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  • Exam Name: APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)
  • Last Update: Sep 12, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 409
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APM-PFQ Practice Exam Questions with Answers APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Certification

Question # 6

When using a PESTLE analysis, a potential change in national government would be an example of a:

A.

political factor.

B.

economic factor.

C.

sociological factor.

D A. potential change of government would not be considered in such an analysis.

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Question # 7

Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

A.

People working collaboratively towards a common goal.

B.

Developing skills that will enhance project performance.

C.

Gathering the right people together to work on a project.

D.

Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

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Question # 8

The project management plan:

A.

justifies undertaking the project.

B.

describes the success criteria for the project.

C.

focuses primarily on time related issues.

D.

describes the success factor for the project.

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Question # 9

Which one of the following is NOT a project change?

A.

An approved omission from the agreed project scope.

B.

The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project.

C.

A. requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs.

D.

The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

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Question # 10

The concept that describes how estimating accuracy changes through the project life cycle is termed:

A.

estimating risk.

B.

estimating funnel.

C.

normal values.

D.

parametric estimating.

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Question # 11

5 A. --> 5 B. --> 5D --> 5F

`-->4C. --> 4E --^

The total float of activity E in the above diagram is:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

0

D.

4

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Question # 12

The primary purpose of a gate review is to decide:

A.

whether the project manager and team are performing well.

B.

if the project is on schedule and within budget.

C.

if stakeholders are satisfied.

D.

whether to continue with the project.

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Question # 13

Comparative estimating uses:

A.

current data from similar projects.

B.

historic data from all projects.

C.

historic data from similar projects.

D.

current data from all projects.

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Question # 14

Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?

A.

Define outputs.

B.

Identify outputs.

C.

Share outputs.

D.

Control outputs

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Question # 15

Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

A.

An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

B.

A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.

C.

The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.

D.

A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term

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Question # 16

Which one of the following is the best reason for splitting a project into phases?

A.

For team members to reflect on their performance during a phase.

B.

For the project manager to take a break between phases.

C.

It creates a decision point for continuing the project.

D.

In order for the plan to be updated regularly.

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Question # 17

What is the most likely conclusion resulting from a PESTLE analysis?

A.

The agreed end date for the project.

B.

A list of possible stakeholders.

C.

The number of project phases necessary.

D The size of the project team required.

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Question # 18

Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

A.

A major problem that requires formal escalation.

B.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

C.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur.

D.

An opportunity that occurs through change control.

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Question # 19

An example Of an external stakeholder group could be:

A.

users.

B.

A. governmental regulatory body.

C.

functional managers within the sponsoring organisation.

D.

the project team members.

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Question # 20

Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they:

A.

contribute to the project's procurement strategy.

B.

help satisfy the project's resource requirements.

C.

provide acceptance certificates based on quality of resources supplied.

D.

determine the quality requirements of goods supplied.

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Question # 21

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 22

Critical path analysis places emphasis upon:

A.

risks

B.

resources

C.

milestones

D.

activities

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Question # 23

Where in the project life cycle benefits realization most common?

A.

The start of deployment.

B.

The end of deployment.

C.

The end of the concept phase prior to handover

D.

The extended life cycle.

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Question # 24

Which of the following would be a benefit to an organization of effective project management?

A.

Significant cost savings in the organization’s business as usual activities.

B.

Guaranteed increased profitability and market share from successful projects.

C.

Use of resources and greater likelihood of achieving a successful project.

D.

Having qualified and trained project managers in the organization.

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Question # 25

Which of these statements is FALSE?

A.

Stakeholders may be for the change or against

B.

Stakeholders may have little influence or lots

C.

Stakeholders may be internal or external to your organisation

D.

Stakeholders with high influence always have high interest in the project

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Question # 26

Which one of the following would be expected to form the main part of a risk analysis?

A.

Deciding on the approach to project risk management.

B.

Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative importance.

C.

Deciding on how to respond to the risk and who should implement the response.

