intra-abdominal tube (e.g., gastrostomy or jejunostomy)

This code describes the attempted PEG tube placement.

Modifier -52: Reduced services. This modifier is appended because the procedure was aborted and the PEG tube was not successfully placed.

ICD-10-CM Code K94.29: Other specified disorders of digestive system

This code captures the patient ' s chronic feeding requirement, which is the reason for the attempted PEG tube placement.

ICD-10-CM Code K44.9: Diaphragmatic hernia without obstruction or gangrene

This code reports the small hiatal hernia that was found during the procedure.

The operative note describes anopen radical hysterectomyfor endometrial cancer with removal of theuterus, tubes, and ovaries(specimens listed) and extensive dissection ofuterine arteries, uterosacral and cardinal ligaments, consistent with aradicalprocedure. The approach is clearlyabdominal/open(midline vertical incision and abdominal entry), not laparoscopic, so a laparoscopic radical hysterectomy code (such as 58548) is not appropriate. In the answer set,58210represents aradical abdominal hysterectomy(with appropriate extent for malignancy management). In addition, the surgeon performedpelvic lymph node samplingbilaterally, removing lymphatic tissue along the iliac vessels to the obturator nerve region. The correct code in the choices for pelvic lymphadenectomy/sampling is38770. Pelvic washings and extensive exploration are included in the primary surgical service and do not add separate CPT codes in this scenario. Therefore, the correct coding combination is58210 and 38770.

New patient in community residential facility

Moderate MDM ? 99344

Total time = 90 minutes

Base time exceeded ? 99417 appropriate

Why others are incorrect:

99345 – High MDM (not documented)

Missing prolonged service code

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a suppression study involving five glucose tests and five human growth hormone tests.

CPT® Code 80430 represents a suppression panel specifically for growth hormone studies, which includes various assessments for diagnosing abnormal growth.

CPT® Code 82947 is used for each glucose test performed, and since five glucose tests were conducted, it should be coded as 82947 x 5.

CPT® Code 83003 is used for each human growth hormone test performed, and since five tests were conducted, it should be coded as 83003 x 5.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option A lists 82947 x 2 and 83003 without sufficient units to account for the five tests each, which does not match the actual number of tests performed.

Option B omits the suppression panel code 80430, which is necessary for documenting the overall suppression study.

Option D does not provide the correct quantity of glucose and growth hormone tests, which were each performed five times.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, when a suppression panel includes multiple components that are performed more than once, the specific panel code 80430 should be used along with the correct number of individual component codes.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 80430, 82947 x 5, 83003 x 5.

Laparoscopic nephrectomy: A minimally invasive surgical procedure to remove a kidney.

Part of the ureter: Removal includes part of the ureter.

50220: Nephrectomy (open procedure), which doesn ' t apply since the procedure was laparoscopic.

50548: Nephrectomy, partial, laparoscopic, which doesn ' t match the full nephrectomy performed.

50543: Laparoscopy, surgical; nephrectomy with total ureterectomy.

50543 is the correct CPT code for the laparoscopic removal of the kidney along with part of the ureter, fitting the scenario described.

For ERCP, CPT coding follows the rule that thetherapeutic ERCP code includes the diagnostic ERCP workperformed during the same session. In this case, the key performed service isstent insertion into the biliary duct, which is captured by43274(ERCP with placement of endoscopic stent into biliary or pancreatic duct). You donotseparately report the diagnostic ERCP code43260when the therapeutic service (stent placement) is performed, because the diagnostic component is considered part of the overall ERCP service. Code43276is used forstent removal and/or exchange, which is not described here. Option D is incorrect because it pairs another ERCP service with stent placement, and the scenario does not support multiple distinct ERCP therapeutic services beyond stenting. CPC exam tip: when a single ERCP session includes diagnostic evaluation plus a therapeutic intervention, report themost definitive therapeutic ERCP code—here,43274.

Malignant lesion destruction ? CPT 17260–17286

Trunk/extremities

0.6–1.0 cm ? 17261

1.1–2.0 cm ? 17262

Both lesions are reported separately.

47563: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy with cholangiography is coded as 47563. The report details the laparoscopic removal of the gallbladder with intraoperative cholangiography.

74300-26: The radiological supervision and interpretation for the cholangiography is coded as 74300 with modifier -26 (Professional Component) since the interpretation was done by the physician.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

Diabetic polyneuropathy is coded as E11.42, which indicates type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic polyneuropathy. The ICD-10-CM guidelines direct that when a patient has both diabetes and polyneuropathy, a single combination code is used to capture both conditions.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 4: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases (E00-E89), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.a.6.

Pressure ulcer excision with bone involvement ? CPT 15937 (sacral, with ostectomy)

Stage 4 pressure ulcer ? L89.156 (sacral region with necrosis of bone)

A myringotomy is a surgical incision into the tympanic membrane (eardrum).

A myringotomy tube (ventilation tube) is placed in the ear to allow drainage of fluid from the middle ear and to equalize pressure.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Ear.

U07.1 = COVID-19

J12.82 = Pneumonia due to COVID-19This follows COVID-19 coding guidelines for confirmed cases.

The documentation describes making a skin incision off the tip of the twelfth rib and extending medially along the banger’s lines of the skin. The use of electrocautery to gain access through multiple layers of musculature and fascia indicates an open surgical approach. Open surgery involves making a large incision to expose and directly view the surgical site. This is distinct from percutaneous (which involves needles or catheters), laparoscopic (which uses small incisions and a camera), and other minimally invasive techniques.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS Level II (current year)

“Three-view imaging of both hips and the pelvis” corresponds toCPT 73523(bilateral hips with pelvis, 3–4 views). Because the same study is repeated laterthe same daydue to a new event (fall from bed) and is interpreted by thesame radiologist, the correct repeat modifier concept is-76(repeat procedure by thesamephysician/qualified health professional). The most accurate reporting is73523for the first study and73523-76for the repeat study. Among the provided options,Dis the only choice that includes both73523and the correct repeat-by-same modifier-76. The inclusion of-51in option D reflects a multiple-procedure concept that is not the primary modifier logic for a true repeat of the same radiologic service; however, the CPC exam intent here is to recognize73523and that the repeat isby the same radiologist, requiring-76(not -77). Key learning point: select the correctstudy code by views, then apply-76for same-provider repeat interpretation.

The correct answer is N13.0. The ICD-10-CM code N13.0 is used for hydronephrosis due to obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction. In this case, the patient is diagnosed with hydronephrosis caused by an acquired occlusion of the ureteropelvic junction, which is appropriately coded using N13.0. This diagnosis specifically relates to the condition where urine flow is blocked between the kidney and ureter, leading to kidney swelling (hydronephrosis).

N13.1 refers to hydronephrosis due to congenital obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction. Since the patient ' s condition is described as " acquired, " this code would not be applicable.

N13.2 refers to hydronephrosis due to nephrolithiasis (kidney stones), which is not the case here.

N13.6 relates to other specified obstructive uropathy, which does not fit the description of acquired ureteropelvic junction obstruction with infection.

Thus, N13.0 is the most accurate code for this patient’s condition.

Reference topics: ICD-10-CM for Hydronephrosis and Obstructive Uropathy; Ureteropelvic Junction Obstruction Codes.

90471/90472 = Administration without counseling

90707 = MMR

90746 = Hepatitis B, adult

Medicare provides specific codes for screening colonoscopy based on the patient ' s risk factors. For a Medicare patient scheduled for a screening colonoscopy who is at high risk (such as those with a history of intestinal polyps), the appropriate code is G0105.

G0105 is used for colorectal cancer screening; colonoscopy on individuals at high risk.

HCPCS Level II, current year

Medicare Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer Screening

Actinic keratoses (AKs) are coded using thepremalignant lesion destructionCPT family17000–17004, regardless of the destruction method (e.g., laser, cryotherapy, electrosurgery), as long as the intent is destruction. Coding is based on thenumber of lesions treated in that session:17000covers thefirstlesion,17003is an add-on code for2–14 additional lesions, and17004is used when treating15 or more lesions. Because the encounter documents destruction of15 AK lesions, CPT requires reporting17004only (not 17000 + multiple units of 17003). Codes17110/17111are for destruction ofbenignlesions (e.g., warts, molluscum), which is the wrong lesion category. On CPC exams, the key is matchingpremalignant vs benignand then selecting the correct code bylesion count threshold—here the threshold is met for17004.

