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Practice Free CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the ACAMS CAMS Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free CAMS Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

Question # 7

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

Question # 8

Which of the services provided by Trust and Company Service Providers (TCSPs) present the greatest financial crime risks? (Choose three.)

A.

Providing clear procedures to ensure compliance with local tax regulations

B.

Using trusts to obscure the identity of beneficial owners

C.

Promoting the use of complex corporate structures

D.

Maintaining accurate and updated beneficial ownership details for all customers registered for their services

E.

Establishing shell companies for holding financial assets

Question # 9

Which attributes are typically used to assess the vulnerability to money laundering risk of products offered by an insurer? (Choose three.)

A.

Purpose and intended use

B.

Liquidity

C.

Age of the beneficiary

D.

Customer anonymity or third-party transactions

E.

Length of waiting period

Question # 10

Which of the following actions is specifically permitted or required under FinCEN section 314(b) for financial institutions (FIs) to enhance their efforts in combating money laundering and terrorist financing?

A.

FIs may disclose customer information to any third party

B.

FIs may provide information about their internal compliance programs to law enforcement agencies without any limitations

C.

FIs are required to report all transactions involving foreign entities to FinCEN so that FinCEN can share this information with other financial institutions

D.

FIs may share information about suspected money laundering activities with other FIs to aid in identifying and reporting suspicious transactions

Question # 11

According to the Egmont Group, which benefits do public-private partnerships (PPPs) provide to Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)? (Select Three.)

A.

Helping overcome data protection and information sharing limitations

B.

Enhancing the quality of reporting and additional informational input

C.

Helping to alleviate the financial cost burden on law enforcement

D.

Helping to design common approaches and identify desired deliverables

E.

Offering flexibility, agility, and opportunities to adjust to the ML/TF threat environment

Question # 12

Professional service providers—including lawyers, accountants, investment brokers, and other third parties—may abuse their positions to facilitate money laundering.

Which financial crime risks are associated with this type of abuse? (Select Three.)

A.

Opening an account to settle an estate on behalf of a client

B.

Establishing shell companies to enable money laundering activities, including placement or layering

C.

Opening third-party accounts for the primary purpose of masking the underlying client’s identity

D.

Opening a trust account to facilitate a legitimate real estate transaction

E.

Directing or facilitating the laundering of illicit funds, including structuring transactions

Question # 13

Which red flags could indicate increased terror financing and money laundering risks related to cultural objects? (Select Three.)

A.

Engagement of third-party art advisors as representatives at art auctions

B.

High-quality single pieces of significant value sold on social media platforms

C.

Use of art and antiquity experts to verify an item's authenticity

D.

Paying fair market value or premium prices for valuable art, gems, or precious metals at auction

E.

Use of art storage facilities located in tax-free zones

Question # 14

During a routine periodic KYC refresh of a policyholder and client of an insurance company, updated business registry documentation has highlighted that the policyholder's business has changed addresses five times during the last year and that the ultimate beneficial owner (UBO) changed two weeks ago.

What actions should be taken immediately?

A.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime decline payment and withdrawal instructions from the policy until completion of the investigation and next steps are agreed upon

B.

Request the relationship manager set up a meeting with the policyholder to update their address and submit details of the new UBO in the name of good customer service

C.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime freeze the client's policy

D.

File a suspicious transaction report because the insurance company was not made aware of the business' change of UBO

Question # 15

Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)

A.

data privacy.

B.

enhanced due diligence (EDD) policies.

C.

the Travel Rule.

D.

data quality.

E.

complexity.

F.

regulatory.

Question # 16

Which of the following describes a formal method of information sharing and cooperation between Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering investigations?

A.

FATF, MONEYVAL, and other regional bodies acting as a contact point for FIUs

B.

The Wolfsberg Group serving as a communication platform for FIUs

C.

Memoranda of Understanding (MOUs) between FIUs establishing structured information sharing

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLATs) allowing FIUs to request arrests and evidence

Question # 17

Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues? (Choose two.)

A.

Wolfsberg Group

B.

Transparency International

C.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

D.

Tax Justice Network

Question # 18

Which key metric would provide the most valuable data to the senior management of a financial institution about the effectiveness of its AML controls?

A.

The ratio of true positives to false positives generated by the automated monitoring system

B.

The number of money laundering alerts generated by the watchlist screening system

C.

The number of high-risk customers onboarded each month

D.

The number of clients exited for commercial reasons

Question # 19

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

Question # 20

Which techniques would be most efficient for a complex investigation of unusual patterns of activity involving multiple businesses, triggered by an automated monitoring system alert? (Select Two.)

A.

Perform a control and ownership assessment of the businesses involved, using the information available in the client files

B.

Contact local law enforcement and request that they assist in the analysis and investigation

C.

Review the information presented in the automated monitoring system's alert description and decline any future transactions

D.

Contact the account manager and ask for the reasons behind the patterns of activity highlighted in the AML alerts

E.

Use social media platforms to connect with the businesses and request details about the account activity

Question # 21

How canawareness be raisedwithincountries that do not have sanctions regulatory regimes? (Select Two.)

A.

Restrict trade between countries that have robust AML/CFT and sanctions regulatory regimes and those that do not.

