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  • Exam Name: Brocade Certified Network Engineer 2012
  • Last Update: Jul 18, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 113
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150-130 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Brocade Certified Network Engineer 2012 Certification

Question # 6

Which type of transceiver would be used to support a 1 km multi-mode fiber 1 Gbps connection?

A.

SFP

B.

SFP+

C.

Twinax

D.

QSFP

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Question # 7

Which two features enable discovery of network switches? (Choose two.)

A.

LLDP

B.

UDLD

C.

FDP

D.

LFS

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Question # 8

A customer uses an access control list (ACL) to restrict access to servers on their network. The

ACL properly restricts traffic. However, the customer has no visibility to which IP addresses were denied by the ACL. Which word added to the end of the ACL statement would solve this problem?

A.

log

B.

permit

C.

snmp

D.

syslog

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Question # 9

Which two Layer 2 network discovery protocols are used to detect PoE power requirements?

(Choose two.)

A.

FDP

B.

LLDP-MED

C.

LACP

D.

CDP

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Question # 10

Which three transceiver form factors are supported by Brocade switches and routers? (Choose three.)

A.

XPAK

B.

SFP

C.

SFP+

D.

X2

E.

XFP

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Question # 11

What happens to Ethernet frames that enter a switch with MAC learning disabled on all interfaces?

A.

AII incoming frames will be dropped.

B.

AII incoming frames will be flooded.

C.

Unicast frames will be dropped; multicast and broadcast frames will be flooded.

D.

Multicast and broadcast frames will be dropped; unicast frames will be flooded.

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Question # 12

On Brocade FastIron, TurboIron, and NetIron platforms, which command saves the running configuration to the flash's startup configuration?

A.

write memory

B.

copy running-config startup-config

C.

config commit

D.

config save

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Question # 13

You want to classify and mark traffic at the edge of your network before it is sent to the core and routed where Layer 3 QoS is trusted and enabled. Which type of marking should you configure to ensure your application traffic is serviced correctly in the core of your network?

A.

Mark the 802.lp field according to application priority

B.

Mark the PCP field according to application priority

C.

Mark the EXP field according to application priority

D.

Mark the DSCP field according to application priority

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Question # 14

During the discovery process, to which registered multicast IP address does OSPF send a hello packet?

A.

224.0.0.5

B.

224.0.0.100

C.

224.0.0.2

D.

224.0.0.6

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Question # 15

What is the default implicit behavior at the end of an ACL?

A.

log

B.

permit any

C.

deny any

D.

remark

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Question # 16

On a Brocade MLXe device, which three conditions must be met for a LAG to form? (Choose three.)

A.

AII ports configured in a LAG are of equal bandwidth.

B.

Ports must have different untagged VLANs.

C.

A LAG must have the primary port selected before it can be deployed.

D.

AII ports configured in a LAG must reside in the same VLANs.

E.

LACP forwarding must be disabled on the primary port and enabled on one or more of the secondary ports.

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Question # 17

Referring to the exhibit,

#show lag

Total number of LAGs: 1

Total number of deployed LAGs: 0

Total number of trunks created:0 (128 available)

LACP System Priority / ID: 1 / 0024.3891.4f00

LACP Long timeout: 90, default: 90

LACP Short timeout: 3, default: 3

=== LAG "30Gig_Trunk" ID 1 (dynamic Not Deployed) ===

LAG Configuration:

Ports: e 1/3 e 1/5 e 1/7

Port Count: 3

Primary Port: 1/3

Trunk Type: hash-based

LACP Key: 100

150-130 question answer

Which command must be entered to make the LAG function on a

Brocade NetIron MLXe?

A.

deploy

B.

enable

C.

forward-Iacp

D.

Iacp-cfg-det-dis

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Question # 18

You have a LAG configured and are having problems with the logical interface coming online.

What would cause this?

A.

One end of the LAG is a Brocade FastIron stack.

B.

The LAG members are made up of 1 Gbps and 10 Gbps ports.

C.

The LAG includes members that are not consecutive (ports 1, 2, and 4).

D.