D.

Deciding if the risk is a threat or opportunity.

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Question # 27

What is the importance of having a business case?

A.

It allows the sponsor to use the document as a baseline to calculate project slippage.

B.

It provides an overview of the project team performance at each stage of delivery.

C.

It shows how the project manager is performing in delivering the project

D.

It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuously when used at gate review

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Question # 28

Which of the following statements about risks and issues is correct?

A.

Issues must be escalated to the project sponsor.

B.

Risks must be escalated to the project sponsor.

C.

Issues must be dealt with by the governance board.

D.

Risks must be dealt with by the governance board.

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Question # 29

What is meant by the term programme management?

A.

The management of A. group of projects or activities that have a common business aim.

B.

The line management of A. team of programme managers.

C.

The management of A. functional are aused by a number of different projects.

D.

The management of the programme of activities identified in the project plan

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Question # 30

Which of the following statements explain the importance of clearly defined success criteria at handover?

1) Deliverables are more likely to satisfy the client

2) The project can be effectively evaluated

3) Work can be effectively planned

4) Change can generally be avoided

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 31

If using an iterative life cycle what actions might be necessary for scope items that are NOT considered as 'must have'?

A.

They need to be given a special priority to ensure that they are definitely delivered.

B.

They should have best resort to ensure they efficiently delivered.

C.

The project could be If the delivery of these requirements were proving more difficult than expected

D.

They would sacrificed if at any time Was to go over budget or be late

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Question # 32

Communication includes:

1) exchanging information

2) managing stakeholders

3) confirming there is a shared understanding

4) building relationships within your team

A.

2 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Question # 33

The purpose of a risk register is to provide a:

A.

structured process for risk identification.

B.

record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.

C.

means of assessing the likelihood and impact of all of the risks.

D.

record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

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Question # 34

Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a project governance board?

A.

Project sponsor, project manager and quality manager.

B.

Corporate management, project sponsor, quality manager and project office.

C.

Sponsor, supplier representative and user representative.

D Sponsor, project manager and senior project team members.

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Question # 35

The purpose of project progress reporting is to:

A.

ensure a simpler critical path.

B.

enable the tracking of project deliverables.

C.

ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

D.

provide an increased total float.

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Question # 36

What is the purpose of a stakeholder grid?

A.

A means of stakeholder identification.

B.

It provides a statement of the stakeholder communications plan.

C.

To understand a stakeholder's position in relation to the project.

D.

It presents an action plan for stakeholder management.

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Question # 37

Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of their team?

A.

Creating an exclusive environment.

B.

Providing clear roles and responsibilities.

C.

Promoting openness and honesty.

D.

Developing a trusting relationship.

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Question # 38

Which of the following aspects would best describe part of the project environment?

A.

The influence and interests of the key stakeholders of the project.

B.

The technical difficulties that are anticipated when undertaking the project.

C.

The circumstances within which the project is being undertaken.

D The relationship between the project manager and the project team.

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Question # 39

Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?

A.

Recommendation.

B.

Justification.

C.

Planning.

D.

Continuous improvement

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Question # 40

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

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Question # 41

Which of the following defines the term 'deployment baseline'?

A.

The starting point for creating a resource histogram.

B.

The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure.

C.

The starting point for the monitoring of project risks.

D.

The basis for progress monitoring.

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Question # 42

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

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Question # 43

A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce:

A.

the cost of a do-nothing option.

B.

an analytical estimate.

C.

high-level project costs.

D.

a comparative estimate.

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Question # 44

Which of the following are the major stakeholders of the project management plan?

1) Project sponsor

2) General public

3) Project team

4) Project manager

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 45

Which of the following is not a purpose of milestones?

A.

Adjusting resource requirements.

B.

Controlling project progress.

C.

Scheduling payments for deliverables.

D.

Setting major deadlines.

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Question # 46

One disadvantage of physical communication is:

A.

its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.