B.

AFC (Anti-Financial Crime) and sanctions-related seminars, webinars, and training within these countries.

C.

Enforcement and pecuniary fines against these countries.

D.

Bilateral conversations and cooperation between governments.

Question # 22

A wealthy individual is using a complex corporate structure to facilitate illegal logging and then illegal mining of the resulting resources from that land.

Which category of predicate crime is taking place?

A.

Trade-based money laundering

B.

Corruption

C.

Illicit resource trade

D.

Environmental crime

Question # 23

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

Question # 24

A company is rapidly expanding into several international markets, including jurisdictions considered high risk in terms of regulatory oversight. The board has requested the Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) to review and adjust the company’s anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance framework to align with the evolving regulatory landscape and expansion strategy. During this process, the MLRO identifies vulnerabilities, particularly in markets with AML deficiencies, and updates the framework to mitigate these risks.

Which element of the AFC compliance program does this process describe?

A.

Governance arrangements

B.

Transaction monitoring

C.

Training and awareness

D.

Risk assessment

Question # 25

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act permits the US government to seize funds deposited in a US correspondent account of a foreign bank, creating extraterritorial impact?

A.

Section 314(a)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 319(b)

D.

Section 319(a)

Question # 26

Fuzzy logic or fuzzy matching in the context of name screening is a method that:

A.

Uses machine learning to predict names based on historical data

B.

Matches names on screening lists to names with similar spellings, patterns, or sounds

C.

Matches names with the same length and characters

D.

Relies exclusively on exact string matches

Question # 27

The key strengths of public-private partnerships (PPP) in anti-financial crime efforts include: (Select Two.)

A.

Improving the speed of action in identifying and mitigating financial crime risks

B.

Enhancing information-sharing capabilities between governments and financial institutions

C.

Providing a legal framework for financial institutions to avoid liability when sharing information

D.

Eliminating the need for organizations to conduct their own due diligence

Question # 28

Which statement is the most accurate describing who must comply with Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions?

A.

All US citizens and permanent residents while located in the US, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals within the United States

B.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities excluding their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

C.

All US citizens except those with dual nationality, US permanent residents, all US incorporated entities, and all individuals within the United States

D.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

Question # 29

What are the rules imposed by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) for legal entities and persons related to the US? (Select Two.)

A.

The head office of a foreign legal entity which has a branch in the US does not need to comply with OFAC rules.

B.

A foreign individual visiting the US for a short vacation is obligated to follow OFAC rules.

C.

Nationals of the US must comply with OFAC rules, regardless of where they are located in the world.

D.

Any foreign corporation is also penalized if it conducts transactions with sanctioned countries under OFAC rules.

E.

A subsidiary of a legal entity of the US, which is formally registered in a foreign country, is exempt from OFAC rules.

Question # 30

Which of the following is a critical consideration for private sector firms when sharing data and intelligence to combat financial crime?

A.

The preference of upper management regarding which teams should participate in the data-sharing initiative

B.

The cost of the data-sharing system and whether it its within the existing IT budget

C.

The potential return on investment (ROI) from the data shared versus the financial crime prevention effort

D.

Ensuring that the shared data complies with applicable data protection regulations while maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the information

Question # 31

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

Question # 32

While there are legitimate reasons for trust and company service providers (TCSPs) to appoint a nominee shareholder, which feature of a nominee shareholder presents the greatest financial crime risk?

A.

Supporting company liquidity and ease of exit strategies

B.

Providing anonymity for the beneficial owner by keeping their identity hidden from the public register

C.

Simplifying administrative tasks associated with shareholding

D.

Helping non-residents comply with local ownership laws

Question # 33

The compliance officer at an EU bank is investigating one of the customer accounts maintained with the bank for the last two years. According to bank records, the company's primary economic activity is import and export of petrochemical products Over a period of one year, the account transactions have exceeded US$500 million with various high-value inward wire transfers received from suppliers in Yemen followed by outward wire transfers to counterparties in Azerbaijan.

Which factor should give the compliance officer the greatest concern If observed in the investigation?

A.

Media searches reveal a report that the customer was accused of misconduct three years ago.

B.

The EU bank considers the origin and destination countries Involved in the transactions to be high-risk.

C.

The customer's activity includes multiple cross-border transactions involving various counterparties.

D.

The EU bank received no originator or beneficiary information for the wire transfers.

E.

The customer specializes in the import and export of petrochemical products.

Question # 34

Which of the following are key financial crime risks associated with real estate companies? (Choose four.)

A.

Buying property allows for the movement of large amounts of funds in a single transaction

B.

Criminal networks could purchase real estate for use as supply houses or locations to grow, manufacture, or distribute illicit narcotics

C.

Markets can be volatile, and buyers may not achieve a strong return on their investment

D.

Beneficial ownership information might be opaque, and criminals may abuse arrangements like shell companies and trusts

E.

Real estate transactions often involve financial institutions and other professional gatekeepers

F.

The high value of properties may require multiple types of financing, which can make it more difficult to identify the source of funds

Question # 35

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

Question # 36

Which insurance product is considered the lowest risk for money laundering?

A.

Annuity contracts

B.

Permanent life insurance policies

C.

Group insurance products

D.