52356 = Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy, lithotripsy and stent placement

Combination code ? do not report components separately

The place of service code 22 is used for services performed in an outpatient hospital setting, including outpatient surgical floors. This code indicates that the procedure was done in a hospital but not requiring an inpatient admission.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Place of Service Codes.

The procedure documented is a modified Fontan procedure ? 33615 (Fontan-type single-ventricle repair per the choices given).

The congenital diagnosis documented is double inlet ventricle ? Q20.2.

Why the other options are incorrect based on the statements provided:

Q20.4 is not “double inlet ventricle” as stated in the question.

Adding Q20.1 is not supported by the documentation (the question only states double inlet ventricle).

Therefore, the best match is 33615, Q20.2 ? A.

The case describes two primary surgeons working together, which supports modifier 62 (co-surgeons) on the spine fusion/discectomy codes.

22556 = primary level anterior thoracic discectomy and fusion (T2–T3)

22585 = each additional thoracic level (T4–T5)

20931 = structural allograft (reported by the surgeon who solely performed/placed the structural allograft, per the statement—Surgeon Z)

Why D fits best:

Surgeon X performed the approach/exposure and closure and assisted the primary surgeon ? reports the co-surgeon spine procedure codes (22556-62, 22585-62).

Surgeon Z performed the discectomy/fusion and solely performed utilizing a structural allograft ? reports 22556-62, 22585-62, plus 20931.

Options with -51 are not correct here (and add-on/related reporting logic in CPT does not support the way -51 is applied in those options).

The emergent endovascular repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm with an aorto-aortic tube endograft is coded with CPT 34702. This code includes the deployment of the endograft and the necessary balloon angioplasty for sealing the proximal and distal attachment zones.

44970 = Laparoscopic appendectomy

K36 = Chronic appendicitis

Symptoms are not coded once definitive diagnosis is made

42820 = Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy, under age 12

J35.03 already includes chronic tonsillitis and adenoiditis

Hypertrophy is included and not separately coded

Procedure: Gross and microscopic examination of a newborn autopsy.

CPT® Code:

88028: This code is for the autopsy, gross and microscopic examination of a stillborn or newborn.

Code Selection Justification: The procedure described matches the comprehensive postmortem examination of a newborn.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

For Mohs micrographic surgery, CPT® coding is based on the anatomic location of the lesion, the number of stages, and the number of tissue blocks per stage.

17311: This code is used for Mohs surgery on body areas such as the trunk, arms, or legs for the first stage.

17315: This is an add-on code used when more than five tissue blocks are examined in a single stage. Since this case involved six tissue blocks, 17315 is appropriate.

Explanation of incorrect answers:

A. 17313, 17314, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 applies to the head, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia, not the arm.

C. 17313, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 is not appropriate for the arm.

D. 17311, 17312, 17315: 17312 is used for additional stages beyond the first, which is not applicable here since only one stage was performed.

E. 85B2-335 is not a valid CPT code for Mohs surgery.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 17311, 17315, which accurately reflects a single-stage Mohs surgery with six tissue blocks on the arm.

Service location = campground ? domiciliary/home visit

Patient is new

99344 = New patient domiciliary visit, moderate MDM

Prolonged Services:

Additional 25 minutes beyond base time

99417 is used for prolonged services with office/home E/M codes

Why others are incorrect:

99349 – Established patient

99204 – Office visit (wrong location)

00537 = Anesthesia for EP procedures

P1 = Normal healthy patient

In CPT® Surgery Guidelines, a " separate procedure " code is used to identify a service that is typically performed as part of a larger procedure and should not be coded separately when it is an integral component of that primary service. However, it may be reported independently if it is performed alone or is unrelated to the primary procedure.

A. is true because a separate procedure may be reported if it is performed independently or is unrelated to the primary procedure.

B. is true, as " separate procedure " codes are not reported in addition to the code for the primary procedure when they are part of the total procedure.

C. is correct because " separate procedure " designation indicates that the service is often part of a more comprehensive procedure but can be reported separately when performed alone.

D. is false because modifier 79 is not used for unrelated " separate procedures. " Instead, modifier 59 is typically used to indicate a " distinct procedural service " when reporting a separate procedure that is unrelated to the primary service.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. To identify a service designated as a " separate procedure " that is reported with an unrelated primary service, append modifier 79 to the code.

56633 = Radical partial vulvectomy

Deep subcutaneous tissue involvement = radical, not simple

VIN II is coded as D07.1 (carcinoma in situ of vulva) per ICD-10-CM guidelines

The knee joint consists of three primary compartments:

1. Medial compartment: The inside part of the knee, which includes the femur and tibia interaction on the inner side.

2. Lateral compartment: The outside part of the knee, where the femur and tibia meet on the outer side.

3. Patellofemoral compartment: The area between the patella (kneecap) and the femur.

These three compartments are essential for knee joint stability and function, allowing movement and weight-bearing activities.

B. Trochlea groove and vestibular are not associated with knee anatomy.

C. Posterior malleolus, scapula, and fibular facet do not relate to knee compartments; the malleolus is in the ankle, scapula in the shoulder, and fibular facet is not part of the primary knee compartments.

D. Cochlea is unrelated to knee anatomy and refers to a part of the inner ear.

Thus, the correct answer is A. Medial, lateral, and patellofemoral.

The human shoulder is composed of three main bones: the clavicle (collarbone), scapula (shoulder blade), and humerus (upper arm bone). These bones form the shoulder joint, which is one of the most flexible and mobile joints in the human body, allowing for a wide range of motion.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Musculoskeletal System section.

00813 = Anesthesia for colonoscopy

QK = Medical direction of 2–4 cases

99100 = Extreme age

99140 = Emergency anesthesia

C2617 – Sinus implant, drug-eluting

Described implant:

Ethmoid sinus

Drug-eluting (corticosteroid)

Absorbable

Why others are incorrect:

C1877 – Vascular stent

S1091 – Temporary code

C9600 – Coronary intervention

CPT code 11102 is for punch biopsy of skin, including simple closure. CPT code 12001-51 is for simple repair of superficial wounds, with modifier 51 indicating multiple procedures. ICD-10-CM code D49.2 is used for a neoplasm of unspecified behavior of the bone, soft tissue, and skin. This coding accurately reflects the punch biopsy and simple repair performed on the lesion.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year), ICD-10-CM (current year)

Asphenoidotomyperformed vianasal/sinus endoscopyis specifically reported withCPT 31287(endoscopic sinus surgery, sphenoidotomy). A diagnostic nasal endoscopy code (such as 31231) is generallynot separately reportedwhen it is integral to performing the surgical endoscopic sinus procedure, so options including 31231-59 are incorrect in typical CPT exam logic unless a distinct, separately identifiable diagnostic endoscopy is clearly documented and medically necessary beyond the surgical approach. The diagnosis describes afracture of the skull baseinvolving the sphenoid sinus without CSF leak; among the offered diagnosis codes,S02.19XAcorrectly represents a skull base fracture category consistent with the scenario’s specificity as presented in the answer choices. Code31291represents a different sinus procedure (not sphenoidotomy). CPC key point: choose the code matching thespecific sinus and surgical action(sphenoidotomy ? 31287) and avoid unbundling the diagnostic endoscopy that is part of the operative endoscopic approach.

1. E/M Code Category Selection:

The patient was placed in observation care on 12/2/20XX for an acute asthma exacerbation and stayed in observation for a total of 16 hours, with discharge occurring on 12/3/20XX.

The appropriate E/M category for patients in observation care for a period that includes both admission and discharge on separate calendar dates is " Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services " , with specific codes for admission and discharge on different dates.

2. Code Range and Specific Codes:

Code Range 99234-99236 applies to cases where observation care includes both admission and discharge, particularly when they occur on different calendar days and the total duration of care is under 24 hours.

For discharge on the subsequent day, 99238-99239 (Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services) applies, depending on the time spent on discharge.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option B and Option D include Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99221-99223), which are typically used for admissions to inpatient care rather than for observation care scenarios as presented here.

Option C incorrectly combines Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99231-99233), which are used for follow-up days rather than discharge services.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to CPT® guidelines, the 99234-99236 code range is used when observation care requires both admission and discharge on different dates, and 99238-99239 is appropriate for discharge services.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239).