B.

that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members.

C.

it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project.

D.

that your body language may not reflect what you're saying when passing on information

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Question # 47

What is a likely benefit of re-estimating throughout the project life cycle?

A.

The project will be much more economically viable.

B.

The business case is justified to a greater degree.

C.

Overall project duration is reduced.

D.

Reduction in contingency reserves are achieved.

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Question # 48

Risk management should be initiated...

A.

when the Project Management Plan is initiated.

B.

at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.

C.

at the start of the project.

D.

once the project concept is understood.

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Question # 49

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows the project manager to cross reference:

A.

the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) to match resources to the tasks.

B.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the cost breakdown structure (CBS) to assign A. cost to each resource.

C.

the product breakdown structure (PBS) with the work breakdown structure (WBS) to assign activities to the products.

D.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the product breakdown structure (PBS) to assign resources to deliverables.

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Question # 50

Which one of the following is NOT a function of leadership?

A.

Reinforcing positive relationships.

B.

Inspiring the individual.

C.

Maintaining constant tight control.

D.

Promoting the project vision.

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Question # 51

When managing risks, reducing the probability of a threat is considered to be am:

A.

proactive response.

B.

reactive response.

C.

proactive fallback.

D.

reactive fallback.

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Question # 52

Which of the following is most true of the business case?

A.

It provides details of the overarching approach to be taken to move the current to a future desirable state using a coordinated and structured approach.

B.

It evaluates the benefit, cost and risk of alternative project options and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It demonstrates the relationship between the costs of undertaking a project, initial and recurrent, and the benefits likely to arise from the changed situation, initially and recurrently.

D.

It describes each major element in the work breakdown structure (WBS) describing the work content, resources required, the time frame of the work element and a cost estimate.

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Question # 53

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

A.

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

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Question # 54

"The degree of conformance of a process to requirements" is included in the definition of which term?

A.

Criteria

B.

Compliance

C.

Quality

D.

Benefits

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Question # 55

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case?

A.

Safety plan for the project.

B.

Implementation options.

C.

Stakeholder identification.

D.

Business benefits.

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Question # 56

Which one of the following statements best describes resource scheduling?

A.

A. process which identifies activities that will need project resources.

B.

A. process to assign roles to project resources.

C.

A. process that identifies when resources are needed.

D.

A. process to estimate the project resources.

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Question # 57

In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Deployment

D.

Transition

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Question # 58

Good teamwork helps to deliver a successful project because:

A.

team members have similar skill sets.

B.

project work can be distributed equally around the team.

C.

all team members have the same access to project information.

D.

people work collaboratively towards a common goal.

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Question # 59

When the project progresses through the life cycle. which one of the following aspects would be expected to occur?

A.

The accuracy of the estimate reduces and the level of contingency requirement increases.

B.

The accuracy of the estimate increases and the level of contingency requirement reduces.

C.

The accuracy and level Of contingency requirement both increase.

D.

The accuracy and level of contingency requirement both reduce.

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Question # 60

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a:

A.

gate review.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review

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Question # 61

Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?

A.

It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

B.

It advocates employing A. consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.

C.

It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.

D.

It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

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Question # 62

A project communication plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

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Question # 63

A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to:

A.

mitigate all possible risks to the project.

B.

identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project.

C.

control technological change during the project.

D.

consider team social roles in early stages of the project

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Question # 64

Inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria is an example of quality:

A.

reporting.

B.

control.

C.

assurance.

D.

planning.

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Question # 65

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

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Question # 66

Which statement regarding the purpose of the business case would be the most true?

A.

Once agreed the business case will become the baseline by which the project will be deployed,

B.

It will act as a reference for the project team regarding the specific. processes to be used forproject delivery.

C.

It will determine which stakeholders are most eligible to become members of the steering group,

D.

It will be referred to throughout the project in order to make decisions about the continuing viability of the project.