Cash-secured products

Question # 37

Which of the following best describes AML/CFT risk identification and assessment for accountants? (Select Two.)

A.

Accountants are not required to keep records of business relationships for more than two years

B.

Drafting a customer acceptance policy can help accountants define customers outside their risk appetite

C.

When determining transaction and service risk, the jurisdiction where the accountant provides the service is not important

D.

Due to their small size and limited resources, accountants are allowed to organize AML/CFT risk only as customer risk or transaction/service risk

E.

Due to the nature of services accountants provide, automated transaction monitoring systems used by financial institutions may not be appropriate

Question # 38

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

Question # 39

Which strategies are most effective for prioritizing resources within an anti-financial crime (AFC) program using a risk-based approach (RBA)? (Choose two.)

A.

Prioritizing resources towards lower-risk areas to reduce workload

B.

Regularly reassessing risks to adjust resource allocation

C.

Allocating more resources to areas with higher financial crime risk

D.

Providing equal resources to all departments to maintain consistency

E.

Using a fixed resource allocation plan without adjustments

Question # 40

Which risk factors should a financial institution (FI) examine for a new corporate customer intending to open a new bank account? (Select Three.)

A.

All the financial institutions where the new customer currently banks or banked previously

B.

The type of business the corporate customer is engaged in

C.

The employment profiles and information of all employees of the new customer

D.

The country or location where the customer is from or conducts business

E.

The identity of senior managing officials and all individuals authorized to operate the account

Question # 41

A key factor in the independence of an AML audit is that the auditor should.

A.

have never worked in previous assignments within the AMUCFT departments.

B.

have no involvement with the organization's AML/CP T compliance staff.

C.

have been screened by the board of directors before the audit starts

D.

be sufficiently trained in AML to be able to provide an independent review.

Question # 42

A high volume of incoming wire transfers generates an alert about a client. The funds are immediately debited by cash withdrawals and outgoing wire transfers.

Which information should be reviewed first to investigate this alert/case?

A.

Open source information

B.

Customer profile

C.

Adverse media search

D.

Account activity

Question # 43

Why is it important to use multiple sanctions lists, such as United Nations (UN), Office of Foreign Assets Control ("OFAC"), and European Union ("EU") lists, in name screening systems?

A.

To avoid sanctions breach related to payments

B.

To avoid onboarding customers previously exited due to true match

C.

To meet international regulatory requirements and identify risks across jurisdictions

D.

To be in line with the risk appetite statement

Question # 44

Which key performance indicators (KPIs) should be considered in the context of ML/TF transaction monitoring? (Select Three.)

A.

Number of days required to hire new staff

B.

Number of alerts raised for review or reporting

C.

Number of alerts by region

D.

Number of transactions by top customers

E.

Average time to review an alert

Question # 45

At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:

A.

comparing these risks with industry benchmarks to determine the residual risk.

B.

implementing new controls to eliminate all risks

C.

rating the effectiveness of the related controls in order to calculate the residual risk.

D.

documenting the historical risk incidents for future reference.

Question # 46

Which of the following scenarios exhibit classic indicators of suspicious transactions? (Select Two.)

A.

A business owner mortgages his home with a financial institution that was recently fined for AML violations

B.

A customer regularly invests in equity funds using her spouse’s bank account where she is a second account holder

C.

An individual who is the secretary to a government official frequently accesses the bank’s safe deposit vault to withdraw cash

D.

An individual regularly imports sophisticated electronic items for civil use and pays all applicable customs duties

E.

An individual wants to execute wire transfers to a person in a FATF grey-listed jurisdiction and asks a close friend to send the money on his behalf, citing financial difficulties

Question # 47

A trust and company services provider that offers a variety of services to businesses is approached by a client interested in establishing a new company. The client requests assistance with the incorporation process, a local business address, annual maintenance services, and the designation of individuals to serve in official capacities for the new company.

Which of the following services involves a higher money laundering risk?

A.

Appointing individuals to serve in official capacities of the company

B.

Annual maintenance services

C.

Provision of a local business address

D.

Company incorporation services

Question # 48

A compliance officer is reviewing an institutional banking prospect proposal for a new foreign entity that is a multinational business but headquartered in a country where most businesses are state-owned.

Which risks should be prioritized in the review? (Choose two.)

A.

Politically exposed persons (PEPs)

B.

Capital flight risk

C.

Anti-bribery and corruption risk

D.

Tax evasion

Question # 49

A compliance officer at a large bank has been tasked with investigating a series of unusual transactions involving a long-time customer. The customer has made several large cash deposits into multiple accounts within a short period, raising red flags. After gathering and analyzing transaction data, reviewing customer records, and cross-referencing external sources, the compliance officer determines that there is a reasonable suspicion of money laundering. As part of documenting this investigation, the compliance officer must decide how and when to escalate the matter internally and whether to file a suspicious activity report (SAR).

What is the next critical step in this process?

A.

Document the customer's transaction history and keep the investigation confidential until further suspicious activity is detected.

B.

Immediately escalate the case to senior management, recommending the closure of the customer's accounts due to potential reputational risk.

C.

Report the investigation to external auditors and await further guidance before taking any action.

D.

