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Practice Free CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the APICS CPIM-8.0 Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free CPIM-8.0 Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

A lengthy power outage led to unavailability of time critical services resulting in considerable losses. It was determined that a backup electrical generator did not work as intended at the time of the incident due to lack of fuel. What should the security consultant FIRST Investigate?

A.

Maintenance procedures

B.

Supplier contracts

C.

Failover designs

D.

Product catalogs

Question # 7

A Structured Query Language (SQL) database is hosted on a hardened, secure server. All unused ports are locked down, but external connections from untrusted networks are still required to be allowed through. What is the BEST way to ensure transactions to/from this server remain secure?

A.

Secure SQL service port with a Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificate.

B.

Use Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all logins to the server.

C.

Secure SQL service port with a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate.

D.

Scan all connections to the server for malicious packets.

Question # 8

An organization routes traffic between two of its sites using non-revenue network paths provided by peers on an Internet exchange point. What is the MOST appropriate recommendation the organization's security staff can make to prevent a compromise?

A.

Cease routing traffic over the Internet exchange point and use the transit provider exclusively.

B.

Ask the peers who route the traffic to sign a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA).

C.

Use Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) between the border gateways at either site.

D.

Nothing needs to be done because applications are already required to encrypt and authenticate network traffic.

Question # 9

Which of the following techniques would a group use to prioritize problems?

A.

Critical path analysis

B.

Pareto analysis

C.

Scatter charts

D.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

Question # 10

When resolving conflicts, which canon within the ISC2 Code of Ethics requires members to consider duties to principals and Individuals?

A.

Maintain the privacy and confidentiality of information obtained.

B.

Advance and protect the profession.

C.

Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.

D.

Maintain competency in their respective fields.

Question # 11

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

Question # 12

An organization's security policy requires remote hosts to be authenticated before they can access network resources. Which of the following is the BEST option for the organization to enforce its policy?

A.

Install a firewall.

B.

Implement Internet Protocol (IP) Access Control Lists (ACL).

C.

Implement 802.1X.

D.

Install an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).

Question # 13

Which of the following sampling techniques is BEST suited for comprehensive risk assessments?

A.

Convenience sampling

B.

Snowball sampling

C.

Judgement sampling

D.

Systematic sampling

Question # 14

What is the total load requirement for this work center based on the following data?

CPIM-8.0 question answer

A.

1.326

B.

1.525

C.

1,533

D.

2,880

Question # 15

An effective approach to projecting requirements for materials with long lead times Includes which of the following options?

A.

Initiate a multilevel master schedule.

B.

Use phantom bills of materials (BOMs).

C.

Increase the level of safety stock.

D.

Decrease the planning horizon.

Question # 16

Which of the following actions best supports a company's strategic focus on delivery speed to improve competitive advantage?

A.

Maintaining high-capacity utilization

B.

Developing flexible operations

C.

Cross-training workers

D.

Implementing rapid process improvements

Question # 17

An organization is running a cloud-based application to process the information obtained at point-of-sale devices. Which guideline should be applied to the application?

A.

Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA)

B.

Application Security Verification Standard (ASVS)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

D.

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

Question # 18

Global outsourcing and shared suppliers serving an industry are drivers of which category of risk?

A.

Supply disruptions

B.

Forecast inaccuracy

C.

Procurement problems

D.

Loss of intellectual property

Question # 19

What function prevents unauthorized devices from gaining access to a network?

A.

Network Access Control (NAC)

B.

Storage Area Network (SAN)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Software-Defined Network (SDN)

Question # 20

Which of the following methods places a replenishment order when the quantity on hand falls below a predetermined level?

A.

Min-max system

B.

Fixed order quantity

C.

Periodic review

D.

Available-to-promlse (ATP)

Question # 21

An organization has a requirement that all documents must be auditable and that the original is never modified once created. When designing the system, what security model MUST be implemented in order to meet this requirement?

A.

Biba Integrity

B.

Brewer-Nash

C.

Bell-LaPadula

D.

Clark-Wilson

Question # 22

If an organization wanted to protect is data against loss of confidentiality in transit, which type of encryption is BEST?

A.

Symmetric cryptography

B.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with asymmetric keys

C.

Password encryption using hashing (with salt and pepper)

D.

Message Authentication Code (MAC) using hashing

Question # 23

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for deciding the classification of data in an organization?

A.

Data owner/steward

B.

Authorizing Official (AO)

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Data custodian

Question # 24

An organization is planning to streamline its Identity and Access Management (IAM) processes and platform. The executive team mandated a compact platform to efficiently manage identities for internal and third-party services access. What is the BEST platform choice?

A.

Cloud Single Sign-On (SSO)

B.

On-premise IAM

C.

Cloud IAM

D.

Identity as a Service (IDaaS)

Question # 25

An organization has a legacy application used in production. Security updates are no longer provided, which makes the legacy application vulnerable. The legacy application stores Social Security numbers and credit card numbers. Which actions will BEST reduce the risk?

A.

Submit a security exception for the application and remove it from vulnerability scanning

B.

Report to the privacy officer and increase logging and monitoring of the application

C.

Continue to operate and monitor the application until it is no longer needed

D.

Implement compensating controls and prioritize upgrading the application

Question # 26

Open Authorized (OAuth) has been chosen as technology to use across applications in the enterprise. Which of the following statements is TRUE about an OAuth token?

A.

Does not specify a time interval

B.

Can be used for authentication

C.

Can be used across multiple sites

D.

Specifies what information can be accessed

Question # 27

A security team leader needs to communicate the value of the security program. As the security team leader determines the return on security investments, what is the MOST important aspect to incorporate?

A.

Annualized loss reduction measured over time

B.

Assessment of magnitude based on risk analyses

C.

Added economic value

D.

Total cost of ownership

Question # 28

Which of the following may authorize an organization to monitor an employee’s company computer and phone usage?