The urinalysis performed is described asautomated, without microscopy, which corresponds to CPT81003(urinalysis, automated, without microscopy). CPT81001includes microscopy and is not supported because the question explicitly states “without microscopy.” For diagnosis coding, the providersuspecteda UTI, but the urinalysis is negative andUTI is ruled outas the final diagnosis. Under ICD-10-CM reporting principles, conditions documented asruled outarenot codedin the outpatient/office setting; instead, you code thesigns and symptomsthat prompted the visit and testing. The symptoms documented aredysuriaandlower abdominal pain, which are coded asR30.0andR10.30(as presented in the answer choices). Therefore, the correct combination is81003withR30.0andR10.30only. CPC exam tip: outpatient “rule out” ? codesymptoms, not the excluded diagnosis.

74021 = Abdomen, complete, including decubitus and erect views

-26 = Professional component

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient initially underwent a laparoscopic total abdominal hysterectomy for endometriosis of the uterus. However, due to extensive adhesions, the surgeon converted the procedure to an open total abdominal hysterectomy to complete the surgery.

CPT® Code 58150 is appropriate for a total abdominal hysterectomy, including removal of the uterus and cervix, via an open approach. Since the procedure was converted to an open approach, 58150 is the correct code.

The -22 modifier is added to indicate increased procedural services due to the extensive adhesiolysis (removal of adhesions), which extended the surgery duration.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code N80.00 is used for endometriosis of the uterus, which is the primary condition that prompted the hysterectomy.

ICD-10-CM Code N73.6 is appropriate for female pelvic peritoneal adhesions, reflecting the extensive adhesions that necessitated the conversion to open surgery.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 58571 (in options B and C) is for a laparoscopic approach, which is incorrect because the procedure was converted to an open approach.

The -78 modifier is incorrect in this context because the conversion to open surgery was part of the same operative session and not an unplanned return to the OR.

Diagnosis code N99.4 (in options B and D) pertains to postprocedural pelvic adhesions, which does not apply here as the adhesions were not due to a prior procedure.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines specify using 58150 for an open total abdominal hysterectomy and adding the -22 modifier for increased complexity or time due to factors like extensive adhesiolysis.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM guidelines is A. 58150-22, N80.00, N73.6.

For this encounter, ICD-10-CM guidelines dictate that a myocardial infarction (MI) that occurs within four weeks (28 days) of an initial MI is considered to be in the acute phase. Therefore, the patient’s condition should still be coded as an acute MI, as it is within the four-week period since the initial STEMI.

B. I21.29 is the correct code for an acute STEMI of the inferolateral wall occurring within the acute phase following the initial MI. The code I21.29 is specifically used for subsequent STEMI in the same four-week period.

Explanation of incorrect options:

A. I22.2 is incorrect because I22 codes are used for a second acute MI occurring after the initial one has resolved, which is not applicable here.

C. I21.19 and D. I21.3 are codes for different locations of STEMI that do not specify the inferolateral wall.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. I21.29 for a subsequent STEMI of the inferolateral wall within the acute phase.

Modifier58is used when a subsequent procedure during the postoperative period isstaged or relatedto the original procedure and meets one of these classic criteria:(1) planned/prospective (staged), (2) more extensive than the original, or (3) therapeutic following a diagnostic procedure. It signals that the later procedure is not an unplanned complication but part of a planned course of care or an escalation of treatment. This is different from modifier78, which is for anunplanned returnto the operating room/procedure room during the postoperative period for arelated procedure(often due to complications) and typically doesnotrestart the global period. Modifier26is theprofessional componentmodifier for certain diagnostic services, not a global surgical modifier. Modifier56is not the appropriate postoperative modifier for staged/related surgical services. For CPC exam accuracy, associate58with staged/planned/more extensive/therapeutic-after-diagnostic, and78with unplanned return to OR.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The obstetric panel ordered includes the following tests: syphilis screening (non-treponemal), automated CBC with manual differential WBC count, HBsAg, rubella antibody, serum antibody screen, and ABO/Rh blood typing.

CPT® Code 80055 is for a comprehensive obstetric panel that includes all these components. This code is intended to report the entire panel of tests as a bundled service rather than itemizing each individual test.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option B lists the individual component codes for each test in the obstetric panel (e.g., 85027, 85007, 87340, etc.), but using 80055 is more appropriate because it provides a single code to report the full obstetric panel and follows CPT® bundling guidelines.

Option C also lists the individual tests separately, which is unnecessary when 80055 includes all these components.

Option D lists 80081, which is for an obstetric panel that includes HIV testing. Since HIV testing is not part of the tests described in this scenario, 80081 is incorrect.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines recommend using the single code 80055 when all components of an obstetric panel are ordered together, as itemizing each test individually is not necessary.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 80055.

Medical terms often consist of a root word and a suffix.

Hepat/o = liver

-itis = inflammation

Therefore, hepatitis literally means inflammation of the liver.

The incorrect options refer to inflammation of other body parts:

Dermatitis – inflammation of the skin

Gastritis – inflammation of the stomach

Arthritis – inflammation of the joints

Hence, the correct answer is C. Hepatitis.

The provider documents history of COVID-19, not active COVID-19.

Z86.16 = Personal history of COVID-19

J18.9 = Pneumonia, unspecified organism

Codes U07.1 and U09.9 are for current or post-COVID conditions, which are not documented here. Therefore, A is correct.

Open Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass: The procedure involves creating a small gastric pouch and anastomosing it to the jejunum.

CPT Code 43847: This code describes a surgical gastric restrictive procedure with gastric bypass for morbid obesity, open.

ICD-10-CM Code E66.01: This code represents morbid (severe) obesity due to excess calories.

ICD-10-CM Code Z68.42: This code indicates a BMI of 45.

26910 = Excision of supernumerary digit with bone/joint involvement

11200 = Removal of skin tag / soft tissue lesion

Laterality modifiers correctly identify different procedures on different sides

Medical terms here are very literal.Peri-meansaround,cardirefers to theheart, and-itismeansinflammation. Sopericarditisis inflammation of thepericardium, thefibrous sac surrounding the heart. “With effusion” indicatesfluid accumulationin that pericardial space (pericardial effusion), which can be clinically important because significant effusion may impair heart filling (tamponade risk), but the question is strictly asking which structure is inflamed. Distractors map to other “card-” terms:myocardium(heart muscle) would be “myocarditis,”endocardium(inner lining of chambers/valves) would be “endocarditis,” and blood vessels supplying the heart arecoronary arteries(inflammation would not be termed pericarditis). On CPC exams, identifyingprefix + root + suffixis the fastest method: peri (around) + cardi (heart) + itis (inflammation) ? pericardium inflamed.

This scenario describes acytogenetic-type analysis targetingchromosomal abnormalities, performed using fluorescence-based microscopy techniques (commonly conceptually aligned with FISH-type evaluation). The question explicitly states thatno specific CPT code accurately describes the service, which signals that anunlistedcode is required. In CPT, the88299code is the unlisted procedure code forcytogenetic studies, used when a chromosomal/genetic laboratory procedure does not have a more specific existing CPT descriptor. The other unlisted options correspond to different laboratory sections:84999is an unlisted chemistry procedure,88199is an unlisted cytopathology procedure, and88749is not the correct unlisted cytogenetics code for this context as presented. CPC exam technique: match thedomainfirst (chromosomes ? cytogenetics), then select the appropriateunlisted code within that domainwhen the stem says no specific CPT code exists. Proper use of unlisted codes also implies documentation of method, purpose, and comparables for payer review, but the test asks only for the correct unlisted CPT code.

This scenario involves anon-pressure chronic ulcerwithgangrene. For non-pressure chronic ulcers of thethigh, ICD-10-CM usesL97.1-codes. “Fat layer exposed” indicatesseverity with fat layer exposed, which corresponds to the specific 6th character level (not just skin breakdown). The correct thigh code here isL97.112(non-pressure chronic ulcer of right thigh with fat layer exposed). Because the ulcer is described asgangrenous, ICD-10-CM instructs tocode additional gangreneusingI96when gangrene is present with an L97 non-pressure ulcer. Sequencing places the ulcer code first (it fully describes site and depth), then the gangrene codeI96as additional. ThereforeI96 + L97.112are both required, and the correct option presented isI96, L97.112(Option C). Mnemonic:L97 = Location/Layer,I96 = Ischemic gangrene add-on.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure performed was a hysteroscopy to examine the uterine cavity due to abnormal vaginal bleeding. This is a diagnostic hysteroscopy.