Draft a SAR that includes a detailed chronology of the transactions, customer background and the rationale for suspicion, and submit it to the relevant financial intelligence unit (FIU) within the regulatory timelines.

Question # 50

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

Question # 51

Which characteristic of accountants is most attractive to those looking to launder funds using an accountant or accountancy firm?

A.

Accountants can prepare ledgers and spreadsheets, draft annual returns and make payments to government offices

B.

Accountants can advise on the structuring of companies as well as ensure compliance with local tax regulations

C.

Accountants are knowledgeable about financial management, including what to record over the course of the accounting year

D.

Accountants are able to create and structure companies, falsify accounts and manipulate financial statements

Question # 52

Financial institutions (FIs) must use a risk-based approach in customer due diligence (CDD) measures for legal entity clients by:

A.

Understanding and obtaining information about the competition the business relationship could face

B.

Identifying a customer’s identity using data and information from the internet and social media

C.

Taking reasonable measures to verify the identity of the beneficial owner

D.

Conducting ongoing analysis of the business relationship’s profitability

Question # 53

Which of the following scenarios warrants enhanced due diligence (EDD)? (Select Three.)

A.

An existing local league footballer trying to open a bank account with a bank in their local jurisdiction

B.

The current prime minister of a country trying to open a bank account in another country

C.

The former personal secretary to the minister of transport in a low-risk country 25 years ago opening a bank account at a bank in a neighboring low-risk country

D.

A bank located in a higher risk country trying to establish a correspondent-respondent banking relationship with a bank in a lower-risk country

E.

An individual with a current bank account who resides in one country becoming the ambassador of another country

Question # 54

Money laundering has social and economic impacts, especially within developing countries. A high volume of money laundering in a country may: (Select Two.)

A.

Dissuade government tax incentive programs

B.

Reduce confidence in the country's financial sector.

C.

Dissuade foreign investment.

D.

Lower the employment rate.

E.

Reduce volatility in exchange and interest rates.

Question # 55

A large international bank's chief compliance officer (CCO) is exploring ways to enhance the bank's ability to identify suspicious activities by using intelligence data more effectively. One potential solution is to engage in public-private partnerships (PPPs) to leverage shared intelligence and enhance collaboration with government agencies.

The bank considers joining a PPP initiative with the local Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) and other financial institutions to improve its access to relevant data and intelligence. The CCO understands that while PPPs can provide significant benefits, such as improved risk detection and enhanced information sharing, there are also potential limitations, including data privacy concerns and differing priorities between public and private sector partners.

Which approach would best maximize the benefits of PPPs for the bank while mitigating the limitations associated with data sharing and intelligence?

A.

Engage in the PPP without strict data sharing protocols, allowing for open and unrestricted flow of information between the bank, FIUs, and other financial institutions

B.

Rely solely on the intelligence provided by government agencies through the PPP because they have the most comprehensive data on suspicious activities

C.

Establish a clear framework within the PPP that outlines data privacy protections and ensures that information sharing complies with legal and regulatory requirements in all jurisdictions involved

D.

Prioritize the bank’s internal data sources over external intelligence from PPPs, as internal data is easier to control and does not present data privacy challenges

Question # 56

Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)

A.

Paying premium several years in advance and terminating early for a refund

B.

Natural persons having more than one insurance policy

C.

High-premium life insurances that provide high payouts

D.

Regularly switching policies and accepting penalties

E.

Beneficiary payouts to elderly people

Question # 57

What areas of laws and regulations have the greatest impact on AML/CFT applications? (Choose three.)

A.

Information security, data privacy, and cybersecurity

B.

Foreign exchange control, and precious gemstone and metal dealing

C.

Ombudsman and anti-competition authority

D.

Electronic contract and biological signature acceptance

E.

Consumer protection, financial inclusion, and environmental, social and governance

Question # 58

A bank is completing a periodic KYC profile review for a customer that is a small digital marketing company based in New York City.

Which of the following would be a red flag?

A.

The account activity includes deposit activity into both savings and checking accounts

B.

The account activity includes incoming funds transfers at irregular intervals from small businesses located in New York

C.

The account activity includes deposits made in multiple branches around New York City into the same account.

D.

The account activity includes frequent purchases of tickets to industry conferences and other events.

Question # 59

Which transaction monitoring tool characteristic would best support financial institutions in rapidly responding to emerging financial crime risks and threats?

A.

Cloud-based deployment

B.

Configurable reporting

C.

Fully integrated artificial intelligence (AI)

D.

Ability to build, iterate, and test rules

Question # 60

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

Question # 61

How should national and sectoral risk assessments influence an organization’s risk-based approach and internal risk assessment?

A.

They should be referenced and integrated appropriately into an organization’s risk assessment to tailor enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures and allocate resources effectively

B.

They provide general guidance but do not need to be directly considered because internal risk factors are more important

C.

They should only be referenced for high-risk clients as they are designed for worst-case scenarios

D.

They are primarily intended for regulators and should not influence organizational risk assessments

Question # 62

When assessing and managing money laundering risks while operating in foreign jurisdictions different from that of the head office, an effective AML monitoring program should:

A.

Be consistent with the head office audits

B.

Be tailored to the higher of standards between the jurisdictions.