A.

Signed Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

B.

Signed Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

C.

ISC2 Code of Ethics

D.

Suspicious that a crime is being committed

Question # 29

Which of the following is the fundamental difference between finite loading and other capacity planning approaches?

A.

It is highly dependent on advanced computer software to function effectively.

B.

It is only managed by shop floor supervisors.

C.

It can use historical information to drive decision-making processes.

D.

It considers adjustments to plans based on planned capacity utilization.

Question # 30

Under which of the following conditions is excess capacity most likely a good substitute for safety stock?

A.

The cost of excess capacity is less than the cost of an additional unit of safety stock in the same period.

B.

The cost to maintain one unit in inventory for a year is less than the direct labor cost.

C.

The service level with safety stock is more than the service level with excess capacity.

D.

Lead time for the product is longer than customers are willing to wait.

Question # 31

The horizon for forecasts that are input to the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process should be long enough that:

A.

cumulative forecast deviation approaches zero.

B.

planned product launches can be incorporated.

C.

required resources can be properly planned.

D.

supply constraints can be resolved.

Question # 32

A security engineer is responsible for verifying software reliability prior to commercial deployment. Which of the following factor would BEST be verified to ensure that the software stays reliable?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Web Application Firewall (WAF)

C.

Content Delivery Network (CDN)

D.

Logging

Question # 33

Which of the following MUST exist for an activity to be considered an audit?

A.

An auditor that is in no way employed, connected or associated to the organization being audited

B.

Stored Personally Identifiable Information (PII) that an organization has a legal obligation to protect

C.

A predefined standard and systematic approach to test the application of that standard

D.

A certified member of a professional body qualified in the area of inspection

Question # 34

Which of the following is the MOST effective approach to reduce the threat of rogue devices being introduced to the internal network?

A.

Authorize connecting devices

B.

Authenticate connecting devices

C.

Disable unauthorized devices

D.

Scan connecting devices

Question # 35

An information security professional has been tasked with remediating vulnerabilities identified during a recent penetration test. Which of the following sections of the penetration results report would be MOST preferable to remediate hosts one at a time?

A.

Findings by host, with associated vulnerabilities

B.

Findings by vulnerabilities, with associated hosts

C.

Appendix of definitions

D.

Executive summary

Question # 36

Access Control Lists (ACL), protection bits, and file passwords are typical examples of which of the following access control methods?

A.

Discretionary.

B.

Attribute-based.

C.

Mandatory.

D.

Role-based.

Question # 37

Which of the following can allow an attacker to bypass authentication?

A.

Response tampering

B.

Machine enumeration

C.

User agent manipulation

D.

Social engineering

Question # 38

A new organization building is being designed and the security manager has been asked for input on needed security requirements. Which of the following controls are MOST applicable to this scenario?

A.

Deterrent controls, such as signs announcing video cameras and alarms, are installed.

B.

Preventative controls, such as Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and security guards, are used.

C.

Preventative controls, such as Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and mechanical locks, are used.

D.

Deterrent controls, such as signs announcing video cameras and alarms, are installed.

Question # 39

A security engineer is reviewing Incident Response (IR) roles and responsibilities. Several roles have static elevated privileges in case an incident occurs. Instead of static access, what is the BEST access method to manage elevated privileges?

A.

Just-in-time

B.

Delegated

C.

Break-glass

D.

Automated

Question # 40

A contractor hacked into an unencrypted session on an organization's wireless network. Which authentication configuration is MOST likely to have enabled this?

A.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

B.

Captive web portal

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Token authentication

Question # 41

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration in a full-scale disaster recovery test?

A.

Sign off by the Chief Information Officer (CIO)

B.

Financial cost of the organization

C.

Business interruption

D.

Available Information Technology (IT) hardware

Question # 42

During an emergency management and planning session, an organization is discussing how to identify, prevent, prepare for, or respond to emergencies. Which of the following will provide the BEST possible outcome?

APerform drills on a recurring basis.

B.Harden all critical facilities.

C.Outsource to an external organization.

D.Allocate 100% of required funds.

Question # 43

A healthcare organization is preparing an exercise test plan of its Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for the Electronic Medical Record (EMR) application. The Business Continuity (BC) analyst is reviewing the requirements of the DRP. The EMR must provide basic charting services within 4 hours, must not lose more than 15 minutes of data, and must be fully functional within 12 hours. At the completion of the exercise, the analyst is preparing a lessons learned report and notes that the EMR was available after 3 hours and 25 minutes of data was lost. Which PRIMARY requirement needs to be addressed because of the exercise?

A.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

B.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Mean Time to Recovery (MTTR)

Question # 44

An information system containing Protected Health Information (PHI) will be accessed by doctors, nurses, and others working in a hospital. The same application will be used by staff in the pharmacy department only for dispensing prescribed medication. Additionally, patients can log in to view medical history. The system owner needs to propose an access control model that considers environment, situation, compliance, and security policies while dynamically granting the required level of access. Which access control model is the MOST suitable?

A.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

B.

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

C.

Task-based access control

D.

Risk-adaptive access control

Question # 45

When starting an external benchmarking study, a firm must first:

A.

determine the metrics which will be measured and compared.

B.

identify the target firms with which to benchmark against.

C.

understand its own processes and document performance.

D.

determine its areas of weakness versus the competition's.

Question # 46

In a make-to-stock (MTS) environment, the master production schedule (MPS) Is usually a schedule of which of the following types of items?

A.

Phantom items

B.

Finished goods items

C.

Component/subassembly items

D.

Raw material items

Question # 47

An organization is transitioning from a traditional server-centric infrastructure to a cloud-based Infrastructure. Shortly after the transition, a major breach occurs to the organization's databases. In an Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS) model, who would be held responsible for the breach?

A.

The database vendor

B.