CPT® Code 58555 is specifically for a diagnostic hysteroscopy to examine the uterine cavity, which aligns with the procedure performed in this case.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 58558 is for a hysteroscopy with a surgical procedure, such as biopsy or removal of a lesion or polyp, which was not performed in this case.

Code 58579 is an unlisted procedure code for the female genital system and is unnecessary here because there is a specific code (58555) for diagnostic hysteroscopy.

Code 58578 is also an unlisted hysteroscopic procedure code and is not appropriate when a specific diagnostic code exists.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines indicate that 58555 should be used for diagnostic hysteroscopy procedures without any surgical intervention.

Therefore, the correct answer, following CPT® guidelines, is C. 58555.

Diabetes mellitus is achronic illness. In the MDM framework, the “number and complexity of problems addressed” considers whether a chronic condition isstable, whether it isexacerbated, and whether it requires significant management changes. The vignette says this is afollow-upfor diabetes with blood sugarsat goaland continuing current medications—this describes astable chronic illnessbeing managed. It is not an acute illness or injury, and it is not “minimal problem,” because diabetes generally requires ongoing monitoring and management and is not considered trivial. “Stable, acute illness” is internally inconsistent; “acute uncomplicated illness/injury” is also incorrect because diabetes is not acute in this context. CPC exam tip: “stable on meds” + chronic disease follow-up ?stable chronic illness(often supporting at least a low-to-moderate problem complexity depending on other MDM elements). Therefore, the correct selection isStable, chronic illness.

Kerat/o = cornea

-itis = inflammation

Keratitis specifically means inflammation of the cornea, which is the transparent anterior portion of the eye.

Other options are incorrect because:

Blepharitis = inflammation of the eyelid

Conjunctivitis = inflammation of the conjunctiva

Scleritis = inflammation of the sclera

Procedure: Cardiac stress test performed using hospital ' s equipment with the cardiologist providing supervision, interpretation, and report.

CPT® Codes:

93016: This code is for supervision only without provision of the equipment.

93018: This code is for interpretation and report only.

Code Selection Justification: Since the cardiologist does not own the equipment, codes 93016 and 93018 correctly represent the supervision, interpretation, and report of the test.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

60254 = Subtotal thyroidectomy for malignancy with radical neck dissection

60260 = Total thyroidectomy

60220 = Partial thyroidectomy, benign

60252 = Total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection

99386 = Initial comprehensive preventive medicine E/M, new patient, age 40–64

Patient has not been seen in 4 years, which meets the new patient definition (no professional services in past 3 years).

Age = 63

No problem-oriented complaints ? preventive service only

Why others are incorrect:

99396 / 99397 – Established patient codes

99387 – Age 65+

99223 = Initial hospital/observation care with high time (75+ min) or high MDM

Prolonged service 99418 is bundled into observation services

To select the correct HCPCS Level II code for a non-emergency ambulance service, we focus on the following components:

A0428 represents " Ambulance service, Basic Life Support (BLS), non-emergency transport, " which is appropriate here as the patient was transported with non-emergency BLS following a fainting episode. This eliminates options B and D, which indicate " emergency " (A0429).

QM Modifier indicates " Ambulance service provided under arrangement by a provider of services, " relevant when a physician arranges the ambulance transport.

PH Modifier specifies " Physician’s office to hospital " transport, matching the scenario where the patient was taken from the physician’s office to the hospital.

Thus, A0428-QM-PH accurately describes a non-emergency BLS transport arranged by a provider from a physician ' s office to the hospital, aligning with choice A.

69642 = Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy and ossicular chain reconstruction

Other codes represent variations without ossicular reconstruction or canal wall work

55970 = Female-to-male sex transformation

55980 is for male-to-female transformation

Unlisted codes (58999, 55899) are not used when a specific CPT® code exists

Heyman capsules are applicators used ingynecologic brachytherapy, classically forintracavitary uterineplacement as part of internal radiation therapy. CPT distinguishes between prostate brachytherapy services and gynecologic applicator placements.55875is associated with prostate brachytherapy procedures, and57155is for insertion of uterine tandem and/or vaginal ovoids (a different applicator system). The code that specifically aligns withinsertion of Heyman capsulesis58346. CPC exam strategy: when a question names a specific device/apparatus (like Heyman capsules), it is usually pointing to avery specific CPT code. Also, keep the anatomic system straight—Heyman capsules are not a prostate service and not simply a generic “radiation therapy” code; they are a named gynecologic brachytherapy applicator insertion. Therefore, among the given options,58346is the correct report.

According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines for substance use, abuse, and dependence, when multiple levels (use, abuse, and dependence) of the same substance are documented, only the highest level of severity is coded. The hierarchy is as follows: dependence > abuse > use.

D. If both use and dependence are documented, assign only the code for dependence is correct, as dependence represents the highest severity level and supersedes both use and abuse.

A. is incorrect because if both use and abuse are documented without dependence, only abuse would be coded as it is of a higher severity than use.

B. is incorrect because all three codes (use, abuse, dependence) should not be reported together; only the highest level should be coded.

C. is incorrect because if both abuse and dependence are documented, only dependence (the higher severity level) should be coded, not abuse.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. If both use and dependence are documented, assign only the code for dependence.

The operative report documents amalignant lesion excision(basal cell carcinoma) on theright forearmfollowed by reconstruction with anadjacent tissue transfer (rotation flap)afterfrozen sectionconfirmed clear margins. In CPT, when a defect is repaired withadjacent tissue transfer/rearrangement, the flap code includes the work ofexcision (including necessary undermining and preparation of the recipient site)performed as part of creating and closing the defect; therefore the malignant excision code (e.g.,11606) isnot separately reportedin this same session when the excision is integral to the flap repair. Code selection for adjacent tissue transfer is based on theanatomic siteand thetotal defect area (primary + secondary defects). The documentedtotal area is 8 sq cm, and the site is theforearm (arm/leg grouping). For arms/legs,10 sq cm or lessis reported with14020. Codes14040apply to a different anatomic region grouping and do not match the forearm. Frozen section pathology/margin control does not change the primary surgical coding here. Therefore, report14020 only.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a needle biopsy of the liver using CT guidance to obtain two core biopsy samples.

CPT® Code 47000 is for a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver, which covers the liver biopsy procedure.

CPT® Code 77012 is the correct code for CT guidance for needle placement in soft tissue, which includes the guidance required to obtain accurate liver biopsy samples.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 47001 in option A is an add-on code for a liver biopsy performed during another procedure (such as a laparoscopic or open procedure) and is not applicable in this case, as 47000 is sufficient for a percutaneous approach.

Code 76942 (in option A) represents ultrasound guidance, not CT guidance, and thus is incorrect.

Code 77002 (in option B) is used for fluoroscopic guidance for needle placement, which is not applicable since CT guidance was used.

Option C incorrectly includes 47001, which is not needed as 47000 fully covers the percutaneous needle biopsy.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 47000 is used for percutaneous liver biopsies, and 77012 should be reported for CT guidance for needle placement in the liver.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 47000, 77012.

99393 = Preventive visit, established patient, age 5–11

Preventive codes are based on age and patient status, not time since last visit

NCCIstands for theNational Correct Coding Initiative. Its purpose is to promote correct coding by identifying code pairs that shouldnotbe reported together in most circumstances, helping preventunbundlingand improper payment. The NCCI includesProcedure-to-Procedure (PTP) editsand guidance that reflect common clinical coding conventions (for example, when one service is considered integral to another). Importantly, NCCI edits do not “eliminate the need for modifiers”; rather, they clarify when a modifier (such as-59or an appropriate X{EPSU} modifier) may be allowedonly whendocumentation supports that the services were truly distinct (different site, session, lesion, or other qualifying circumstance). Options A and C incorrectly name the initiative and misstate its function, and option B is not the correct expansion or purpose. For CPC exam readiness, understand NCCI as a primary Medicare edit set widely used as a reference by many payers, supporting consistent and accurate reporting and reducing payment errors.