C.

Conform to the foreign jurisdiction policies to align with the head office policies.

D.

Provide all foreign jurisdiction reports to the head office for approval.

Question # 63

Which of the following statements describe the strengths associated with public-private partnerships (PPPs)? (Choose two.)

A.

Public organizations can belter understand what the private sector experiences and inform policy and the enactment of laws

B.

Data-protection privacy policies provide an opportunity to develop information sharing protocols to prevent unauthorized access to information

C.

Data-protection privacy policies prohibit the evolution of PPPs due to restrictions based on legacy government legislation

D.

Small business owners can choose third-party providers or financial institutions to keep their private data safe which can easily be shared within a PPP

Question # 64

A sound AML compliance program requires a comprehensive governance framework that addresses key elements to ensure the integrity of the financial system.

Which element forms the starting point of an effective AML compliance program?

A.

Ongoing monitoring

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Suspicious activity reporting

E.

Customer due diligence

Question # 65

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

Question # 66

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

A.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

B.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

Question # 67

Which of the following are considered best practices for effective AML/CFT training programs? (Select Three.)

A.

Training should cover practical examples, use case studies, and provide information on how to comply with policies.

B.

Up-to-date records including logs of training and completion dates should be maintained.

C.

Training should be broad, high level, and not role-specific in order to reach the largest audience.

D.

Training should cover the consequences of not complying with policies and procedures.

E.

Training should always be provided by an independent third party.

Question # 68

An international bank is investigating a payment requested by one of its correspondent relationships that generated an alert in the automated transaction monitoring system. The payment originated from a corporation located in Hong Kong and the final beneficiary is an individual located in New York.

Which steps should the bank take first to address the alert? (Select Three.)

A.

Send a 314(b) request to the corporation's bank in Hong Kong

B.

Call the receiving individual to review identity verification documents

C.

Confirm that neither the beneficiary nor the originator are sanctioned parties

D.

Request supporting documents, including invoices and contracts to confirm the purpose of the payment

E.

Check for negative news in public sources on the sender and receiver

Question # 69

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

Question # 70

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

Question # 71

A compliance officer at a U.S. financial institution receives a grand jury subpoena requesting customer records related to an ongoing money laundering investigation involving a politically exposed person (PEP).

What should the compliance officer do first?

A.

Notify the customer and seek consent

B.

Consult with the institution’s legal counsel to assess validity and determine the appropriate response

C.

Immediately provide records to the grand jury

D.

File a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) describing receipt of the subpoena

Question # 72

The law enforcement agency (LEA) of a foreign jurisdiction contacts a financial institution (FI) regarding one of the FI's clients. The LEA advises that the client is currently wanted for prosecution as a result of a series of human trafficking charges.

What should the FI do? (Select Two.)

A.

Inform local LEA and regulator of the request for awareness

B.

Close the client's accounts immediately to avoid any undue risk

C.

Review the client's activity, determine if suspicious activity exists, and report accordingly

D.

Advise the LEA that the government needs to be contacted for extradition

E.

Comply immediately with the foreign jurisdiction and turn over all client information

Question # 73

One key aspect of promoting an enterprise-wide compliance culture within a financial institution is that the:

A.

Relevant information should be shared throughout the organization.

B.

Revenue-generating business sectors should have precedence over compliance.

C.

First line of defense should establish its own policies independently.

D.

Cost of compliance should increase proportionately to revenues.

Question # 74

Which types of external data sources are expected to be used for screening customers as part of customer due diligence (CDD)? (Select Three.)

A.

Customer feedback and online review platforms

B.

Social media profiles to assess lifestyle and spending habits

C.

Sanctions lists, including those issued by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)

D.

Registers of stolen or forged documents (where available)

E.

Beneficial ownership registers and adverse media sources

Question # 75

Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)

A.

The family members and close associates of PEPs may be involved in illicit activities.

B.

PEPs are granted unlimited credit and financial immunity under international banking regulations.

C.

PEPs may exploit embassy activities to conceal bribery and corruption transactions.

D.

PEPs can have illegitimate fund sources but are legally protected from having their accounts closed for activities outside a bank's risk appetite.

Question # 76

Which role within private banking has the best placement to identify and report money laundering risk?

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Relationship manager

C.

Operations manager

D.

Compliance officer

Question # 77

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

Question # 78

Which of the following businesses require enhanced or additional scenarios for identifying anomalous transactions? (Select Two.)

A.

Companies operating in cash intense businesses not subject to licensing requirement

B.

Companies operating hospitals and health-care services

C.

Companies operating in cash intense businesses subject to licensing requirement

D.

Companies producing pharmaceutical products and medical devices, companies active in the mining industry

E.

Companies operating retail shops countrywide

Question # 79

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

Question # 80

Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) help to protect financial integrity by: (Select Two.)

A.

Receiving and analyzing Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) to detect financial crime

B.

Disseminating information on emerging trends related to money laundering and associated predicate offenses

C.

Assisting financial institutions with designing products and services that lower residual money laundering risk

D.

Ensuring financial institutions maintain appropriate AML programs commensurate with their risk profiles

Question # 81

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

Question # 82

An AML analyst at a financial institution is examining an alert generated by the automated transaction monitoring system to determine whether the alert should be escalated to the AML unit for further investigation or whether it can be archived as a false positive.