The third-party auditor

C.

The organization

D.

The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

Question # 48

As a result of a fault at a cloud service provider’s data center, the customer accounts of a utility organization were corrupted. Under the European Union’s (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which entity bears responsibility for resolving this?

A.

Data steward

B.

Data processor

C.

Data controller

D.

Data custodian

Question # 49

Which of the following describes the 3 MAIN roles of the identity-delegation model?

A.

Application server, web server, and delegate

B.

Application server, proxy server, and delegate

C.

Delegator, delegate, and service provider

D.

Delegator, application server, and service provider

Question # 50

What is the MAIN benefit of network segmentation?

A.

Limiting data transfer

B.

Limiting cyberattack damage

C.

Limiting privilege access

D.

Limiting network addresses

Question # 51

What is the BEST protection method to ensure that an unauthorized entry attempt would fail when securing highly sensitive areas?

A.

Employee badge with a picture and video surveillance

B.

Keyed locks and Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV) at entrances

C.

Combination lock and a gate that prevents piggybacking

D.

Proximity badge requiring a Personal Identification Number (PIN) entry at entrances

Question # 52

Which of the following capabilities BEST distinguishes a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) from a traditional firewall?

A.

Ensures incoming and outgoing packets are inspected before they are allowed to pass through

B.

Offers features such as integrated intrusion prevention or application awareness and control

C.

Provides security when users traverse public networks such as the Internet

D.

Provides stateless and stateful inspection of incoming and outgoing network traffic

Question # 53

Which of the following statements is true about total productive maintenance (TPM)?

A.

It uses statistical tools.

B.

It is part of the business strategy.

C.

It influences the product design process.

D.

It minimizes unscheduled breakdowns.

Question # 54

The question below is based on the following alternative schedules for a lot of 1,200.

A company works 8-hour, single-shift days. Setups are 4 hours for Operation 20 and 4 hours for Operation 40. Each operation has multiple machines available.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

Operation overlapping results in reduced total setup costs.

B.

Operation overlapping results in reduced total span time.

C.

Lot splitting results in the shortest overall lead time.

D.

Lot splitting results in reduced total setup costs.

Question # 55

In pyramid forecasting, the "roll up" process begins with:

A.

combining individual product item forecasts into forecasts for product families.

B.

combining forecasts for product families into a total business forecast.

C.

allocating total business forecast changes to product families.

D.

allocating product family forecast changes to individual products.

Question # 56

Which of the following factors typically would distort a sales forecast that is based solely on shipment history?

A.

Material shortages

B.

Labor rate changes

C.

Currency exchange rates

D.

Customer demands

Question # 57

An organization donates used computer equipment to a non-profit group. A system administrator used a degausser on both the magnetic and Solid State Drives (SSD) before delivery. A volunteer at the non-profit group discovered some of the drives still contained readable data and alerted the system administrator. What is the BEST solution to ensure that computer equipment does not contain data before release?

A.

Verify sanitization results by trying to read 100% of the media.

B.

Determine the type of media in the computer and apply the appropriate method of sanitization.

C.

Use cryptographic erasure to ensure data on the media device is erased.

D.

Use a program that will overwrite existing data with a fixed pattern of binary zeroes.

Question # 58

A security analyst modifies the organization’s baselines to align the controls more closely with specific security and privacy requirements. Which security concept is this an example of?

A.

Mitigating

B.

Tailoring

C.

Scoping

D.

Compensating

Question # 59

Following the go-live of a new financial software, an organization allowed the Information Technology (IT) officer to maintain all rights and access permissions to help the organization staff should they have challenges in their day-to-day work. What is the BEST way to categorize the situation?

A.

Excessive privileges

B.

Need to know access

C.

Training access

D.

Least access principle

Question # 60

An organization currently has a network with 55,000 unique Internet Protocol (IP) addresses in their private Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) network range and has acquired another organization and must integrate their 25,000 endpoints with the existing, flat network topology. If subnetting is not implemented, which network class is implied for the organization's resulting private network segment?

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

E

Question # 61

One way to mitigate liability risk in the supply chain is to:

A.

negotiate lower component cost.

B.

require traceability for components.

C.

push inventory to supplier locations.

D.

use less-than-truckload (LTL) shipments more frequently.

Question # 62

An organization’s computer incident response team PRIMARILY responds to which type of control?

A.

Detective

B.

Administrative

C.

Preventative

D.

Corrective

Question # 63

While conducting an information asset audit, it was determined that several devices were running unpatched Operating Systems (0S). Further review Indicated the OS was no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following BEST indicates the appropriate asset lifecycle stage of the devices?

A.

Maintain

B.

Modify

C.

Procure

D.

Dispose

Question # 64

Forecast error typically triggers forecast revision when it is:

A.

used in computing the tracking signal.

B.

associated with the Introduction stage of the product life cycle.

C.

continually increasing.

D.

caused by random variation.

Question # 65

Which of the following does a federated Identity Provider (IDP) need in order to grant access to identity information?

A.

The end system and the middleware system must trust each other.

B.

The end system authenticates and verifies the user.

C.

The end system application needs to verify the user’s identity.

D.

The application or system needs to trust the user.

Question # 66

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

A.

Security

B.

Completeness

C.

Vulnerabilities

D.

Logic

Question # 67

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial service organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

A.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

B.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

Question # 68

After a data loss event, an organization is reviewing its Identity and Access Management (IAM) governance process. The organization determines that the process is not operating effectively. What should be the FIRST step to effectively manage the IAM governance process?

A.

Complete an inventory of who has access to systems.

B.

Create a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) process to determine what a specific group of users can access.

C.

Create an Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) process to assign access to users based on their account attributes and characteristics.

D.

Conduct an assessment and remove all inactive accounts.

