CIC Practice Exam Questions with Answers CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Certification

Documentation of each steam sterilization cycle is a regulatory and quality requirement. It must includeload contents, thesterilizer ID,date,cycle number, and theperson who assembled the load. These details support traceability and quality assurance.

TheAPIC Textstates:

“Each item or package should be labeled with a lot-control identifier that includes the sterilizer identification number or code, a detailed list of the contents, an identifier for the person who assembled the package, the date of sterilization, the cycle number...”

Other options like themachine model numberordate sterilizer was cleanedare not routine documentation elements for every cycle.

Ahigh-risk patient focusmaximizes benefits while minimizing resource usein infection surveillance.

Step-by-Step Justification:

Efficiency of High-Risk Surveillance:

TargetingICU, immunocompromised patients, or surgical unitshelps detect infectionswhere the risk is highest, leading toearlier interventions?.

Resource Allocation:

Full hospital-wide surveillanceis resource-intensive; focusing onhigh-risk groupsis more efficient.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Antibiotic monitoring:

Important for stewardship, butnot the primary focus of infection surveillance.

C. Prevalence surveys:

Snapshot data only; doesnot provide ongoing monitoring.

D. Nursing care plan review:

Less direct in identifying infection trends.

CBIC Infection Control References:

APIC Text, "Surveillance Strategies for Infection Prevention"?.

When reviewing the discussion section of an original article, an infection preventionist must focus on critically evaluating the interpretation of the study findings, their relevance to infection control, and their implications for practice. The discussion section typically addresses the meaning of the results, compares them to existing literature, and considers limitations or alternative interpretations. The appropriate question should align with the purpose of this section and reflect the infection preventionist's need to assess the validity and applicability of the research. Let’s analyze each option:

A. Was the correct sample size and analysis method chosen?: This question pertains to the methodology section of a research article, where the study design, sample size, and statistical methods are detailed. While these elements are critical for assessing the study's rigor, they are not the primary focus of the discussion section, which interprets results rather than re-evaluating the study design. An infection preventionist might ask this during a review of the methods section, but it is less relevant here.

B. Could alternative explanations account for the observed results?: The discussion section often explores whether the findings can be explained by factors other than the hypothesized cause, such as confounding variables, bias, or chance. This question is highly appropriate foran infection preventionist, as it encourages a critical assessment of whether the results truly support infection control interventions or if other factors (e.g., environmental conditions, patient factors) might be responsible. This aligns with CBIC's emphasis on evidence-based practice, where understanding the robustness of conclusions is key to applying research to infection prevention strategies.

C. Is the study question important, appropriate, and stated clearly?: This question relates to the introduction or background section of an article, where the research question and its significance are established. While important for overall study evaluation, it is not specific to the discussion section, which focuses on interpreting results rather than revisiting the initial question. An infection preventionist might consider this earlier in the review process, but it does not fit the context of the discussion section.

D. Are criteria used to measure the exposure and the outcome explicit?: This question is relevant to the methods section, where the definitions and measurement tools for exposures (e.g., a specific intervention) and outcomes (e.g., infection rates) are described. The discussion section may reference these criteria but focuses more on their implications rather than their clarity. This makes it less appropriate for the discussion section specifically.

The discussion section is where authors synthesize their findings, address limitations, and consider alternative explanations, making option B the most fitting. For an infection preventionist, evaluating alternative explanations is crucial to ensure that recommended practices (e.g., hand hygiene protocols or sterilization techniques) are based on solid evidence and not confounded by unaddressed variables. This critical thinking is consistent with CBIC's focus on applying research to improve infection control outcomes.

In aretrospective case-control study, cases and controls are selected based on disease status. The case group is composed of individuals whohave the disease(cases), while the control group consists of individualswithout the disease. This design allows researchers to look back in time to assess exposure to potential risk factors.

Step-by-Step Justification:

Selection of Cases and Controls:

Cases: Individuals who already have the disease.

Controls: Individuals without the disease but similar in other aspects.

Direction of Study:

A retrospective study movesbackwardfrom the disease outcome to investigate potential causes or risk factors?.

Data Collection:

Uses past medical records, interviews, and laboratory results to determine past exposures.

Common Use:

Useful for studyingrare diseasessince cases have already occurred, making it cost-effective compared to cohort studies.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. without the disease:(Incorrect) This describes the control group, not the case group.