Which action might be reasonable for the AML analyst to take?

A.

Restrict the client's access to the account

B.

Request information from the relationship manager assigned to the account that caused the alert

C.

Perform below-the-line testing to ensure the automated monitoring system is operating effectively

D.

Send a request for information to the counterparty bank involved in the transaction that caused the alert

Question # 83

Which risks inherent to real estate sector carry the highest AML/CFT risk? (Select Two.)

A.

Use of cash to purchase property

B.

Unlicensed real estate agents acting as front companies

C.

Use of a registered trust for the purchase of property

D.

Use of a company for the purchase of property

E.

Manipulation of the value of a property

Question # 84

Which characteristics of trust and company service providers (TCSPs) can potentially make them vulnerable to financial crime? (Select Three.)

A.

They may market themselves specifically to criminals

B.

Offering nominee directors may increase anonymity by concealing true ownership

C.

They do not have to comply with AML regulations in most jurisdictions

D.

Selling ready-made, off-the-shelf companies to offshore intermediaries

E.

Having minimal face-to-face contact with customers, particularly in offshore arrangements

Question # 85

A real estate buyer purchases multiple high-value properties in cash through a series of transactions in a short period of time and without any clear economic justification.

Which of the following is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the real estate sector?

A.

The buyer is using high-value real estate transactions to obscure the origin of the funds.

B.

The buyer is quickly diversifying their investment portfolio through structuring payments in order to take advantage of the liquidity of cash transactions in real estate.

C.

The buyer is capitalizing on favorable market conditions and using cash purchases to outbid competitors in a competitive real estate market using insider information.

D.

The buyer is a real estate developer acquiring multiple properties for a potential redevelopment project with a business partner located in a high-risk jurisdiction.

Question # 86

The Wolfsberg Group's AML Principles on Private Banking:

A.

Assist financial institutions conducting business in jurisdictions with high data privacy standards in working with industries susceptible to money laundering

B.

Advise banks to accept only those clients whose source of funds and beneficial ownership is understood

C.

Establish rules for private bankers on how to deal with politically exposed persons (PEPs) and persons residing in high-risk countries

D.

Require banks to better manage reputational risk and protect the privacy of wealthy clients

Question # 87

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Choose two.)

A.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers

B.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

C.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system

E.

difficulty in tracking the originator recipient, and source of transactions.

Question # 88

The EU's 6th Anti-Money Laundering Directive (6AMLD):

A.

Extended AML oversight to crowdfunding platforms and professional football clubs

B.

Eliminated the requirement for the European Commission to conduct a risk assessment

C.

Created a central EU watchdog to combat money laundering

D.

Strengthened provisions relating to the accuracy of data submitted to central beneficial ownership registries

Question # 89

A law enforcement agency submits several requests to a financial institution.

Which request is legitimate and requires the bank to respond?

A.

Keep an account open upon verbal request

B.

Produce documents and testimony without a subpoena

C.

Seize privileged documents upon written request

D.

Freeze an account in terms of a court order

Question # 90

The chief compliance officer at a global bank that operates in the US, EU, and other countries is responsible for navigating the US and EU regulations related to anti-money laundering (AML) and sanctions as well as any local regulations in the countries where it operates.

What should be the primary compliance concern of the bank?

A.

US anti-money laundering regulations are stricter than the EU AML Directives, making it easier for the global bank to be compliant in the EU

B.

US and EU regulations require the bank to build separate compliance teams, making it necessary to establish completely separate systems for US and EU operations

C.

The EU's sanctions regime is stricter than that of the US Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), so the bank must prioritize compliance with EU regulations over US laws and train the staff in Europe accordingly

D.

Balancing compliance with the US BSA and OFAC sanctions while ensuring adherence to EU AML directives and the GDPR, which complicates cross-border data sharing

Question # 91

Which regulation is the cornerstone of AML/CFT legislation in the United States and requires financial institutions (FIs) to establish and maintain robust AML programs, including customer identification and due diligence procedures, as well as record-keeping and reporting of certain transactions to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)?

A.

USA PATRIOT Act

B.

Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)

C.

Money Laundering Control Act (MLCA)

D.

Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MiCA)

Question # 92

Which measures help ensure that the name screening process is effective in identifying potential risk? (Select Three.)

A.

Define in policies and procedures the screening scope, frequency, and alert adjudication process

B.

Identify the most commonly used name screening database in the industry

C.

Assign a designated person to ensure consistent implementation of screening controls

D.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine which data attributes to screen, screening frequency, and database selection

E.

Conduct regular testing to validate that the screening system is performing as expected

Question # 93

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele's high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

A.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

B.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

Question # 94

Which of the following presents the highest money laundering risk from a money services business (MSB)?

A.

Some MSBs provide bureau de change services to retail customers after they complete a due diligence process.

B.

Some MSBs process large, individual cash transactions on behalf of customers.

C.

Some MSBs allow regular and frequent transactions to the same family members based in another country

D.

Some MSBs process small remittance payments on behalf of workers based abroad sending money home.

