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Practice Free CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the ACDIS CCDS-O Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free CCDS-O Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

A patient is seen in the office for a persistent cough. Provider documentation states: “History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, and hypertension. Hypertension treated with Enalapril. Cough an adverse effect of the ACE inhibitor; discontinue Enalapril. COPD stable. Instructed to continue meds for COPD/asthma.” Which of the following diagnoses should be reported for this encounter?

A.

COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

B.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; hypertension

C.

COPD, unspecified; hypertension

D.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

Question # 7

In review of a clinic record, a CDI specialist notes the provider has directly copied and pasted a previous inpatient problem list into the current ambulatory visit note. Which of the following is the CDI specialist’s BEST course of action?

A.

Do not code conditions that were pasted from the problem list.

B.

Query the provider for each of the conditions on the problem list.

C.

Educate the provider regarding the concerns with copying and pasting this list.

D.

Assume the conditions are all relevant for this visit.

Question # 8

A CDI specialist read the most recent AHA Coding Clinic that provided updated guidance related to a prior AHA Coding Clinic. The CDI specialist should

A.

apply the initial Coding Clinic advice to relevant cases in that calendar year only.

B.

follow the initial Coding Clinic advice for remainder of the fiscal year.

C.

utilize the updated Coding Clinic advice from published date forward.

D.

employ the updated Coding Clinic advice to relevant cases discharged last year.

Question # 9

When evaluating a CDI specialist's performance, which of the following expectations is held to the same standard for both inpatient and outpatient initiatives?

A.

Review productivity

B.

Query opportunities

C.

Revenue impact

D.

Query compliance

Question # 10

ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient’s provider in which of the following circumstances?

A.

Anatomic site of previous amputation

B.

Type of obesity

C.

Stage of pressure ulcer

D.

Site of ostomy

Question # 11

The table below provides data indicating the use of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) diagnosis code assignment for years 1 and 2 of an ambulatory CDI program. Based on the data and if the HCC value assigned to MDD was 0.299, which of the following should be inferred?

A.

The number of patients increased with an equal increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, not impacting future cost benchmarking.

B.

The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

C.

The number of patients increased with the difference between MDD specified and MDD, unspecified insignificant, not impacting future cost benchmarking.

D.

The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and an increase in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

Question # 12

A CDI specialist receives a call from a disgruntled provider regarding recent documentation queries. The provider claims to only have 15 minutes to see patients and does not have time for interruptions like this if it does not increase reimbursement. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to effectively facilitate communication?

A.

Explain to the provider that queries may affect reimbursement, however not directly, and he should comply.

B.

Listen to the provider, agree this does not affect reimbursement, and explain that the CDI team will stop querying.

C.

Request a time at the provider's convenience to review the query process and collaborate to facilitate the best workflow.

D.

Call the provider's superior and report him as being non-compliant with organizational processes.

Question # 13

PCP notes describe declining renal function with creatinine trending upward over the last 12 months. Nephrology consult ordered. Which of the following diagnostic tests could support a query to identify status of the patient’s baseline renal function?

A.

Creatinine

B.

BUN (Blood urea nitrogen)

C.

eGFR (glomerular filtration rate)

D.

ACR (albumin to creatinine ratio)

Question # 14

Symbicort® is used to treat which of the following conditions?

A.

Degenerative osteoarthritis

B.

Persistent asthma

C.

Diabetic neuropathy

D.

Congestive heart failure

Question # 15

Upon review of payer data, a decrease in RAF scores for the organization is noted. After reviewing internal metrics, a CDI specialist notes an increase in the volume of HCC queries across the organization, with accurate coding confirmed. Which of the following is the MOST plausible explanation for these findings?

A.

The payer is not receiving all diagnosis codes

B.

CPT codes are not reflected in the reporting

C.

CDI specialist queries are validated and compliant

D.

The HCC model has not been updated within the organization

Question # 16

A patient presents with pulmonary rales, pulmonary edema found on chest x-ray, and bilateral ankle edema. Which of the following conditions will the provider MOST likely evaluate further?

A.

Pleural effusion

B.

Heart failure

C.

Pneumonia

D.

Pulmonary hypertension

Question # 17

A 67-year-old male patient has been seen by a PCP multiple times this year. Diagnoses reported are diabetes with nephropathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; diabetes with retinopathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; atrial fibrillation with an HCC weight of 0.299, and a demographic risk factor weight of 0.332. Which of the following is this patient’s final RAF score for these diagnoses?

A.

0.932

B.

0.797

C.

1.418

D.

0.678

Question # 18

Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?

A.

HCC 35, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 38

B.

HCC 38, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 35

C.

HCC 35, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 38

D.