Question # 69

An organization currently has a network with 55,000 unique Internet Protocol (IP) addresses in their private Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) network range and has acquired another organization and must integrate their 25,000 endpoints with the existing, flat network topology. If subnetting is not implemented, which network class is implied for the organization’s resulting private network segment?

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

E

Question # 70

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach.

Where should the organization focus their efforts?

A.

Common configuration enumerations

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

D.

National vulnerability database

Question # 71

Which of the following is a methodology for threat modeling in application?

A.

Disaster, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Pretend, Allow, Crash, Modify, Ascertain, Name

D.

Confidentiality, Authentication, Integrity, Nonrepudiation, Availability

Question # 72

Which of the following are steps involved in the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

A.

Dissemination, review, revocation

B.

Dissemination, rotation, revocation

C.

Provisioning, review, revocation

D.

Provisioning, Dissemination, revocation

Question # 73

Broadcast traffic is causing network performance degradation of sensitive equipment.

Which of the following methods is used to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting availability?

A.

Place the sensitive equipment behind a firewall to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

B.

Implement Quality of Service (QoS) on network switches to throttle the sensitive equipment traffic.

C.

Move the sensitive equipment to a different switch port to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

D.

Use Network Access Control (NAC) to prevent the broadcast traffic from broadcasting.

Question # 74

An OpenID Connect (OIDC) authorization server received two requests from a client. The server identifies the request as replay attack and rejects the request. Which of the following BEST describes these requests?

A.

One of the requests does not have a valid token issuer's identifier.

B.

The requests have the same 'auth_time' parameter.

C.

The requests have the same 'nonce' parameter.

D.

One of the requests does not have a valid audience token.

Question # 75

A security officer has been tasked with performing security assessments on the organization’s in the current calendar year. While collecting data, the officer realizes that more than one business until will be engaged in the assessment. What activity MUST be included in the data collection phase?

A.

Conduct a detailed data analysis on the security impacts using historical data.

B.

Prioritize assessment activities and strategically asses each application

C.

Identify a sponsor from within the organization to prioritize the activities

D.

Perform a risk analysis and determine which applications must be assessed

Question # 76

What is the BEST reason to include a Hardware Security Module (HSM) in the key management system when securing cloud storage?

A.

To provide additional layers of firewalls to the environment

B.

To create additional logical barriers to entry

C.

To allow access to new cryptographic keys

D.

To manage cryptographic keys in a tamper-proof model

Question # 77

When considering Defense in Depth (DiD) as part of a network’s architectural design, what is the FIRST layer in a multi-layered defensive strategy?

A.

Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS)

B.

Managed Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Reverse proxies

D.

Edge routers

Question # 78

A firm that currently produces all items to stock is implementing the concept of postponement in all new product designs. Which of the following outcomes is most likely to result?

A.

Product variety will decrease.

B.

Sales volume per product family will increase.

C.

Number of finished items stocked will decrease.

D.

Number of component items stocked will increase.

Question # 79

Which threat modeling methodology is focused on assessing risks from organizational assets?

A.

Process For Attack Simulation And Threat Analysis (PASTA)

B.

Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, And Vulnerability Evaluation (OCTAVE)

C.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

D.

Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

Question # 80

Increased use of third-party logistics (3PL) services is likely to have which of the following effects on a firm's balance sheet?

A.

Decreased fixed assets

B.

Decreased retained earnings

C.

Increased accounts receivable

D.

Increased intangible assets

Question # 81

According to best practice, at which step in the system lifecycle shall a security professional begin involvement?

A.

Project initiation and planning

B.

Functional requirements and definition

C.

System design specification

D.

Build and document

Question # 82

During the initiation phase of a project to acquire a customer relation management system, what is the FIRST step a project team will take for early integration of security?

A.

Develop a list of security requirements for the system.

B.

Conduct project planning and a feasibility assessment.

C.

Define system security classifications.

D.

Review relevant regulatory practices and standards.

Question # 83

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user's hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.

B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.

C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.

D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.

Question # 84

An organization recently created a new accounting department, and that department is critical in the event of a disaster for the operations to continue. Which steps should the organization take to create a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?

A.

Test, maintain, implement, deliver, and execute

B.

Plan, implement, execute, deliver, and document

C.

Understand, plan, deliver, implement, and execute

D.

Understand, plan, deliver, test, and maintain

Question # 85

In which of the following circumstances is an organization MOST likely to report the accidental release of personal data to the European Union (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) supervisory authority and affected users?

A.

The release of personal data was made to a highly trusted third-party vendor and there was confirmation that the data was not accessed before it was returned.

B.

The personal data was stored in a highly encrypted format and there is confirmation that the encryption keys were not accessed or released.

C.

All the personal data from the accidental release was from individuals who are not living in the EU.

D.

The personal data released only contained the ages and names of children who may or may not be living in the EU.

Question # 86

Which of the following product design approaches are likely to reduce time to market for a global supply chain?

A.

Concurrent engineering

B.

Design for manufacture

C.

Design for logistics

D.

Quality function deployment (QFD)

Question # 87

A newer automotive supplier has not fully developed its information technology (IT) systems. The supplier has Just received a contract from a large automotive manufacturer which requires the supplier to use electronic data interchange (EDI) transactions for receiving orders, sending advance ship notices (ASNs), and receiving invoice payments. What strategy can the supplier adopt to immediately meet the EDI requirements?

A.

Select, install, and implement EDI software.

B.

Use current third-party logistics provider (3PL) to handle the EDI transactions.

C.

Claim hardship and ask the automotive manufacturer for a waiver.

D.

Negotiate using email as an alternative with the customer.

Question # 88

An organization is updating an Application Programming Interface (API) to support requests coming from mobile applications distributed on public application stores. The API’s primary function is to supply confidential documents when users request them within the mobile application. Which approach would BEST respond to this use case?

A.

Require that the user supplies their credential to access confidential documents.

B.