Question # 95

A subset of financial technology (FinTech) that focuses on technologies designed to facilitate the delivery of regulatory requirements more efficiently and effectively than existing capabilities is known as:

A.

SupTech

B.

SubTech

C.

RegTech

D.

BlueTech

Question # 96

Which step should financial institutions take when complying with sanctions requirements?

A.

Change the risk profile to "high-risk" if an existing customer becomes a sanctioned entity and continue monitoring further transactions.

B.

Adopt automatic screening systems to detect designated persons and entities.

C.

Conduct enhanced due diligence for prohibited entities on the sanctions list.

D.

Freeze the funds or assets of designated persons and entities once this decision is approved by the board.

Question # 97

What are the common financial crime risks posed to the e-commerce business model? (Select Three.)

A.

Buying goods or services using stolen bank card data

B.

Committing fraud against the customer by failing to deliver goods or services

C.

Abusing online marketplaces to move criminally obtained funds

D.

Evading export control regulations

E.

Committing bribery and corruption

Question # 98

The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) is an international body consisting of senior representatives of central banks and banking regulatory authorities.

Which of the following statements accurately describe guidance provided by the BCBS? (Select Three.)

A.

Since the Basel Committee has no enforcement authority, it relies on the commitment of its members to carry out its guidance

B.

Basel guidance includes standards to be incorporated into local legal frameworks, guidelines for implementation, and best-practice guidance

C.

The Basel Committee’s Core Principles include guidance on customer identification and acceptance

D.

Members of the BCBS must implement its standards or face suspension from membership

E.

The Basel Committee is composed of the 28 largest banks in the world

Question # 99

A financial institution's US Branch receives a subpoena from law enforcement requesting detailed records of a customer's account activity. The customer is part of an ongoing investigation into a money laundering operation. At the same time, the institution has received a FinCEN 314(b) information-sharing request from another bank seeking details on transactions linked to the same customer. The compliance team is tasked with responding to both the subpoena and the FinCEN 314(b) request.

What should the compliance officer prioritize in responding to these requests while ensuring that all legal and regulatory obligations are met?

A.

Notify the customer of the information-sharing request from the other financial institution and seek their consent before responding

B.

Consult the institution's legal counsel to validate the subpoena, then respond directly to law enforcement while ensuring all documentation is properly recorded

C.

Respond to the FinCEN 314(b) request first, as it allows for voluntary information sharing with partner organizations

D.

Provide the requested records to both law enforcement and the other financial institution immediately to ensure full cooperation and transparency

Question # 100

Which persons must always comply with all Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) regulations? (Select Three.)

A.

Permanent US resident aliens regardless of location

B.

Merchants that offer US-origin goods for sale regardless of location

C.

Non-US financial institutions that offer accounts in USD regardless of location

D.

US citizens regardless of location

E.

US incorporated entities and their foreign branches

Question # 101

Which of the following is a primary objective of public sector groups in the fight against money laundering?

A.

Advising private financial institutions on how to enhance their profitability through AML efforts

B.

Establishing and enforcing legal frameworks to detect, prevent, and punish money laundering and related financial crimes

C.

Providing funding to private and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) for the development of advanced compliance technologies

D.

Acting as intermediaries between private sector firms and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to streamline AML compliance programs

Question # 102

A compliance officer at a financial institution has completed an investigation into a high-risk customer's activities and determined that there are strong indications of money laundering. The compliance officer has documented their findings and is ready to recommend offboarding the customer. However, the relationship manager responsible for the customer is resistant to the idea, citing the customer’s significant revenue contribution to the institution.

What should the compliance officer do next to ensure the appropriate escalation and decision-making process is followed?

A.

Escalate the matter to the institution's high-risk client committee, presenting the investigation findings and recommending offboarding while also acknowledging the relationship manager's concerns

B.

Proceed with offboarding the customer unilaterally based on their investigation findings and anti-money laundering (AML) concerns

C.

Attempt to persuade the relationship manager to agree with the offboarding recommendation by highlighting the potential reputational and regulatory risks associated with maintaining the relationship

D.

Delay the offboarding decision and continue monitoring the customer's activities, waiting for further evidence to solidify the case for termination

Question # 103

Which of the following are best practices to raise awareness and train staff regarding the risks related to financial crime? (Select Three.)

A.

Tailor training and offer regular training to all employees

B.

Train outside of daily operations and promote awareness of Compliance

C.

Train core AML topics once per year, at a minimum, to relevant employees

D.

Use a variety of training methods and provide necessary resources to employees

E.

Communicate regularly and measure effectiveness of training

Question # 104

Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)

A.

Guaranteeing 100% accuracy in regulatory compliance across all jurisdictions

B.

Improving customer satisfaction by offering personalized recommendations

C.

Reducing identity theft effectively

D.

Providing reliable customer authentication to enhance trust

E.

Decreasing the time required for customer authentication

Question # 105

A financial institution plans to implement adverse media screening with Artificial Intelligence (AI)/Machine Learning (ML) capabilities During testing, the system produces high volumes of irrelevant news articles for review.

What is the best way to address this issue?

A.

Narrow the media sources to avoid unrelated articles

B.

Rely on manual filtering by investigators

C.

Increase the frequency of updates to media sources

D.