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Question # 67

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

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Question # 68

When is an analysis of a project's environment most likely to be undertaken?

A.

In the Definition Phase

B.

In the Transition Phase

C.

In the Concept Phase

D.

In the Deployment Phase

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Question # 69

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of a project?

A.

The management of a routine operation.

B.

A functional team doing a repetitive task.

C.

It has an agreed timescale.

D.

No specific objectives for change.

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Question # 70

Resource smoothing is used when:

A.

quality is more important than cost.

B.

quality is more important than scope.

C.

scope is more important than time.

D.

time is more important than cost.

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Question # 71

The value of a risk log lies in its ability to provide:

A.

A. record of all risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

B.

A. record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.

C.

A. means of assessing the likelihood and impact of risks.

D.

A. structured process for risk management.

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Question # 72

The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

A.

A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are realised

B.

The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

C.

Risk management in the project facilitates team building.

D.

It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of project compliance with regard to risk management.

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Question # 73

Portfolio management includes prioritising:

A.

projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation's strategic objectives.

B.

projects with exceptionally high returns on investment.

C.

projects and programmes over business as usual.

D.

projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment

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Question # 74

The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by?

A.

Quality alignment.

B.

Quality control.

C.

Quality assurance.

D.

Quality improvement.

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Question # 75

When in the project life cycle might analogous estimating be most commonly used?

A.

Transition.

B.

Concept

C.

Deployment.

D.

Definition.

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Question # 76

Which of the following estimating techniques utilizes work packages, assigning costs and consolidating to provide a project estimate?

A.

Analytical.

B.

Comparative.

C.

Parametric.

D.

Strategic.

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Question # 77

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of a linear project life cycle?

A.

Deployment, Concept, Definition, Transition.

B.

Concept, Transition, Definition, Deployment.

C.

Concept, Definition, Deployment, Transition.

D.

Transition, Definition, Deployment, Concept

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Question # 78

An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

A.

the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

B.

technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.

C.

lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.

D.

the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

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Question # 79

The group whose remit is to set the strategic direction of a project is commonly known as:

A.

the project management team.

B.

primary user group.

C.

steering group.

D supplier group.

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Question # 80

The advantages of communicating using a telephone conference call is:

A.

accents are easier to interpret.

B.

information is easier to understand.

C.

discussions will be quicker.

D.

there is less visual distraction.

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Question # 81

When delivering a project, the project manager has to balance which of the following constraints?

A.

Definition and delivery.

B.

Time, cost and quality.

C.

Budget, spend and contingency.

D.

Cost and scope.

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Question # 82

What is one of the most important aspects to establish about a stakeholder's interest in the project?

A.

If it is positive or negative.

B.

If it is regular or intermittent.

C.

If it is influenced by the project.

D.

If it is influenced by other stakeholders.

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Question # 83

During the consideration of when and how the development of the project management plan should take place, the objectives of carrying out such an exercise can often appear to be uncertain. As a recommendation, the project management plan should be:

A.

assembled when all information is available.

B.

developed iteratively throughout the early stages of the project.

C.

completed in detail before the project is authorised.

D.

free from detailed schedule information.

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Question # 84

What would be the most direct symptom of poor quality in the project?

A.

The project not using compliant management processes.

B.

The customer refusing to take delivery of the finished product.

C.

The failure of a quality assurance audit.

D.

The project finishing over budget.

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Question # 85

The phases of a project life cycle are:

A.

starting, planning, control and closing.

B.

concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

C.

initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.

D.

concept, definition, implementation and operations.

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Question # 86

Resource levelling seeks:

A.

to schedule activities within the limits of their float.

B.

to minimise the use of overtime and weekend working.

C.

not to exceed the limits of resource available.

D.

to increase the resource availability

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Question # 87

What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

A.

Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum.

B.

Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information.

C.

Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

D.

Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback

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Question # 88

Which one of these categories would best represent project issues?

A.

Uncertain events that may or may not occur.

B.