AII members of the LAG are configured as static.

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Question # 19

When is an OSPF virtual link used?

A.

When an area has no direct connection to the backbone area.

B.

When an area needs access to an ASBR.

C.

When an area is configured as a stub area.

D.

When an area needs to connect to a non-backbone area.

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Question # 20

Which three statements are true about RIPv2 and OSPF? (Choose three.)

A.

RIPv2 is a distance vector and OSPF is a link state protocol.

B.

OSPF supports VLSM and RIPv2 does not.

C.

RIPv2 and OSPF support MD5 authentication.

D.

RIPv2 advertises its entire routing table and OSPF sends only updates.

E.

RIPv2 and OSPF use neighbor statements to configure peers.

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Question # 21

When 802.lp priority override is enabled on the primary port of a trunk group, which other ports of the trunk group will be affected?

A.

all ports except the primary trunk port

B.

some of the trunk ports

C.

only the primary port of the trunk group

D.

all ports of the trunk group

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Question # 22

Which two statements about ingress extended ACLs are correct? (Choose two.)

A.

They use extended ACL IDs 200 - 299.

B.

They save network resources by reducing traffic.

C.

They eliminate denial of service (DoS) attacks.

D.

They block unwanted traffic or users.

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Question # 23

What are two Brocade products that are designed for use in a service provider network? (Choose two.)

A.

BrocadeFastIronSX

B.

Brocade MLXe

C.

BrocadeNetIronCER 2000

D.

Brocade FCX

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Question # 24

You are implementing an OSPF network with five defined areas. You want to configure OSPF area route sharing to other specified OSPF areas.

Which router will you need to configure to share area routes with other area routes?

A.

ABR router

B.

BDR router

C.

DR router

D.

BGP router

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Question # 25

Which three statements are true when configuring virtual routing interfaces? (Choose three.)

A.

A single virtual interface can be used to route traffic between all VLANs within the same switch.

B.

Each VLAN on a switch requires its own virtual interface.

C.

A virtual interface can be a member of multiple VLANs.

D.

A virtual interface can have multiple IP addresses.

E.

Hosts in a VLAN can use the IP address of the virtual interface as their default gateway.

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Question # 26

What is the numeric range for standard ACL IDs?

A.

0 - 99

B.

0 -100

C.

1-99

D.

1-100

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Question # 27

In which stage is an OSPF neighbor adjacency complete?

A.

loading

B.

exchange

C.

two-way

D.

full

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Question # 28

OU need to improve redundancy in your LAN as well as increase bandwidth between switches using a Layer 2 protocol.

Which feature will provide this?

A.

LLDP

B.

LACP

C.

VRRP

D.

SSTP

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Question # 29

You have to implement a security protocol that encrypts all traffic between the Brocade device and the authentication server.

Which security protocol would you use to support this requirement?

A.

TACACS+

B.

TACACS

C.

RADIUS

D.

AAA

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Question # 30

What does the command copy flash tftp 192.168.13.37 FGSR07001.bin secondary do?

A.

It copies the code contained in the secondary flash partition to a TFTP server located at 192.168.13.37.

B.

It copies the configuration contained in the secondary flash partition to a TFTP server located at 192.168.13.37.

C.

It copies the code contained on a TFTP server located at 192.168.13.37 to the secondary flash partition.

D.

It copies the configuration contained on a TFTP server located at 192.168.13.37 to the secondary flash partition.

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Question # 31

Given the following configuration:

Brocade(config)# aaa authentication enable default radius tacacs telnet local

What is the primary authentication method being used for Privileged EXEC mode and CONFIG level access?

A.

local

B.

telnet

C.

TACACS

D.

RADIUS

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Question # 32

What are two valid BPDU types in Spanning Tree 802.1D? (Choose two.)

A.

Configuration BPDU

B.

Root Override BPDU

C.

Failure Notification BPDU

D.

Topology Change Notification BPDU

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Question # 33

A customer wants to use a cable that provides maximum EMI protection. Which type of cable should be used?

A.

UTP

B.

STP

C.

CAT3

D.

copper

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