C. with the risk factor under investigation:(Incorrect) Risk factors are identified after selecting cases and controls.

D. without the risk factor under investigation:(Incorrect) The study investigates whether cases had prior exposure, not whether they lacked a risk factor.

CBIC Infection Control References:

APIC Text, Chapter on Epidemiologic Study Design?.

The scenario involves a febrile neonate in an intensive care unit (ICU) with three out of four blood cultures growing coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNS) over the past week. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes accurate interpretation of microbiological data in the "Identification of Infectious Disease Processes" domain, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for healthcare-associated infections. Determining whether this represents a true infection, contamination, colonization, or laboratory error requires evaluating the clinical and microbiological context.

Option B, "Contamination," is the most likely indication. Coagulase-negative staphylococci, such as Staphylococcus epidermidis, are common skin flora and frequent contaminants in blood cultures, especially in neonates where skin preparation or sampling technique may be challenging. The CDC’s "Guidelines for the Prevention of Intravascular Catheter-Related Infections" (2017) and the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) note that multiple positive cultures (e.g., two ormore) are typically required to confirm true bacteremia, particularly with CoNS, unless accompanied by clear clinical signs of infection (e.g., worsening fever, hemodynamic instability) and no other explanation. The inconsistency (three out of four cultures) and the neonate’s ICU setting—where contamination from skin or catheter hubs is common—suggest that the positive cultures likely result from contamination during blood draw rather than true infection. Studies, such as those in the Journal of Clinical Microbiology (e.g., Beekmann et al., 2005), indicate that CoNS in blood cultures is contaminated in 70-80% of cases when not supported by robust clinical correlation.

Option A, "Laboratory error," is possible but less likely as the primary explanation. Laboratory errors (e.g., mislabeling or processing mistakes) could occur, but the repeated growth in three of four cultures suggests a consistent finding rather than a random error, making contamination a more plausible cause. Option C, "Colonization," refers to the presence of microorganisms on or in the body without invasion or immune response. While CoNS can colonize the skin or catheter sites, colonization does not typically result in positive blood cultures unless there is an invasive process, which is not supported by the data here. Option D, "Infection," is the least likely without additional evidence. True CoNS bloodstream infections (e.g., catheter-related) in neonates are serious but require consistent positive cultures, clinical deterioration (e.g., persistent fever, leukocytosis), and often imaging or catheter removal confirmation. The febrile state alone, with inconsistent culture results, does not meet the CDC’s criteria for diagnosing infection (e.g., at least two positive cultures from separate draws).

The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines stress differentiating contamination from infection to avoid unnecessary treatment, which can drive antibiotic resistance. Given the high likelihood of contamination with CoNS in this context, Option B is the most accurate answer.

Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)-associated bloodstream infections (BSIs) are a significant concern in healthcare settings, and identifying factors contributing to their increase is critical for infection prevention. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the "Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation" and "Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domains, which align with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for preventing intravascular catheter-related infections. The question asks for the intervention most likely to have contributed to the rise in PICC-associated BSIs over four months, requiring an evaluation of each option based on evidence-based practices.

Option C, "Replacement of the intravenous administration sets every 72 hours," is the most likely contributor to the increase. The CDC’s "Guidelines for the Prevention of Intravascular Catheter-Related Infections" (2017) recommend that intravenous administration sets (e.g., tubing for fluids or medications) be replaced no more frequently than every 72-96 hours unless clinically indicated (e.g., contamination or specific therapy requirements). Frequent replacement, such as every 72 hours as a routine practice, can introduce opportunities for contamination during the change process, especially if aseptic technique is not strictly followed. Studies cited in the CDC guidelines, including those by O’Grady et al. (2011), indicate that unnecessary manipulation of catheter systems increases the risk of introducing pathogens, potentially leading to BSIs. A change to a 72-hour replacement schedule, if not previously standard, could explain the observed increase over the past four months.