Require a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection to the organization's network to access confidential documents.

C.

Implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to validate the identity of the user requesting access to confidential documents.

D.

Implement Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0 to require the users to request permission to access confidential documents.

Question # 89

What is the BEST item to consider when designing security for information systems?

A.

The comprehensive level of assurance required

B.

The jurisdiction of the information system

C.

The security requirements of the board

D.

The Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

Question # 90

An organization experienced multiple compromises of endpoints, leading to breaches of systems and data. In updating its strategy to defend against these threats, which of the following BEST considers the organization’s needs?

A.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

B.

Zero Trust (ZT) threat modeling

C.

Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation (OCTAVE)

D.

Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis (PASTA)

Question # 91

A work center has 3 machines that are all run at the same time with a single worker. The work center has an efficiency of 75% and a utilization of 100%. What is the work center's capacity in standard hours for an 8-hour shift?

A.

6 hours

B.

8 hours

C.

18 hours

D.

24 hours

Question # 92

Which specification enables organizations to ensure penetration test results are documented using open, machine-readable standards?

A.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

B.

Security Orchestration, Automation And Response (SOAR)

C.

Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE)

D.

Common Vulnerability Reporting Framework (CVRF)

Question # 93

A security team is analyzing the management of data within the human resources systems, as well as, the intended use of the data, and with whom and how the data will be shared. Which type of assessment is the team MOST likely performing?

A.

Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA)

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Sensitive data assessment

D.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) risk assessment

Question # 94

After reviewing the output of a threat modelling workshop, the development manager decides not to implement the application features where issues were identified. What is the BEST description of how the threats from the workshop are being addressed?

A.

Eliminated

B.

Mitigated

C.

Transferred

D.

Accepted

Question # 95

An organization intends to host an application on a multi-tenant Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) platform. Which of the following measures are MOST important to ensure proper protection of sensitive information?

A.

Enforcement of logging and monitoring of all access to the application

B.

Enforcement of separation measures within the storage layer of the service

C.

Enforcement of perimeter security measures including the deployment of a virtual firewall

D.

Enforcement of endpoint security measures on the Virtual Machines (VM) deployed into the service

Question # 96

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of sharing assessment results among key organizational officials across information boundaries?

A.

Facilitates development of organization-wide security metrics

B.

Allows management to assess which organizational elements have the best security practices

C.

Provides the organization a wider view of systemic weaknesses and deficiencies in their information systems

D.

Identifies areas that require additional training emphasis in each organizational element

Question # 97

An external audit is conducted on an organization's cloud Information Technology (IT) infrastructure. This organization has been using cloud IT services for several years, but its use is not regulated in any way by the organization and security audits have never been conducted in the past. Which task will be the MOST challenging to conduct an effective security audit?

A.

Resource forecast

B.

Asset inventory

C.

Access to logs

D.

Software license agreements

Question # 98

An organization uses an external Identity Provider (IdP) to secure internal, external, or third-party applications. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the organization?

A.

Unavailability of access logs

B.

Integrity of authentication mechanism

C.

Compromise of service

D.

Deletion of federated tokens

Question # 99

When developing information security policies, What is the PRIMARY concern?

A.

Alignment with business requirements

B.

Compliance with legal requirements

C.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

D.

Compliance with international standards

Question # 100

Which of the following is an information security management framework?

A.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technologies (COBIT)

B.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

C.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO) 27001

D.

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

Question # 101

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) training can be considered complete when the participants

A.

understand the rationale behind why a specific Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) strategy was chosen.

B.

receive a complete, accurate, and detailed explanation of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

C.

understand their roles and interactions with other roles.

D.

have demonstrated their understanding during an actual disaster.

Question # 102

During the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process, which of the following tasks is the primary responsibility of the functional representatives on the supply planning team?

A.

Identifying reasons why the demand plan is not realistic

B.

Communicating when an event will prevent meeting the supply plan

C.

Ensuring that the functional objectives are considered when developing the plans

D.

Understanding how to use the plan to improve functional performance

Question # 103

Which approach will BEST mitigate risks associated with root user access while maintaining system functionality?

A.

Creating a system where administrative tasks are performed under monitored sessions using the root account, with audits conducted regularly

B.

Implementing a policy where users log in as root for complex tasks but use personal accounts for everyday activities, with strict logging of root access

C.

Configuring individual user accounts with necessary privileges for specific tasks and employing “sudo” for occasional administrative needs

D.

Allowing key authorized personnel to access the root account for critical system changes, while other staff use limited accounts with “sudo” for routine tasks

Question # 104

The planned channels of Inventory disbursement from one or more sources to field warehouses are known as:

A.

a supply chain community.

B.

interplant demand.

C.

a bill of distribution.

D.

logistics data interchange (LDI).

Question # 105

The question below is based on the following standard and actual data of a production order

CPIM-8.0 question answer

Which of the following statements about variances is true?

A.

The material price vanance for Component A is favorable by S10

B.

The labor pnce variance is unfavorable by S20

C.

The material usage variance for Component B is favorable by $36

D.

The labor efficiency variance is favorable by S20

Question # 106

Which of the following Secure Shell (SSH) remote access practices is MOST suited for scripted functions?

A.

Requiring Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B.

Using public key-based authentication method

C.

Restricting authentication by Internet Protocol (IP) address

D.

Implementing access credentials management tools

Question # 107

An organization discovered that malicious software was installed on an employee’s work laptop and allowed a competing vendor to access confidential files. The employee was fully aware of the policy not to install unauthorized software on the organization laptop. What is the BEST automated security practice for an organization to implement to avoid this situation?

A.

Security awareness training

B.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

C.

User behavior analytics solution

D.

File integrity monitoring

Question # 108

A company assembles kits of hand tools after receipt of the order from distributors and uses two-level master scheduling. The appropriate levels of detail for the forecasts that are input to master scheduling would be total number of kits and:

A.

each unique tool.