HCC 38, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 35

Question # 19

When a CDI specialist identifies a discrepancy in documentation, the next step is to:

A.

Change the record

B.

Query the provider for clarification

C.

Escalate to compliance

D.

Code the record as is

Question # 20

Which performance metric is MOST appropriate for an outpatient program to share with providers?

A.

APC payment rates

B.

RAF scores

C.

HCC per member per month payments

D.

Major complication comorbidity (MCC) rates

Question # 21

What is the goal of an MSSP program?

A.

Optimize risk score

B.

Share in savings

C.

Improve transitions of care

D.

Increase fee schedule payment

Question # 22

In February, a patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer, which is classified as HCC 23. In October, the patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer with bone metastases, which is classified as HCC 18. Which of the following is true about the patient’s risk score?

A.

The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 23 because it was captured first.

B.

The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 18 because it has the highest weight in the hierarchy HCC 23.

C.

The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 18 and HCC 23 because they were both documented and coded in the same calendar year.

D.

The risk score will not be impacted by the presence of HCC 18 or HCC 23 because they are not currently being treated.

Question # 23

A CDI specialist is following up on a query while the provider is seeing patients in the clinic. The BEST action that will support a quick and compliant response to the query is to

A.

wait to speak with the provider during the next scheduled meeting.

B.

catch the provider in the hallway between patients.

C.

discuss in a private room with the door closed.

D.

leave a sticky note on the chart of the next patient.

Question # 24

A female patient presents for her yearly wellness check-up. Her vital signs are within normal limits with the exception of dyspnea. Her weight is 165 lbs, up 10 lbs from her previous clinic visit 2 weeks prior. Problem list includes diagnoses of obesity, COPD, heart failure, and diabetes without complications. The patient’s A1c noted 9.2 up from 7.2 from previous year wellness exam. Based on the clinical indicators, which of the following medications should be evaluated and addressed during this clinic visit?

A.

Megace and ferrous sulfate

B.

Metformin and methotrexate

C.

NovoLog and Lasix

D.

Wellbutrin and Allegra

Question # 25

A CDI specialist manager is reviewing the productivity metrics of the outpatient team and notes that one of the CDI specialists has a high query rate and a good physician response, but a low physician agree rate compared to the rest of the team. This likely indicates which of the following?

A.

The data is not stratified enough to show a true picture of the productivity.

B.

The CDI specialist is writing leading queries.

C.

The CDI specialist is creating poor quality queries.

D.

The cases the CDI specialist is reviewing are more complex than other clinics.

Question # 26

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

Question # 27

Which of the following is the MOST compliant provider query?

A.

“Noted that this patient is being referred for a colonoscopy. She has no documented GI symptoms and has a family history of colon cancer. When this patient is seen, please clarify whether this is a screening colonoscopy or diagnostic colonoscopy.”

B.

“The patient has a past medical history of CAD, HF, and COPD. Please document these conditions during the encounter today if they are still being treated.”

C.

“According to a visit last year, this patient has a history of alcohol use; quit two years ago; previously drank 6-9 beers daily, 10-12 beers on weekend. Patient now attends AA meetings. Is the patient’s alcohol use now in remission?”

D.

“Noted that the patient has skin that is ‘warm and dry with no rashes or lesions’; however, nursing documentation describes a ‘stage 3 sacral pressure ulcer’ requiring wet-to-dry dressing changes. Please add the pressure ulcer to your ED assessment note if appropriate.”

Question # 28

A patient with stage 3 CKD presents to the clinic for evaluation. Upon review of labs, an elevated iPTH and a normal phosphorus level are noted. Which of the following diagnoses may be appropriately queried based upon these lab values?

A.

Secondary hyperparathyroidism of renal origin

B.

Primary hyperparathyroidism

C.

CKD stage 3 with hypoparathyroidism

D.

Hyperparathyroidism secondary to hypophosphatemia

Question # 29

After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, “I just don’t see how this impacts patient care.” Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?

A.

“It determines what you will be reimbursed.”

B.

“It predicts expected resources needed to care for the patient.”

C.

“It determines the patient’s out of pocket expenses.”

D.

“It predicts medical necessity of ordered procedures/treatments.”

Question # 30

In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)

A.

$148,800

B.

$3,291,200

C.

$1,785,600

D.

$17,785,600

Question # 31

CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology seeks to measure

A.

an individual’s anticipated cost of care.

B.

a beneficiary’s risk of mortality.

C.

group beneficiary costs.

D.

physician cost of care provision.