Option A, "Use of chlorhexidine skin antisepsis during insertion of the PICC," is a recommended practice to reduce BSIs. Chlorhexidine, particularly in a 2% chlorhexidine gluconate with 70% alcohol solution, is the preferred skin antiseptic for catheter insertion due to its broad-spectrum activity and residual effect, as supported by the CDC (2017). This intervention should decrease, not increase, infection rates, making it an unlikely contributor. Option B, "Daily bathing adult intensive care unit patients with chlorhexidine," is another evidence-based strategy to reduce healthcare-associated infections, including BSIs, by decolonizing the skin of pathogens like Staphylococcus aureus. The CDC and SHEA (Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America) guidelines (2014) endorse chlorhexidine bathing in intensive care units, suggesting it should lower, not raise, BSI rates. Option D, "Use of a positive pressure device on the PICC," aims to prevent catheter occlusion and reduce the need for frequent flushing, which could theoretically decrease infection risk by minimizing manipulation. However, there is no strong evidence linking positive pressure devices to increased BSIs; if improperly used or maintained, they might contribute marginally, but this is less likely than the impact of frequent tubing changes.

The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines highlight that deviations from optimal catheter maintenance practices, such as overly frequent administration set replacements, can increase infection risk. Given the four-month timeframe and the focus on an intervention’s potential negative impact, Option C stands out as the most plausible contributor due to the increased manipulation and contamination risk associated with routine 72-hour replacements.

Benchmarkingcompares infection rates across healthcare facilities.For accurate benchmarking, case definitions must be standardized and adjusted for patient demographics, severity of illness, and other risk factors.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. Data collectors are trained on how to collect data–Training is necessary, but it does notdirectly ensure comparabilitybetween facilities.

B. Collecting data on a small population–A larger sample sizeincreasesaccuracy and reliabilityin benchmarking.

C. Denominator rates selected based on an organizational risk assessment– Risk assessment is important, butstandardized case definitionsare critical for comparison.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

According to APIC,accurate benchmarking relies on using standardized case definitions that account for differences in patient populations?.

Measures of central tendency (mean, median, mode) and dispersion (standard deviation) are statistical tools used to summarize data, such as the duration of surgical procedures, which can help infection preventionists identify trends or risks for surgical site infections. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) supports the use of data analysis in the "Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation" domain, aligning with epidemiological principles outlined by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). The question provides a data set of 2, 2, 3, 4, and 9, and requires determining the correct statement by calculating these measures.

Mean: The mean is the average of the data set, calculated by summing all values and dividing by the number of observations. For the data set 2, 2, 3, 4, and 9:(2 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 9) ÷ 5 = 20 ÷ 5 = 4. Thus, the mean is 4, making Option C correct.

Median: The median is the middle value when the data set is ordered. With five values (2, 2, 3, 4, 9), the middle value is the third number, which is 3. Option A states the median is 2, which is incorrect.

Mode: The mode is the most frequently occurring value. In this data set, 2 appears twice, while 3, 4, and 9 appear once each, making 2 the mode. Option B states the mode is 3, which is incorrect.

Standard Deviation: The standard deviation measures the spread of data around the mean. For a small data set like this, the calculation involves finding the variance (average of squared differences from the mean) and taking the square root. The mean is 4, so the deviations are: (2-4)² = 4, (2-4)² = 4, (3-4)² = 1, (4-4)² = 0, (9-4)² = 25. The sum of squared deviations is 4 + 4 + 1 + 0 + 25 = 34. The variance is 34 ÷ 5 = 6.8, and the standard deviation is ?6.8 ? 2.61 (not 7). Option D states the standard deviation is 7, which is incorrect without further context (e.g., a population standard deviation with n-1 denominator would be ?34 ? 5.83, still not 7).

The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines encourage accurate statistical analysis to inform infection control decisions, such as assessing surgical duration as a risk factor for infections. Based on the calculations, the mean of 4 is the only correct statement among the options, confirming Option C as the answer. Note that the standard deviation of 7 might reflect a miscalculation or misinterpretation (e.g., using a different formula or data set), but with the given data, it does not hold.

The scenario describes an outbreak of Aspergillus infections among three patients on an oncology unit following recent renovations, with the infections suspected to be facility-acquired. Aspergillus is a mold commonly associated with environmental sources, particularly airborne spores, and its presence in immunocompromised patients (e.g., oncology patients) poses a significant risk. The infection preventionist must identify the appropriate environmental microbiological monitoring strategy, guided by the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) and CDC recommendations. Let’s evaluate each option:

A. Air: Aspergillus species are ubiquitous molds that thrive in soil, decaying vegetation, and construction dust, and they are primarily transmitted via airborne spores. Renovations can disturb these spores, leading to aerosolization and inhalation by vulnerable patients. Culturing the air using methods such as settle plates, air samplers, or high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filtration monitoring is a standard practice to detect Aspergillusduring construction or post-renovation in healthcare settings, especially oncology units where patients are at high risk for invasive aspergillosis. This aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on environmental monitoring for airborne pathogens, making it the most appropriate choice.