B.

percentage of total for each tool.

C.

raw material requirements.

D.

specific kit configurations.

Question # 109

Which of the following incorporates design techniques promoted by Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)?

A.

Capacity of residents to act individually should be increased.

B.

Landscape design features should be used to create the impression of a fortress.

C.

Multiple entrances and exits should be used to keep traffic flowing smoothly through the facility.

D.

Communal areas with amenities should be created to encourage activity and use.

Question # 110

Which of the following BEST effective when protecting against insider threats?

A.

Implement Two-Factor Authentication (2FA).

B.

Segment data repositories by business rules.

C.

Develop recovery and restoration procedures.

D.

Address security in third-party agreements.

Question # 111

An organization needs a firewall that maps packets to connections and uses Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) header fields to keep track of connections. Which type of firewall will be recommended?

A.

Network

B.

Stateless

C.

Stateful

D.

Packet

Question # 112

What is an important countermeasure to consider when hardening network devices and servers to reduce the effectiveness of unauthorized network scanning?

A.

Filter inbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

B.

Filter inbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

C.

Filter outbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

D.

Filter outbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

Question # 113

A large organization is planning to lay off half of its staff. From an information security point of view, what is the BEST way of approaching affected staff?

A.

Discuss the Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) with the affected staff before revoking access.

B.

Revoke the user certificates and add them to the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

C.

Revoke user access at the time of informing them.

D.

Ask human resources to conduct exit interviews before revoking access.

Question # 114

An organization wants to establish an information security program and has assigned a security analyst to put it in place. What is the NEXT step?

A.

Develop and implement an information security standards manual.

B.

security control review.

C.

Perform a risk assessment to establish baseline security.

D.

Implement security access control software.

Question # 115

Which of the following factors is the MOST important consideration for a security team when determining whether cryptographic erasure can be used for disposal of a device?

A.

If the data on the device exceeds what cryptographic erasure can safely process

B.

If the methods meet the International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001

C.

If security policies allow for cryptographic erasure based on the data stored on the device

D.

If the device was encrypted prior using cipher block chaining

Question # 116

An organization is restructuring its network architecture in which system administrators from the corporate office need to be able to connect to the branch office to perform various system maintenance activities. What network architecture would be MOST secure?

A.

Jump-server on a Local Area Network (LAN)

B.

Bastion host over a Wide Area Network (WAN)

C.

Jump-server connected to a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

D.

Bastion host with Virtual Private Network (VPN) termination point

Question # 117

A newly hired Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is now responsible to build a third-party assurance for their organization. When assessing a third-party, which of the following questions needs to be answered?

A.

How many employees the third-party employs?

B.

Which level of support does the third-party provide related to security?

C.

What is the monetary value of the third-party contract?

D.

To which standards does the third-party need to be assessed?

Question # 118

An organizational policy requires that any data from organization-issued devices be securely destroyed before disposal. Which method provides the BEST assurance of data destruction?

A.

Incinerating

B.

Reformatting

C.

Degaussing

D.

Erasing

Question # 119

Objective security metrics tend to be easier to gather, easier to interpret, and easier to include in reports to management.

What is the BEST objective metric for the effectiveness of a security awareness training?

A.

The management’s attitude toward the training

B.

The number of times users comply with the training

C.

A change of helpdesk calls after the training

D.

The off-hand comments about the training

Question # 120

A security engineer needs to perform threat modeling on a microprocessor design for an Internet of Things (IoT) application. Using the MITRE Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE) catalog for hardware, a risk analysis is performed. What kind of threat modeling approach would be BEST to identify entry points into the system based on motivation?

A.

System centric

B.

Attacker centric

C.

Threat centric

D.

Asset centric

Question # 121

A potentially life-threatening vulnerability is found in vendor software that is used to manage critical systems. Which of the following is generally considered the BEST method to disclose the vulnerability from an ethical hacking perspective?

A.

Coordinated disclosure because it compels the vendor to act within a certain time frame

B.

Bug bounty disclosure programs because the researcher should get paid for finding the vulnerability

C.

Full public disclosure because the vulnerability is serious and the organizations using the software need to know quickly

D.

Full vendor disclosure because it is the vendor’s responsibility to disclose vulnerabilities to its customers

Question # 122

In which of the following phases of the product life cycle is product price most effective in influencing demand?

A.

Introduction

B.

Growth

C.

Maturity

D.

Decline

Question # 123

Which if the following is the FIRST control step in provisioning user rights and privileges?

A.

Identification

B.

Authorization

C.

Authentication

D.

Confidentiality

Question # 124

A security consultant is recommending the implementation of a security-focused Configuration Management (CM) process in an organization. What would be the BEST benefit the security consultant would include in the recommendation?

A.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with existing security requirements of the organization.

B.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with regulatory requirements placed on an organization.

C.

Security-focused CM surpasses existing security requirements of the organization.

D.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with best practices derived from industry frameworks.

Question # 125

What is the following is the MAIN reason why hot-spot usually adopt open security mode in wireless networks?

A.

Ease of use

B.

Limitation of Infrastructure

C.

Adapter compatibility concerns

D.

Cost concerns

Question # 126

To mitigate risk related to natural disasters, an organization has a separate location with systems and communications in place. Data must be restored on the remote systems before they are ready for use. What type of remote site is this?

A.

Cold Site

B.

Mobile Site

C.

Hot Site

D.

Warm Sit

Question # 127

An information system security manager is tasked with properly applying risk management principle to their cloud information system as outlined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST).

Which of the following is the INITIAL step?

A.

Categorize

B.

Select

C.

Assess

D.

Prepare

Question # 128

A company has a demand for 30 units of A, 40 units of B, and 50 units of C. These products are scheduled to run daily in batches of 10 as follows: ABC, ABC, ABC, CBC. What is this scheduling

technique called?