Question # 32

A patient presents to the PCP’s office with LLE edema and pain for 3 days. The problem list indicates morbid obesity and a history of DVT. Vital signs are T 37.9, P 76, R 12, BP 142/88, BMI 46. Documentation states: “Patient presents with LLE edema, increased pain, and hx of DVT. Sedentary lifestyle and contraindications to anticoagulation therapy. LLE warm to touch, 3+ edema from ankle to knee. Pedal pulses 2+ on L and 3+ on R.” Doppler exam indicates DVT. The PCP should be queried for which of the following diagnoses?

A.

Morbid obesity and status of the DVT

B.

Hypercoagulability and hypertensive urgency

C.

Hypertensive urgency and status of the DVT

D.

Hypercoagulability and morbid obesity

Question # 33

A 62-year-old female with history of HTN, CAD, chronic cough and obesity is seen by her PCP. Which of the following treatment plans may result in a query?

A.

Diagnostic chest x-ray

B.

A visit with a nutrition specialist

C.

Order placed for hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)

D.

Prescription written for the ACE inhibitor captopril

Question # 34

In which of the following ways does payment determination (risk score calculation) differ between HHS-HCCs and CMS-HCCs?

A.

HHS-HCCs use the current year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the current year’s spending.

B.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the next year’s spending.

C.

HHS-HCCs use current ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the current year’s spending.

D.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the next year’s spending.

Question # 35

A patient returns to a PCP for follow-up care related to a UTI. The provider documents “stage 3 CKD” as determined by a single eGFR of 52 mL/min. Which of the following actions should the CDI specialist take?

A.

Add diagnosis of CKD stage 3 to claim, as it is reportable.

B.

Review CKD staging criteria with provider.

C.

Delete CKD diagnosis from claim as it was not treated during this encounter.

D.

Query for stage 4 CKD.

Question # 36

PCP notes describe declining renal function with creatinine trending upward over the last 12 months. Nephrology consult ordered. Which of the following diagnostic tests could support a query to identify status of the patient’s baseline renal function?

A.

Creatinine

B.

BUN (Blood urea nitrogen)

C.

eGFR (glomerular filtration rate)

D.

ACR (albumin to creatinine ratio)

Question # 37

Clinic documentation states: “Follow-up for post-induction chemotherapy for metastatic uterine cancer.” To BEST identify the conditions being monitored and treated, a CDI specialist should

A.

clarify the morphology of the tumor.

B.

evaluate diagnostic lab results.

C.

review the record for MRI results.

D.

query for secondary sites.

Question # 38

A patient is evaluated in the clinic. Documentation states: “HIV positive, gravida 1 at 24 weeks.” Which of the following conditions will be coded and in which sequence based on the documentation?

A.

HIV disease, pregnancy

B.

Pregnancy with HIV disease

C.

Asymptomatic HIV, pregnancy

D.

Pregnancy with asymptomatic HIV

Question # 39

For outpatient/provider services, the primary sources of coding authority include the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, AHA’s Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, as well as which of the following?

A.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA’s CPT Assistant

B.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting

C.

ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting and DRG Expert

D.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS, ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, and DRG Expert

Question # 40

Provider documentation states: “Patient is here for follow-up for multiple chronic conditions, including COPD, HTN, DM, and alcohol abuse. She admits to drinking more than she has in the past, starting in the early morning and consumes at least a pint a day. Her BP today is elevated at 165/89. Discussed medications and diet. As she continues to be dependent on alcohol, several treatment options were offered. She stated she would think about it.” Which of the following groups of diagnoses is supported by the clinical indicators described?

A.

DM Type 2 without complications, HTN, alcohol abuse

B.

DM Type 2 with complications, COPD, HTN, alcohol use

C.

DM Type 2 without complications, HTN, alcohol dependence

D.

DM Type 2 with complications, COPD, alcohol dependence

E.
F.
G.
Question # 41

A patient presents to the office complaining of lower abdominal pain and burning urination. Urinalysis indicates WBC >10, positive nitrites, and leuk esterase. Documentation identifies pain, urinary frequency, and fever likely UTI. Cultures are pending for E-Coli. The patient is started on antipyretics and Levaquin. Which of the following conditions can be reported?

A.

Abdominal pain, fever, and pyuria

B.

UTI

C.

E-Coli, UTI, and fever

D.

Abdominal pain, fever, and urinary frequency

Question # 42

Which of the following is a strategy that is often used by ACOs to improve their performance in the Readmission Reduction program?

A.

Encourage providers to avoid reporting chronic conditions on subsequent admissions.

B.

Educate providers about the importance of capturing chronic conditions in documentation.

C.

Work with IT to increase the unspecified code choices in pick lists in the EHR.

D.

Flag qualifying patients upon arrival to ED to be placed in observation status vs. admission.

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