Opportunities that occur through change control.

C.

Problems that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

D.

Threats to the project which cannot be resolved by the project manager.

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Question # 89

Which of the following would be considered most important when carrying out A. detailed evaluation of a change?

A.

Impact of change on baseline, risks and business case.

B.

The number of extra people required to deliver the change.

C.

How the change will be reported when it is implemented into the project.

D.

The configuration requirements Of the change when implemented into the project,

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Question # 90

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

A.

Budget.

B.

Stakeholder.

C.

Resource.

D.

Schedule

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Question # 91

Why is it important to produce a project management plan?

A.

It shows the benefits expected at the close of the project and the specific stakeholders who are involved.

B.

It provides justification for undertaking the project and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It sets and clarifies the expectations of all stakeholders who are involved in the project delivery.

D.

It identifies and establishes the most appropriate means of procuring the component parts or services for the project being delivered.

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Question # 92

How can the project manager ensure a sound stakeholder environment?

A.

Ensure that stakeholders who oppose the project are not involved

B.

Develop an environment where all stakeholder's needs are satisfied.

C.

Develop ways of understanding the needs of stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that the influence stakeholders have is reduced.

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Question # 93

Stakeholder analysis considers three aspects for each stakeholder. which are:

A.

their interest in the project. whether or not they Can influence the project and whether their attitude to the project is for or against.

B.

their level Of technical knowledge. whether or not they are able to act as sponsor and if they are available.

C.

their experience. position in the organizational hierarchy and number Of resources managed

D.

their interest in the project. whether or not they are a member Of the steering group and if they are likely to resist changes.

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Question # 94

Which of the following statements describes a key difference between quality assurance and quality control?

A.

Quality control is about fitness for purpose whilst quality assurance is about management confidence.

B.

Quality control is about testing whilst quality assurance is about planning.

C.

Quality control is about fitness for purpose whilst quality assurance is about testing.

D.

Quality control is about management whilst quality assurance is about controlling change.

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Question # 95

The purpose of PESTLE analysis is to:

A.

understand the project's external operating environment.

B.

prioritise requirements that should be included in the project.

C.

periodically review the financial viability of the project.

D.

determine the project team's strengths and weaknesses.

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Question # 96

Which one of the following statements best defines a portfolio?

A.

A. group of related projects, which may include business-as-usual activities, that delivers change.

B.

A. timetable of how project activities and project milestones are planned over a period of time.

C.

A. group of projects that represent the delivery of all, or a discrete part of a new capability.

D.

A. grouping of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities.

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Question # 97

What would be a most likely result for an organisation following a PESTLE analysis?

A.

The organisation would know what political change is most likely and therefore the impacts on objectives considered.

B.

The organisation would most likely have a number of options available as to how the desired objectives could be achieved.

C.

The organisation would have an understanding of the necessary skills required to deliver the objectives required.

D The organisation would be able to develop an accurate estimate of the costs and time frame forthe objectives to be achieved.

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Question # 98

Which one of the following takes place during closeout?

A.

Benefits realisation review.

B.

Final project review.

C.

Deliverables accepted by sponsor.

D.

Handover of relevant documentation

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Question # 99

Which of the following defines the term 'issue'?

A.

A problem which is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.

B.

A problem which occurs on a day-to-day basis which could have an immediate impact on a project.

C.

A problem which has the potential to impact on the achievement of specific project objectives.

D.

A problem which can only be resolved by a project manager and within the project team

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Question # 100

Which of the following should happen as soon as a change has been approved?

A.

Update change log.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Update the issue log.

D.

Update lessons learned.

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Question # 101

A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

A.

define the terms of reference of the project manager.

B.

define the limits of the project sponsor's responsibilities.

C.

allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.

D.

allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

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Question # 102

Project success criteria are best defined as:

A.

the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.

B.

the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome.

C.

the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule.

D.

the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success

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Question # 103

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

Risk events always have beneficial effects on the project.