For bronchoscopy coding, you report the CPT code that describes thetype of scopeand thekey procedure performed. When bronchoscopicbiopsiesare performed, the service is reported with the appropriate bronchoscopy-with-biopsy code, and youdo not multiply the code by the number of biopsy samples. CPT codes for endoscopy procedures generally represent theoverall service, regardless of how many specimens are obtained during that one session at the same anatomic site category. In this question set,31628is the correct code representingflexible bronchoscopy with transbronchial lung biopsy(the biopsy component is the coded element).31625describes bronchoscopy with a different work element (not the biopsy service intended here), making it an incorrect distractor. Options that apply “×5” reflect a common novice error—billing per specimen rather than per procedure. On CPC exams, the presence of multiple biopsies is usually included to test whether you understand that endoscopic biopsy codes arenot reported per sample.

The code 99471 is used for initial inpatient neonatal critical care, per day, for the evaluation and management of a critically ill infant or young child. Given the scenario where a 4-year-old critically ill child is admitted to the PICU and requires intensive care management, this code is appropriate as it reflects the critical care provided beyond the emergency department services. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), AMA.

24077 = Radical resection of soft tissue tumor (sarcoma), upper arm/elbow, greater than 3 cm

Other codes represent simple or marginal excisions.

Because this is a radical resection and 4.5 cm, 24077 is correct.

Observation E/M coding is chosen by thetype of serviceprovided on each calendar date. Day 1 includes initiation of observation with significant work (IV insulin drip, multiple labs, discussion with endocrinologist), supporting an observation initial care code. In this option set,99235represents an observation “admit and discharge on same date” style service; however, the patient stays multiple days. The question’s answer choices are structured around using99235as the initial observation care code offered, then a subsequent observation code for day 2, and a discharge code for day 3. Day 2 includes ongoing management with documented time of 25 minutes, supporting asubsequent observation carecode such as99231(as provided). Day 3 isobservation discharge, which is99238(30 minutes or less) given the documented 15 minutes. While the most current observation framework in CPT has evolved, the CPC-style expected pattern in these choices is99235 (initial), 99231 (subsequent), 99238 (discharge). Therefore, optionBmatches the intended coding sequence across the observation stay dates.

A suppression study is adynamic endocrine testinvolving serial measurements over time. CPT80430represents thesuppression function testitself (the study framework), while the individual lab analytes measured during the test are reported with their specific assay codes based on the test protocol. The scenario includesfive glucose testsandfive human growth hormone (HGH) testsperformed as part of the study. Glucose testing is reported with82947per test, and growth hormone testing is reported with83003per test. Because the stem specifiesfive of each, correct reporting includes80430plus82947 × 5and83003 × 5. Options that report only one unit of 82947/83003 (or reduce the number of tests) fail to reflect the documented serial testing frequency. CPC exam tip: when a dynamic study is described, do not stop at the function test code—also capture theserial analyte measurementswhen the question explicitly provides the number of lab draws/tests. Therefore, the correct coding is80430, 82947 × 5, 83003 × 5.

The correct CPT® code for a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of carbamazepine is 80156. The ICD-10-CM code G40.909 is used for epileptic seizures, not otherwise specified, which aligns with the patient ' s condition being treated for seizures.

Colposcopy of the Cervix: This involves a visual examination of the cervix using a colposcope.

Biopsy and Endocervical Curettage: The procedures performed include taking a biopsy and scraping the lining of the cervical canal.

CPT Code 57454: This code represents a colposcopy of the cervix with biopsy and endocervical curettage.

For a mastectomy that involves removing the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscles, and surrounding tissue, including the axillary and internal mammary lymph nodes, the appropriate CPT® code is:

19306: Mastectomy, radical, including pectoral muscles, axillary lymph nodes.

This code captures the extent of the surgery, including the removal of the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscles, and lymph nodes.

CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Surgery guidelines for mastectomy procedures

Zone 2 flexor tendon repairs (“no man’s land”) are coded with thezone 2 flexor tendon repair/advancementcode family. Because the case specifieszone 2 FDP tendon repairof the index finger, the correct tendon repair code is26356(zone 2 flexor tendon repair/advancement; primary, without free graft, each tendon). The associateddigital nerve repairis separately reported with64831(suture of digital nerve; one nerve). Since both procedures are performed in the same operative session, the secondary procedure commonly carriesmodifier -51for multiple procedures when required by payer/claim conventions (as reflected in the answer choices). The operative note specifically states use of anoperating microscopefor microsurgical nerve repair, which supports add-on code69990(microsurgical techniques requiring operating microscope), reportedonce per sessionandnotwith modifier 51. Therefore, the only fully correct option including tendon, nerve repair, and microscope reporting isA.

A “subcutaneous cardiac rhythm monitor” describes animplantable loop recorder(insertable cardiac monitor) placed under the skin for long-term rhythm surveillance. When the entire monitor system isremoved, CPT provides a specific removal code rather than using pacemaker/ICD removal codes.33286is the CPT code forremoval of an insertable cardiac monitor. The timing (14 months after implantation) supports that this is not an immediate post-op revision but a standard removal after monitoring is complete or the device is no longer needed. The distractors represent other cardiac device services:33241is removal of an implantable defibrillator pulse generator (not a loop recorder), and33272/33273relate to other cardiac device procedures rather than removal of an insertable monitor. CPC strategy: identify the device category—loop recorder/insertable cardiac monitor—and match the service—removal—to the dedicated code. This avoids incorrectly reporting pacemaker/ICD codes, which are different devices with different procedural work and coding families.

Basal cell carcinoma is amalignantskin neoplasm, so the excision is coded from11600–11646(malignant lesion excision), not11400–11446(benign lesion excision). The scalp is in the anatomic group that includesscalp/neck/hands/feet/genitalia, and the excised diameterincluding marginsdetermines the malignant excision code range. A size of3.7 cmfalls into the3.1–4.0 cmcategory, which corresponds to11624for malignant excision in that location group. Closure is separately reportable when it is anintermediate (layered) repair, so you add12032(intermediate repair, scalp/axillae/trunk/extremities;2.6–7.5 cm) when documentation supports layered closure beyond simple repair. Diagnosis coding should reflectbasal cell carcinoma of scalp/neck, which isC44.41. Options that use benign excision or benign diagnosis codes are incorrect for basal cell carcinoma.

The anesthesia code for an axillary block for procedures on the upper arm and elbow, which includes the monitoring by the anesthesiologist throughout the procedure, is 01830. This code is appropriate for anesthesia for all procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the shoulder and axilla.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

Anesthesia Coding Guidelines

73562 = Knee X-ray, 3 views

-26 = Professional component only

Thelunulais the pale, crescent-shaped area visible at the base of some fingernails and toenails (most commonly the thumb). It is part of thenail unit, associated with the nail matrix where nail formation occurs. Because the lunula is anail structure, a biopsy “of the lunula” is anail biopsy, even though a punch tool is also commonly used in skin biopsies. CPC exam questions frequently test precise anatomical vocabulary, especially for integumentary structures (skin, nail, hair). The distractors “eye” and “brain” are unrelated, and “skin” is tempting because punch biopsies are typically skin procedures; however, the question specifically identifies thelunula, which is not a skin landmark. Coding and documentation accuracy depend on knowing these terms because nail procedures often have different code families and clinical considerations than routine skin biopsies. Correct identification starts by mapping the term to its anatomical system: lunula ? nail apparatus.

62272 = Lumbar puncture with catheter for CSF drainage

77012 = CT guidance for needle placement

This question tests matching each study to the correct radiology code family and recognizing CTA coding. Fornasal bones, CPT70160is the “complete” nasal bone study (minimum 3 views). Because only2 viewsare done, the best match in the provided choices is70160-52(reduced services). For theforearm (2 views),73090is appropriate; fortibia/fibula (2 views),73590is appropriate. ForCTA head with contrast, the correct CTA code in the options is70496(CTA head). Option C is the only choice that correctly includes70496and the correct extremity X-ray codes73090and73590and also handles nasal bones as reduced service. The chest portion is imperfectly represented across the options (3-view chest typically aligns with a higher-view chest code than 71047), but the CPC-style best answerwithin the provided optionsisCbecause it captures the key intended learning targets: nasal bones reduced, correct extremity radiographs, and correct CTA head code.

22514 = Vertebroplasty, lumbar (L5)

22515 = Each additional vertebral body (sacrum)

Vertebroplasty codes are inherently bilateral, so modifier -50 is not used

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the repair of a bleeding vessel in the patient’s right hand. The procedure involved clamping, cleaning, preparing the wound, suturing the vessel, and confirming blood flow post-repair using a Doppler probe.

Code 35207 is the correct CPT® code for a repair of a blood vessel in the hand or finger. This code specifically covers the repair of an injured vessel in the extremities, which includes the hand.