A.

Mixed-model

B.

Matrix

C.

Synchronized

D.

Line balancing

Question # 129

Which of the below represent the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

A.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Supply chain failure

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

Question # 130

During an onsite audit, an assessor inspected an organization’s asset decommission practice. Which of the following would MOST likely be a finding from a security point of view?

A.

Solid State Drives (SSD) were degaussed along with hard drives.

B.

The Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) between the organization and its data disposal service was more than 3 years old.

C.

Hard drives from older assets replaced defective hard drives from current assets of similar classification levels.

D.

Data classifications were not clearly identified.

Question # 131

Exhibit:

CPIM-8.0 question answer

A company has prioritized customers A, B, and C, filling orders in that sequence. What are the impacts to customer service levels for customers B and C?

A.

100% service levels for B and C

B.

Customer B has higher service level

C.

Customer C has higher service level

D.

Customer B and C have same service level

Question # 132

What priority control technique is most appropriate for a firm using a cellular production system?

A.

Shortest processing time (SPT) rule

B.

Distribution requirements planning (DRP)

C.

Pull production activity control (PAC)

D.

Push production activity control (PAC)

Question # 133

The cost accountant has discovered a consistent overage in actual run time for one operation. This information should be sent first to the:

A.

product manager to increase the selling price of the product.

B.

quality manager to add a new quality measurement to the operation.

C.

production supervisor to review and explain the overage.

D.

the engineering manager to evaluate the run time for the routing.

Question # 134

Which of the following measurements indicates there may be bias In the forecast model?

A.

Mean absolute deviation (MAD)

B.

Standard deviation

C.

Tracking signal

D.

Variance

Question # 135

How would a master production schedule (MPS) be used In an assemble-to-order (ATO) manufacturing environment?

A.

The MPS is used to plan subassemblies and components; end items are only scheduled when a customer order is received.

B.

Subassemblies are scheduled in the MPS when the customer order is received, and production can start.

C.

Typically, the MPS is not used in companies using an ATO manufacturing strategy.

D.

Often In an ATO environment, the MPS is created once a year and only revised if a product is discontinued.

Question # 136

Which of the following methods would be appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history?

A.

Econometric models

B.

Computer simulation

C.

Time series decomposition

D.

Weighted moving average

Question # 137

An organization undergoing acquisition merged IT departments and infrastructure. During server decommissioning, some servers still in use by customers were mistakenly removed, causing order processing failures. Which type of review would have BEST avoided this scenario?

A.

Disaster Recovery (DR)

B.

Change management

C.

Business Continuity (BC)

D.

Business impact assessment

Question # 138

Which of the following BEST defines whether an organization can consider an alternate location during a contingency?

A.

Verify the availability of an office location for the given size of the team

B.

Verify that there is a contractual obligation for location-providing services

C.

Verify the availability of cheap resources in the new location

D.

Verify that a memorandum of understanding (MOU) is in place for office equipment

Question # 139

What BEST describes the end goal of a Disaster Recovery (DR) program?

A.

Review the status of mission-critical applications.

B.

Prevent business interruption.

C.

Continue business operations during a contingency.

D.

Restore normal business operations.

Question # 140

The most relevant measure of customer service performance Is:

A.

service perceived by the customer against service expected by the customer.

B.

service promised to the customer against service measured by the supplier.

C.

customer complaints received as a percentage of orders shipped.

D.

positive customer feedback as a percentage of customer feedback.

Question # 141

Which of the following BEST describes an individual modifying something the individual is not supposed to?

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Tampering

C.

Spoofing

D.

Repudiation

Question # 142

A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?

A.

Something one does

B.

Something one is

C.

Something one has

D.

Something one knows

Question # 143

Components of an organization's Immediate industry and competitive environment Include:

A.

political factors.

B.

interest rates.

C.

substitute products.

D.

sociocultural forces.

Question # 144

An organization is looking to integrate security concepts into the code development process early in development to detect issues before the software is launched. Which advantage does the organization gain from using Static Application Security Testing (SAST) techniques versus dynamic application security testing techniques?

A.

Allows tailored techniques

B.

Executes code to detect issues

C.

Allows for earlier vulnerability detection

D.

Simulates attacker patterns

Question # 145

An agency has the requirement to establish a direct data connection with another organization for the purpose of exchanging data between the agency and organization systems. There is a requirement for a formal agreement between the agency and organization. Which source of standards can the system owners use to define the roles and responsibilities along with details for the technical and security requirements?

A.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO)

B.

European Committee for Electrotechnical Standardization

C.

Caribbean Community Regional Organization for Standards and Quality

D.

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

Question # 146

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

Question # 147

Plans are being made to move an organization’s software systems to the cloud in order to utilize the flexibility and scalability of the cloud. Some of these software systems process highly sensitive data. The organization must follow strict legal requirements regarding the location of the highly sensitive data processed by the software systems. Which cloud model will BEST fit the organization’s requirements?

A.

Private cloud

B.

Multicloud

C.

Public cloud

D.

Hybrid cloud

Question # 148

Which of the following procedures should be defined when establishing information and asset handling requirements?

A.

Asset retention procedures

B.

Software patching procedures

C.

Media disposal procedures

D.

User access procedures

Question # 149

The primary consideration In maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supply systems typically is:

A.

order quantity.

B.

stockout costs.

C.

carrying costs.

D.

shelf life.

Question # 150

Which of the following is the GREATEST threat for a Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) deployment on the internet?

A.

Ability to use weak hashing algorithms for peer authentication

B.

Ability to perform unauthenticated peering across autonomous systems

C.

Failure to validate legitimacy of received route advertisements

D.

Failure to encrypt route announcement across autonomous systems

Question # 151

The trade-off of increasing safety stock to improve customer fill rate would be a decrease in:

A.

pipeline inventory.