B.

Risk events can have either beneficial or detrimental effects on the project.

C.

Risk events always have detrimental effects on the project.

D.

Risk events have neither beneficial nor detrimental effects on the project.

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Question # 104

What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan?

A.

The project is more likely to finish on time.

B.

There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards.

C.

The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.

D.

There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering.

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Question # 105

Which type of projects needs to consider environmental constraints?

A.

Construction projects only.

B.

Construction and petrochemical projects only.

C.

All but IT projects.

D.

All projects.

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Question # 106

To be considered effective. how should quality management be used in the project?

A.

To ensure compliance.

B.

To ensure quality standards are met.

C.

To ensure the required process needs of stakeholders are met.

D.

To ensure both the project outputs and the processes meet the required needs of stakeholders.

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Question # 107

Which is one of the three key project constraints?

A.

Time

B.

Political

C.

Environmental

D.

Technical

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Question # 108

Which of the following phases precedes feasibility in an iterative project life cycle?

A.

Foundations.

B.

Pre-project.

C.

Concept.

D.

Initiation.

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Question # 109

Who is primarily responsible for configuration management in the project?

A.

Project manager,

B.

Risk manager.

C.

Quality manager.

D.

The project team.

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Question # 110

Which one of the following is the best description of project scope?

A.

Scope is detailed in the business case.

B.

Scope is the total work content of a project.

C.

Scope is an outcome of the scheduling and estimating processes.

D.

Scope defines what is NOT delivered by the project.

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Question # 111

A key output of a well-controlled configuration management process is:

A.

documented traceability between versions of each configuration item.

B.

that the project is most likely to meet its success criteria.

C.

documented evidence of all project changes: proposed. authorised, rejected or deferred.

D.

an agreed point after which no further changes to scope will be considered.

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Question # 112

What is the main benefit of using prototyping. time boxing or iterative thinking?

A.

They offer tested methods for experimentation and risk reduction

B.

They reduce stakeholders' expectations of how they benefit from the project.

C.

Try allow the project to develop an extended life cycle.

D.

They always deliver the project quicker than planned

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Question # 113

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

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Question # 114

Which of the following defines the term 'risk'?

A.

The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives.

B.

A problem that is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.

C.

Scope creep within an uncontrolled project.

D.

The use of estimation to determine costs, resources and activities.

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Question # 115

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

A.

Work Breakdown Structure.

B.

Organisational Breakdown Structure.

C.

Product Breakdown Structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure.

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Question # 116

What is the main aim of the communication plan?

A.

To increase the chances of achieving effective engagement.

B.

To comply with the structure of the project management plan.

C.

To identify the skills necessary to deliver a project.

D.

To increase the likelihood of benefits realisation.

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Question # 117

Which of the following defines quality?

A.

The fitness for purpose of outputs and processes.

B.

The value for money of a product.

C.

The satisfaction of the stakeholders.

D.

The thoroughness of the management plan.

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Question # 118

Implementation of plans and verification of performance is most likely to occur in:

A.

the deployment phase.

B.

the definition phase

C.

the concept phase.

D.

the adoption phase

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Question # 119

Estimating by using historical information is known as:

A.

comparative estimating.

B.

parametric estimating.

C.

bottom-up estimating.

D.

strategic estimating.

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Question # 120

The project manager ___ the business case.

A.

is the sole author of.

B.

represents.

C.

implements.

D.

is not involved with.

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Question # 121

The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how is called the:

A.

communication management plan.

B.

stakeholder mapping grid.

C.

document distribution schedule.

D.

responsibility assignment matrix.

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Question # 122

One benefit of stakeholder analysis is that:

A.

the communication plan becomes unnecessary.

B.

the stakeholders who oppose the project the most can be "cut off' to reduce their negative influence.

C.

the communication requirements for each stakeholder Can be established.

D.

the stakeholders can be removed from any of the decisions that are bang planned.

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