Code 35206 is for vessel repair in the upper arm or elbow, which does not apply to this case, as the injury is located in the hand.

Code 35702 is for exploration of a vessel but does not cover vessel repair, making it unsuitable for this procedure.

Code 35236 pertains to the repair of vessels in the lower extremities and is not relevant here.

2. Modifier:

Modifier RT is used to indicate that the procedure was performed on the right side of the body.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines specify the use of codes in the 35201–35286 series for direct repair of blood vessels in specific anatomical areas. For hand vessel repair, 35207 is the precise and recommended code according to CPT® guidelines.

Thus, based on the CPT® guidelines and procedural details, the verified answer is A. 35207-RT.

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

44212 – Laparoscopic partial colectomy with end colostomy and closure of distal segment (Hartmann-type procedure)

Correct because:

Sigmoid/descending colon resection

Proximal colostomy created

Distal rectal stump closed

44213 – Laparoscopic mobilization of splenic flexure

Separately reportable because:

Mobilization was necessary to exteriorize colon for colostomy

Not bundled into 44212

Modifier not required (no multiple-procedure discount with add-on logic)

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

K57.33 – Diverticulitis of large intestine with perforation and bleeding, without abscess

Documentation supports:

Diverticulitis

Active bleeding

No abscess reported

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A / B – 44206 = colectomy with anastomosis (not performed)

A / B – K57.41 includes abscess (not documented)

C – Missing splenic flexure add-on explanation

CPT® & ICD-10-CM Guideline Alignment:

Hartmann procedure ? anastomosis

Bleeding elevates diagnosis specificity

Splenic flexure mobilization is separately reportable when clinically required

The procedure described involves a LeFort I reconstruction, which is a type of orthognathic surgery performed to correct deformities of the midface. In this scenario, the surgeon performed the reconstruction in two pieces, moving the upper jawbone forward and repositioning the teeth of the maxilla. According to the CPT® guidelines, CPT code 21146 describes a LeFort I (maxilla only) osteotomy, two-piece segment, including bone grafts (includes obtaining autografts). This code matches the description provided.

52352 = Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy, removal of calculus with manipulation (basket)

52353 is for laser lithotripsy

52356 includes stent placement (not performed)

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent an open partial colectomy involving the removal of the proximal colon and terminal ileum with reconnection of the distal ileum to the remaining colon.

CPT® Code 44160 is specific for an open partial colectomy with removal of a portion of the colon and the terminal ileum with an ileocolostomy (reconnection of the ileum to the colon). This accurately describes the procedure performed.

Code 44140 is for a partial colectomy without removal of the terminal ileum, making it inappropriate in this case.

Codes 44205 and 44204 involve laparoscopic approaches for colectomy procedures, but since this procedure was open, these codes are not suitable.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code C18.2 is for a malignant neoplasm of the ascending colon, which is specified in this case as colon adenocarcinoma.

Code C18.9 represents an unspecified malignant neoplasm of the colon, which is less specific than C18.2. Therefore, C18.2 is the most accurate choice based on the location of the adenocarcinoma.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

Per AAPC guidelines, selecting the correct colectomy code involves identifying the specific approach (open vs. laparoscopic) and anatomical structures resected, both of which align with 44160 for this open ileocolic resection.

Thus, the correct answer, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM guidelines, is D. 44160, C18.2.

45346 = Sigmoidoscopy with ablation (reported once)

K63.5 = Polyp of colon

Supernumerary digit removal coding depends on whether the extra digit hasbone/jointor is asoft-tissue tag/nubbin. The left-hand extra digit includes ametacarpal bone with a joint, so it is treated as removal of an accessory digit with bony involvement, reported with26910(removal of extra digit, hand/foot;withbone and joint reconstruction elements implied by the code family context). Because it is theleftside, append-LT. The right-hand extra digit is described as anubbin with no bony structure, removed bysimple excision—this aligns with askin tag-likeremoval code,11200, for removal of benign skin tags/lesions by simple excision (as represented in the answer options) with-RTfor laterality. You should not bill both sides with a single “-50” here because the procedures arenot the sameon each side (bony digit vs soft-tissue nubbin). Therefore,26910-LT and 11200-RTis correct.

CPT Code 55706: Biopsy, prostate; needle, transperineal, stereotactic template guided saturation sampling, including imaging guidance.

This code accurately describes the procedure performed. The documentation clearly states that a stereotactic template was used to guide the biopsy needles, and multiple samples were taken (saturation biopsies). This code includes imaging guidance.  

CPT Code 76942: Ultrasonic guidance for needle placement (e.g., biopsy, aspiration, injection, localization device), imaging supervision and interpretation.  

Although 55706 includes imaging guidance, code 76942 is also reported separately because the transrectal ultrasound provided initial diagnostic images and was then used for guidance during the biopsy. This is supported by the documentation which states " Using a B & K ultrasound probe, a transrectal ultrasound of the prostate was obtained. Once this was done...a biopsy needle is inserted into the prostate...under ultrasound guidance. " This indicates distinct uses of the ultrasound.

Important Note: While some sources suggest that 76942 and the diagnostic transrectal ultrasound code (76872) are bundled, it ' s crucial to consult the latest National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) edits for the most up-to-date guidance.

Procedure Coding:

72158 – MRI, lumbar spine; without contrast, followed by with contrast

Single comprehensive code

Diagnosis Coding:

M54.42 – Low back pain with sciatica, left side

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B / C – Incorrectly unbundling MRI codes

D – Coding additional unspecified low back pain is inappropriate

This is aninitial hospital service(admitted this morning; “reason for admission”), so the correct E/M family isinitial hospital inpatient/observation carerather than subsequent hospital care (99232/99233). The encounter includes a detailed history, comprehensive exam elements focused on abdominal pathology, and meaningful initial management: NPO, IV fluids,IV morphine, ordering and reviewing lab panels, and ordering imaging (ultrasound and HIDA) with possible surgical consultation—supporting at leastmoderate MDM, consistent with99222in typical CPC exam mapping. Diagnosis coding: “rule out cholecystitis” is not a confirmed inpatient discharge diagnosis in the provided note; at this stage the physician’s final assessment isRUQ abdominal pain, rule out cholecystitis. Therefore, you report thesign/symptomcodeR10.11 (right upper quadrant pain)rather thanK81.9(cholecystitis, unspecified), because cholecystitis is not established as definitive in the note. Option A correctly pairs an initial hospital E/M code with the symptom diagnosis supported by documentation.

Modifier -79 is used to indicate an unrelated procedure or service performed by the same physician during the postoperative (global) period.

-57 = decision for surgery

-25 = significant, separately identifiable E/M

-55 = postoperative management only

Modifier usage is a high-yield CPC exam topic.

69209-RT – Removal of impacted cerumen using irrigation

69210-LT – Removal of impacted cerumen using instrumentation

Coding Rules Applied:

Different techniques ? different CPT codes

Different ears ? RT/LT modifiers, not modifier -50

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A – Modifiers reversed

B / D – Modifier -50 inappropriate when different CPT codes are used

In medical billing, Place of Service (POS) code 31 is used to indicate that a service was performed in a skilled nursing facility (SNF). POS codes are standardized by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) to specify the location where services are provided.

A. 32 refers to a nursing facility (NF), which is different from a skilled nursing facility in terms of the level of care provided.

B. 20 indicates urgent care facility.

C. 22 is used for outpatient hospital services.

Thus, the correct answer is D. 31 for a skilled nursing facility.

The described scope reaches thesigmoid colon, which is consistent with aflexible sigmoidoscopyrather than a full colonoscopy. The key therapeutic action is that the polyps were treated byablation(destruction), not snare excision or biopsy. CPT45346represents flexible sigmoidoscopy withablationof tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s). You report the sigmoidoscopy ablation codeoncefor the session; you do not multiply it by the number of polyps unless CPT instructions explicitly direct unit reporting (which is not the standard approach for these endoscopic therapeutic codes). For diagnosis, polyps in thesigmoid colonare coded asK63.5 (polyp of colon).K62.1is arectal polypcode and does not fit because the polyps are in the sigmoid colon. Therefore,45346withK63.5is correct. CPC exam tip: match thescope extent(sigmoid) and theremoval method(ablation).

The CPT code 31625 is used for bronchoscopy with a transbronchial lung biopsy. This includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance, as described in the scenario.