B.

transportation costs.

C.

inventory turns.

D.

sales revenue.

Question # 152

A financial services organization wants to deploy a wireless network. Which of the following is the WEAKEST option for ensuring a secure network?

A.

Separating internal wireless users from guests

B.

Media Access control (MAC) address filtering

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Deploy mutual authentication between the client and the network

Question # 153

An organization’s security assessment recommended expanding its secure software development framework to include testing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products before deploying those products in production. What is the MOST likely reason for this recommendation?

A.

To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment

B.

To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the user acceptance testing

C.

To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the trial run of the software

D.

To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment

Question # 154

Which software development methodology is an iterative customer-value-centric approach which helps teams deliver value to their customers faster and with fewer problems?

A.

Agile model

B.

Cleanroom model

C.

Waterfall model

D.

Incremental model

Question # 155

A company implementing a localized multi-country strategy to increase market share should engage in which of the following actions?

A.

Sell different product versions in different countries under different brand names.

B.

Sell the same products under the same brand name worldwide.

C.

Locate plants on the basis of maximum location advantage.

D.

Use the best suppliers regardless of geographic location.

Question # 156

In a Discretionary Access Control (DAC) model, how is access to resources managed?

A.

By the subject’s ability to perform the function

B.

By the discretion of a system administrator

C.

By the subject’s rank and/or title within the security organization

D.

By the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong

Question # 157

In order for an organization to mature their data governance processes to ensure compliance, they have created a data classification matrix.

What are the next BEST activities to build on this completed work?

A.

Ensure the data owners agree with the classification of their data and then socialize the matrix with employees handling data.

B.

Ensure the internal legal team approves the data classification matrix then perform a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) to understand the impact of applying the classifications.

C.

Complete a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) and use the results to identify improvements to the data classification matrix.

D.

Document the handling procedures for each classification of data in the matrix and schedule data handling educational sessions with employees.

Question # 158

Given the following data, calculate the appropriate takt time:

CPIM-8.0 question answer

A.

0.25 minutes

B.

1 minute

C.

2 minutes

D.

4 minutes

Question # 159

Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

A.

Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.

B.

Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

C.

Work centers operate using decentralized control.

D.

Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.

Question # 160

Employees at an organization use web based services provided by an affiliate. Which of the following risks is unique to this situation?

A.

Watering hole attack

B.

Man-In-Middle (MITM) attack

C.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack

D.

PowerShell attack

Question # 161

Which is the MOST valid statement around the relationship of security and privacy?

A.

A system designed with security provides individuals with data privacy by default.

B.

Nonrepudiation protects against unauthorized disclosure of private data.

C.

Privacy in the realm of physical security often entails trade-offs with security.

D.

Privacy and security are mutually exclusive.

Question # 162

An example of an assignable cause of variation in process performance is:

A.

power fluctuation during machine operation.

B.

machine vibration during operation.

C.

incorrect setup of a machine by the operator.

D.

changes in temperature in the machine shop.

Question # 163

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using federated identity?

A.

The administrative burden is increased

B.

The application has access to the user’s credentials

C.

Applications may need complex modifications to implement

D.

A compromised credential provides access to all the user’s applications

Question # 164

What activity is a useful element in the change process?

A.

Creating short-term wins

B.

Calculating a break-even point

C.

Performing a SWOT analysis

D.

Developing key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question # 165

What is the FIRST element that must be evaluated in a security governance program?

A.

An organization’s business objectives and strategy

B.

Review of Information Technology (IT) and technical controls

C.

Review of organization’s Information Technology (IT) security policies

D.

An organization’s utilization of resources

Question # 166

An organization is aiming to be System and Organization Controls (SOC) 2 certified by an audit organization to demonstrate its security and availability maturity to its sub service organizations. Which type of audit does this engagement BEST describe?

A.

Forensic audit

B.

Third-party audit

C.

Location audit

D.

Internal audit

Question # 167

In which of the following environments is capable-to-promise (CTP) more appropriate than available-to-promise (ATP)?

A.

Consumer electronics sold through local retailers

B.

Industrial supplies shipped from regional distribution centers (DCs)

C.

Packaged foods sold in grocery stores

D.

Specialty chemicals packaged and shipped to order

Question # 168

An organization is migrating its access controls to a certificate-based authentication system.

What will need to be established to verify the identity of all users connecting to the network before rolling out the system?

A.

A biometric system needs to scan unique attributes of all users.

B.

A Certificate Authority (CA) needs to issue new passwords to all users.

C.

A Certificate Authority (CA) needs to issue the certificates to all users.

D.

A challenge response system needs to validate all user access.

Question # 169

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

Question # 170

Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is applicable primarily In companies operating In an environment where:

A.

backlog is very low.

B.

the status of work orders is disregarded.

C.

lean principles are used.

D.

material requirements planning (MRP) is used.

Question # 171

Which Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol provides a built-in encryption?

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

B.

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol

C.

Layer 2 Forwarding Protocol

D.

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

Question # 172

Endpoint security needs to be established after an organization procured 1,000 industrial Internet Of Things (IoT) sensors. Which of the following challenges are the security engineers MOST likely to face?

A.

Identity And Access Management (IAM)

B.

Power and physical security

C.

Configuration Management (CM) and deployment

D.

Installation and connection

Question # 173

Which of the following is an access control method that organizations can use to prevent unauthorized access?

A.

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)

B.

Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

C.

Token-based authentication

D.

Digital verification

Question # 174

Which of the following presents the GREATEST benefit to an organization's security posture when a change management process is implemented?

A.

Accuracy of Key Risk Indicators (KRI) reported to senior management

B.

Ensure the integrity of the organization's assets

C.

Backups being completed in a timely manner

D.

Accuracy of Key Performance Indicators (KPI) reported to senior management

Question # 175

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

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