Adjust AI/ML models to focus on high-risk keywords/phrases from reputable media sources

Question # 106

Common risks associated with cryptocurrency and convertible virtual currencies include: (Choose three.)

A.

funds being stolen from other users.

B.

obscuring the source of illicit funds.

C.

layering transactions to hide the origin of funds derived from illicit activity.

D.

difficulty converting into physical currency.

E.

facilitating payment for other illicit activities and goods.

Question # 107

A compliance officer is developing management reporting information to provide leadership with insights into the financial crime risk related to an institution's customer population.

Which of the following is a key risk indicator to include in the reporting to allow leadership to monitor whether there are any key changes to the inherent risk of the customer population? (Choose two.)

A.

Percentage of regulatory reports for high-risk customers not completed within the required regulatory deadlines

B.

Percentage change of transaction monitoring alerts escalated for investigation compared to the previous quarter

C.

Percentage of customers for whom onboarding verification was not completed within KYC policy service-level agreement (SLA) requirements

D.

Number and percentage of senior politically exposed persons (PEPs) who were onboarded in the past quarter compared to all active customers

Question # 108

The transaction monitoring system of a bank generated an alert for a car wash client. After making large cash deposits, the client orders international wire transfers.

Which additional circumstances would make the case more suspicious?

A.

The beneficiary of the wire transfers is a foreign company whose shareholders and director are other companies

B.

The wire transfers are for different amounts but with the same beneficiary

C.

The beneficiary of the wire transfer is a resident of a grey-list country

D.

The beneficiary of the wire transfers is a resident of a foreign country bearing the same family name as the business owner

Question # 109

Risks associated with real estate transactions include (Select Two.)

A.

cross-border purchases.

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person.

C.

paying true market price for a property.

D.

non-financed purchases.

Question # 110

Which of the following risk factors are commonly associated with money laundering in insurance products? (Choose two.)

A.

Surrendering a policy early to liquidate funds

B.

Focusing excessively on the investment performance of an insurance product

C.

Using a credit card to purchase an insurance policy

D.

Using cryptocurrencies or other non-fiat currencies to fund an insurance policy

Question # 111

A bank in the Netherlands has been requested to share information about a series of transactions and related customers with a bank in Italy. Both banks are subject to European Union jurisdiction.

Which factor is the most important to consider before the Dutch bank shares the requested information with the Italian bank?

A.

The Dutch bank should limit any information sharing to what is necessary, reasonable, and proportionate, in line with applicable laws and regulations

B.

The Dutch bank's legal obligations to protect customer privacy and bank secrecy prohibit it from sharing any such information

C.

The Dutch bank should require a production order from the Italian bank and receive approval from its legal department before sharing the requested information

D.

The need to fight financial crime outweighs the EU's data protection and privacy regulations

Question # 112

A basic principle of the Egmont Group is to:

A.

Publish standards for reporting suspicions

B.

Facilitate the organization of regulatory authorities

C.

Publish decisions taken on international investigations

D.

Arrange information-sharing protocols between Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)

Question # 113

A periodic review has been completed for an existing virtual asset service provider (VASP) customer.

Which of the following are indicators of potential money laundering? (Select Three.)

A.

Use of shell companies for deposits and withdrawals into the VASP

B.

Using a peer-to-peer network to reduce costs associated with server maintenance and data storage

C.

Rapid market fluctuations resulting in quick changes in the value of underlying assets

D.

Frequent use of mixers and tumblers for holdings and transactions

E.

Receiving funds from countries known for weak money laundering regulations and frameworks

Question # 114

A financial institution's transaction monitoring system flags an unusually high volume of international wire transfers originating from a small business account. The transfers are being sent to multiple jurisdictions known for limited regulatory oversight. Additionally, an employee reports suspicious behavior from the account holder during an in-person visit, where they requested a large cash withdrawal without providing a clear business justification. As part of the investigation, the compliance team must assess whether this activity is suspicious and determine the appropriate next steps.

Which of the following steps should be taken first in the investigation process to properly gather information and assess whether the transactions are suspicious?

A.

Review the transaction history of the account to identify patterns, including the frequency, destination, and purpose of the wire transfers

B.

Notify senior management and suggest account closure due to potential risks

C.

Immediately file a suspicious activity report (SAR) based on the employee's report of suspicious behavior

D.

Contact the customer directly to ask for clarification on the reason for the large cash withdrawal

Question # 115

The first line of defense is responsible for:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

Question # 116

Benefits of using artificial intelligence (AI) in conjunction with or in place of traditional rules-based transaction monitoring include that AI can: (Select Two.)

A.

Increase the number of false positive alerts

B.

Create unbiased scenarios during the machine training phase

C.

Identify changes in customer behavior to more accurately assess risk

D.

Generate customer risk scores to predict potential financial crime activity

Question # 117

Key functions of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) include: (Select Three.)

A.

Prosecuting non-cooperative jurisdictions

B.

Maintaining engagement with other international organizations and bodies

C.

Developing international standards to combat money laundering, terrorist financing, and proliferation financing

D.

Identifying and engaging with high-risk, non-cooperative jurisdictions with strategic deficiencies

E.

Suspending the membership of countries that perform poorly in mutual evaluations

Question # 118

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

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