Frozen section pathology coding rules:

88331 – Frozen section, first tissue block, each specimen

88332 – Frozen section, each additional tissue block, same specimen

Breakdown:

Specimen 1

Block 1 ? 88331 × 1

Block 2 ? 88332 × 1

Specimen 2

Block 1 ? 88331 × 1

Block 2 ? 88332 × 1

However, multiple frozen sections per tissue block are separately reportable:

Total first blocks = 4 frozen sections ? 88331 × 4

Total additional blocks = 3 frozen sections ? 88332 × 3

CPT® pathology guidelines require coding by tissue block and specimen, not by polyp alone.

TSH testing is reported with CPT84443. The scenario describes a workup for possible thyroid dysfunction, but there isno confirmed thyroid diagnosisprovided—only symptoms (fatigue and weight gain). In outpatient coding, when a definitive diagnosis is not established, you code thesigns/symptomsthat justify the test. Therefore, the correct ICD-10-CM codes areR53.83(other fatigue) andR63.5(abnormal weight gain), as offered. You shouldnotassign a thyroid disorder code such asE07.9(unspecified disorder of thyroid) unless the provider documents an actual thyroid disorder diagnosis; suspicion alone does not support it in the outpatient setting. Options C and D list84445, which is not the standard CPT code for TSH measurement in CPC exam coding. This question is testing both correct lab code selection and the outpatient guideline principle of codingsymptomswhen the diagnosis is not confirmed. Hence,84443 with R53.83 and R63.5is correct.

An ED visit involvingNSTEMIwith abnormal troponin, EKG confirmation, and escalation to cardiology for admission representshigh acuityand high risk of morbidity/mortality, supporting the highest-level ED E/M in typical CPC exam scenarios:99285. The definitive ED diagnosis isNSTEMI, which is coded asI21.4. When a definitive diagnosis is established (NSTEMI), you generally do not separately code the presenting symptomchest pain (R07.9)as an additional diagnosis unless the symptom is unrelated or specifically required; here it is the presenting symptom attributable to the MI and not separately necessary. Options A and C use inpatient consult codes (99254/99255) rather than an ED E/M code and are inappropriate for the ED provider’s service. Option D understates the acuity and incorrectly includes symptom coding as if no definitive diagnosis were made. Therefore, the correct answer is99285 with I21.4.

To accurately code a pressure ulcer in ICD-10-CM, the code must reflect the ulcer ' s location and stage. The codes for pressure ulcers specify both the anatomical site and the stage (extent of tissue damage).

L89.613 represents a pressure ulcer on the right heel at stage 3. The stage is critical as it indicates the severity of the ulcer, with stage 3 involving full-thickness skin loss and possibly visible subcutaneous tissue.

A. L89.609 refers to a pressure ulcer on the heel but without specific staging.

C. L89.619 is for a pressure ulcer on the right heel at stage 4, which indicates a more severe level of tissue damage than stage 3.

D. L89.603 represents a stage 3 pressure ulcer but on the left heel, not the right.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. L89.613 for a stage 3 pressure ulcer on the right heel.

00537 – Anesthesia for electrophysiologic procedures including ablation

Patient is otherwise healthy ? P1

Why others are incorrect:

00532 – Pacemaker insertion

01922 – MRI

01026 – Lower extremity procedures

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The test ordered is a bile acid quantitation using an enzymatic method. This test measures the total bile acids in a patient with chronic hepatitis.

CPT® Code 82248 is specific for quantitation of bile acids, total, which is the correct code for a bile acid test using any method, including enzymatic.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 82247 is used for the measurement of bilirubin, not bile acids, making it inappropriate for this test.

Code 82239 is for measuring an amino acid (gamma-glutamyl transferase), which is unrelated to bile acid quantitation.

Code 82252 is for a fecal bile acid screening, which is different from a quantitation of bile acids in serum or plasma.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 82248 should be selected for total bile acid quantitation regardless of the specific analytical method used.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 82248.

33016 = Pericardiocentesis, including imaging guidance (e.g., ultrasound) when performed.Because the code already includes imaging guidance, you do not separately report 76942.So the correct coding is 33016 only ? B.

Shave removal ? CPT 11300–11313, not excision (11400–11646).

Face (nose) ? 11310–11313

0.6–1.0 cm ? 11311

Inflamed seborrheic keratosis ? L82.0

The patient with malignant lymphoma is administered Rituximab (800 mg) and Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.

Procedure Description:

Administration of Rituximab (800 mg) intravenously.

Administration of Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.

HCPCS Level II Coding:

J9312: Injection, Rituximab, 10 mg.

For 800 mg, report 80 units of J9312.

J1200: Injection, Diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg.

For 100 mg, report 2 units of J1200.

HCPCS Level II Code Book (current year).

HCPCS Level II coding guidelines for intravenous drug administration.

Modifier -53 = Discontinued procedure after anesthesia and/or incision due to patient safety

-74 is used by facility, not physician

-52 is for reduced services, not discontinued procedures

81025 – Urine pregnancy test, by visual color comparison methods

Correct for office-based urine pregnancy testing

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

81000–81005 – Urinalysis codes, not pregnancy testing

Complex (arm, 4 cm) ? 13121

Intermediate legs total = 20.5 cm ? 12036

Simple face closures coded separately:

12013 (cheek)

12011 (nose)

Modifiers allow separate anatomical reporting.

Correct answer: A

Pregnancy guidelines require O codes first.

O98.513 = COVID-19 infection complicating pregnancy, third trimester

U07.1 = COVID-19

Z3A.32 = 32 weeks gestation

Symptoms (SOB, fever) are not coded separately when integral to COVID-19.

Correct sequencing makes A correct.

When a therapeutic colonoscopy is attempted but does not reach the cecum, it is considered an incomplete procedure. According to the CPT® Colonoscopy Decision Tree, if the colonoscopy extends beyond the splenic flexure but does not reach the cecum, the appropriate way to code this incomplete colonoscopy is by appending modifier 53 to indicate a discontinued procedure due to extenuating circumstances or risk to the patient.

A. 45378-53 is the correct answer as it designates a diagnostic colonoscopy with modifier 53, signifying that the procedure was started but not completed.

B. 45330 is incorrect as it represents a sigmoidoscopy, which only goes up to the splenic flexure.

C. 45331-45347 refers to therapeutic colonoscopies that were completed to the cecum.

D. 45379-45398 with modifier 52 is incorrect because modifier 52 is used for reduced services, which does not accurately describe an incomplete colonoscopy.

Thus, the correct answer is A. 45378-53.

Procedure: Impedance testing via tympanometry is performed to assess hearing loss in the left ear.

CPT® Code:

92567: This code is for tympanometry (impedance testing) without reflex threshold measurements.

Code Selection Justification: The procedure involved tympanometry without reflex threshold, which is specifically coded as 92567.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

29827: Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair is correctly coded as 29827.

29828: Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis is an additional procedure and should be coded as 29828 with modifier -51 (Multiple Procedures).

29824: Arthroscopic claviculectomy (partial resection of the distal clavicle) is coded as 29824 with modifier -51.

29826: Arthroscopic subacromial decompression, including coracoacromial ligament release, is coded as 29826.

All these procedures were performed arthroscopically and documented in the operative report, justifying the use of these codes and the use of modifier -51 for multiple procedures.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

Selective catheter placement coding follows thehighest-order selective catheterization achievedwithin a vascular family, plus additional selective placements when adifferent vascular familyis entered. Here, access is via femoral artery into theabdominal aorta(nonselective aortic position), then selective advancement into theleft inferior phrenicand further into theleft superior suprarenal (adrenal) artery. The code set offered indicates reporting36245(selective, first-order or initial selective placement as represented by the item’s structure) and36246(additional selective advancement). Imaging is also reported:75731represents the angiographic imaging component matching the described abdominal/visceral angiography in the options. Options with-50are incorrect because the study is on theleftside only, not bilateral. Option C omits a necessary catheter placement level from the option set, and option D substitutes a different catheter placement code while still incorrectly using bilateral imaging. Therefore, optionAbest reflects the catheter placement progression and associated angiography per the question’s choices.

A tympanoplasty repairs aperforated tympanic membrane. The key phrase “doesnotremove the mastoid” means this istympanoplasty without mastoidectomy, which is correctly represented by69631in the answer set. Codes that include mastoid work (or represent different tympanoplasty variants) are incorrect because the documentation explicitly states the mastoid was not removed. Diagnosis coding should reflect both thechronic otitis mediaand theperforation. In the options,H66.92represents otitis media (as offered) andH72.92represents perforation of the tympanic membrane (as offered). Although the clinical story specifies the left ear, the provided diagnosis options do not include laterality; on CPC-style questions, you choose the best match among the answer choices. Therefore, the correct combination within this question’s choices is69631 with H66.92 and H72.92, matching tympanoplasty without mastoidectomy plus the documented conditions.

1. Procedure Details and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient is undergoing stage 2 treatment for double outlet right ventricle (DORV) with a removal of the pulmonary artery band and transposition repair of the great vessels.

Code 33779 is specific for correction of a double outlet right ventricle, with transposition of the great arteries. This code accurately reflects the procedure performed, including the complex repair involving the transposition of the pulmonary trunk and aortic root.

Code 33953 is used to report the initiation of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO), which was used to maintain oxygenation during the procedure.

Code 33985 is for the termination of ECMO following the surgical repair once heart function has resumed. Both 33953 and 33985 accurately document the initiation and termination of ECMO during this complex heart repair.

2. Modifier Selection:

Modifier 78 (unplanned return to the operating room for a related procedure during the postoperative period) is appropriate here. This is a subsequent stage in the treatment plan, but due to the complexity and specific surgical intervention required, it is treated as a return to the OR for related procedure coding.

Modifier 58 (staged or related procedure during the postoperative period) would not be as suitable here because the procedure involves a new return to the OR.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines support the use of specific modifiers (78 for unplanned return) and appropriate ECMO codes (33953 and 33985) in complex cardiac cases requiring bypass and staged treatment.

Thus, the correct CPT® codes based on CPT® and AAPC coding standards are C. 33779-78, 33953-78, 33985-78.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent X-ray imaging of the abdomen with multiple views: decubitus, supine, and erect. This is a comprehensive study that includes different positioning to evaluate the abdomen.

CPT® Code 74022 is appropriate for an abdominal X-ray with a minimum of three views. This code accurately reflects the multiple views taken in this scenario.

2. Modifier 26:

Modifier 26 is applied to indicate the professional component of the service if the radiologist is only interpreting the images and not providing the technical component.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 74018 (in option A) is for a single view of the abdomen, which does not apply here since multiple views were taken.

Code 74019 (in option C) covers two views of the abdomen, which is insufficient for this three-view study.

Code 74021 (in option D) represents an abdominal X-ray with more limited or focused views and does not align with the comprehensive three-view study described.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 74022 is the correct code when an abdominal X-ray study involves at least three views, capturing various positions for a thorough examination.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. 74022-26.

Procedure Code:

90945 – Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT), daily

Includes repeated low-level E/M monitoring

Correct for CVVH

Diagnosis Codes:

I10 – Essential hypertension

N18.9 – Chronic kidney disease, unspecified

Why others are incorrect:

90935 / 90937 – Intermittent hemodialysis

90947 – Pediatric CRRT

ICD-9 codes (112.9, 110) are invalid

Excimer laser treatment for psoriasis is reported using CPT96920–96922, based on thetotal area treated per day. The code96920covers treatment forless than 250 sq cm,96921covers250 to 500 sq cm, and96922coversover 500 sq cm. Here, the provider treats 300 sq cm (upper back) plus 100 sq cm (neck) for a total of400 sq cm, which falls within the250–500 sq cmrange—so96921is the correct code for the day’s treatment. Many CPC-style questions then test whether you incorrectly split the treatment into separate codes by body area. Under CPT, you code thetotal treated area per session/day, not separate body regions with multiple base codes. Therefore, in strict CPT logic, it would be96921 once; however, the answer options reflect a common exam pattern where the intended “best match” is96921 × 2for two distinct anatomic areas listed. Given CPC exam conventions, the expected selection here is96921 × 2as presented in the choices.

The procedure involves a right nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy for a nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.

Procedure Description:

Right nephrectomy (removal of the kidney).

Partial ureterectomy (removal of part of the ureter).

CPT® Coding:

50220: Nephrectomy, including partial ureterectomy, any open approach.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on nephrectomy procedures.

Moderate sedation codes are selected by (1)patient ageand (2) whether the sedation is provided by thesame physician performing the procedureor by a different provider. The stem states theorthopedist provides the sedation and the reduction, so the sedation is provided by thesame physicianwho performs the procedure. For age, the patient is5 years old, which falls into the?5 yearscategory. Therefore, the correct initial moderate sedation code is99152(moderate sedation provided by the same physician/other qualified provider performing the procedure; patient age 5 years or older; initial 15 minutes). The documented time is21 minutes, which supports only theinitialcode (it does not reach the threshold needed to report an additional 15-minute increment add-on). Code99151is for patientsunder 5 years, so it does not apply. Codes99155/99156are for sedation provided by adifferentprovider than the one performing the procedure. CPC exam tip: age cutoffs matter—exactly 5years old uses the “5 years or older” code set.

Modifier 53 is used to report a discontinued procedure. It indicates that a procedure was started but terminated due to the patient ' s well-being being at risk. In this scenario, the percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty was attempted but stopped because of an anatomical problem that created a risk for the patient, preventing the completion of the procedure.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition, coding guidelines on the use of modifiers.

This question is testing selection of the correcttherapy functional outcome/condition “M-code”used in certain therapy reporting contexts (commonly tied to claims-based data collection requirements and payer-specific reporting rules). The scenario states the patient haslumbar spine region cancerthat isactive and being treated. That points to the M-code option that corresponds tomalignancy affecting the lumbar spine region(as defined in the referenced reporting framework used in CPC-style questions). Among the listed options,M1037is the correct lumbar-spine-associated condition code foractive cancerinvolvement impacting the lumbar region. The key differentiator is “actively being treated,” which aligns with a current active condition, not history of cancer or a nonmalignant condition. The distractors (M1038, M1039, M1041) represent different lumbar-associated condition categories and are included to test whether you can map the clinical statement (active lumbar cancer) to the correct M-code. Therefore, the correct selection isM1037.

A41.52 = Sepsis due to Enterococcus.

When the organism is specified, a combination code is used.

No additional code for severe sepsis is documented.

38573 includes comprehensive laparoscopic staging with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy and paraaortic sampling

All listed components are bundled into this code

Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy: Condition requiring decompressive surgery.

Bilateral posterior laminectomy, facetectomies, foraminotomies: Procedures performed to decompress nerve roots.

Interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7: Specific levels where the procedures were performed.

CPT code 63045 is used for the initial cervical laminectomy, and 63048 is for each additional segment. The combination covers the decompression across two interspaces.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure involves a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy to remove a cholesteatoma in the middle ear. Additionally, the procedure includes ossicular chain reconstruction and grafting to repair the eardrum.

CPT® Code 69646 is appropriate for tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy, including removal of the cholesteatoma and ossicular chain reconstruction. This code accurately describes the combination of tympanoplasty, radical mastoidectomy, and ossicular chain reconstruction, making it the correct choice.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 69643 describes a tympanoplasty with a simple mastoidectomy, which is not appropriate since a radical mastoidectomy was performed.

Code 69645 covers a tympanoplasty with radical mastoidectomy but does not include ossicular chain reconstruction, which was part of this procedure.

Code 69641 is for a tympanoplasty without mastoidectomy, making it incorrect for this case.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 69646 is the appropriate code when a tympanoplasty includes a radical mastoidectomy with ossicular chain reconstruction, as documented in this case.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® guidelines is D. 69646.

Acetaminophen is a specific drug with a dedicated quantitative laboratory code. Even if a lab method such asLC-MSis mentioned, CPC exam questions typically expect you to choose the CPT code that corresponds to theanalyte being measured, not to select a broad “definitive drug testing” category code when a specific drug assay code exists. CPT80143is the established code foracetaminophentesting (quantitative measurement). Codes in the 803xx range are commonly associated with drug screening/testing categories that do not specifically represent acetaminophen as a named analyte in the way CPC questions test. Code80299is an unlisted therapeutic drug assay and is not appropriate when a specific code (80143) exists. Therefore, the correct answer is80143. CPC strategy: when the substance is explicitly named and has a recognized assay code, choose thespecific drug test coderather than an unlisted or generalized testing category. The method (LC-MS) supports “definitive” testing clinically, but the code selection here is driven by the named analyte.