B. Ice: Ice can be a source of contamination with bacteria (e.g., Pseudomonas, Legionella) or other pathogens if improperly handled or stored, but it is not a typical reservoir for Aspergillus, which is a mold requiring organic material and moisture for growth. While ice safety is important in infection control, culturing ice is irrelevant to an Aspergillus outbreak linked to renovations and is not a priority in this context.

C. Carpet: Carpets can harbor dust, mold, and other microorganisms, especially in high-traffic or poorly maintained areas. Aspergillus spores could theoretically settle in carpet during renovations, but carpets are not a primary source of airborne transmission unless disturbed (e.g., vacuuming). Culturing carpet might be a secondary step if air sampling indicates widespread contamination, but it is less direct and less commonly recommended as the initial monitoring site compared to air sampling.

D. Aerators: Aerators (e.g., faucet aerators) can harbor waterborne pathogens like Pseudomonas or Legionella due to biofilm formation, but Aspergillus is not typically associated with water systems unless there is significant organic contamination or aerosolization from water sources (e.g., cooling towers). Culturing aerators is relevant for waterborne outbreaks, not for an Aspergillus outbreak linked to renovations, making this option inappropriate.

The best answer is A, culturing the air, as Aspergillus is an airborne pathogen, and renovations are a known risk factor for spore dispersal in healthcare settings. This monitoring strategy allows the infection preventionist to confirm the source, assess the extent of contamination, and implement control measures (e.g., enhanced filtration, construction barriers) to protect patients. This is consistent with CBIC and CDC guidelines for managing fungal outbreaks in high-risk units.

The correct answer is B, "1 and 4 only," indicating that the information can best be used to heighten awareness among Emergency Department (ED) staff and review the TB exposure control plan. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, tuberculosis (TB) remains a significant public health concern, particularly with the increasing proportion of cases among foreign-born persons in the United States. The data showing a rise from four to 22 states with over 50% of TB cases among foreign-born individuals highlights an evolving epidemiological trend that warrants targeted infection prevention strategies (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.1 - Conduct surveillance for healthcare-associated infections and epidemiologically significant organisms).

Heightening awareness among ED staff (option 1) is critical because the ED is often the first point of contact for patients with undiagnosed or active TB, especially those from high-prevalence regions. Increased awareness can improve early identification, isolation, and reporting of potential cases. Reviewing the TB exposure control plan (option 4) is equally important, as it allows the infection preventionist to assess and update protocols—such as ventilation, personal protective equipment (PPE) use, and screening processes—to address the heightened risk posed by the growing number of cases among foreign-born individuals (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents).

Option 2 (inform staff who are foreign-born) is not the best use of this data, as the information pertains to patient demographics rather than staff risk, and targeting staff based on their origin could be inappropriate without specific exposure evidence. Option 3 (educate patients and visitors) is a general education strategy but less directly actionable with this specific epidemiological data, which is more relevant to healthcare worker preparedness and facility protocols. Combining options 1 and 4 aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on using surveillance data to guide prevention and control measures, ensuring a proactive response to the increased TB burden (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies).

Pregnant healthcare workerswho are not immune to varicella (chickenpox)are atincreased risk for severe complicationsif infected. These employees should be excluded from areas like pediatrics where exposure risk is elevated.

TheAPIC Textspecifies:

“Healthcare personnel who are not immune to varicella should avoid exposure to patients with active disease. In high-risk areas such as pediatrics, nonimmune pregnant employees should be reassigned”.

TheCIC Study Guidealso supports work exclusion or reassignment of nonimmune pregnant staff who have had exposure to varicella or are at risk.

Explanation of incorrect options:

A. Pregnant employees rarely require reassignment– False; reassignment is required in specific high-risk scenarios.

B. Hepatitis B surface antibody positivitymeans the employee is immune and can care for HBV patients.

C. Broad exclusion from all infected patientsis unnecessary and impractical.

The correct answer is C, "Reviewing principles of adult learning," as this activity will best prepare a newly hired infection preventionist to present information at the facility’s orientation program. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, effective education delivery, especially for healthcare professionals during orientation, relies on understanding adult learning principles (e.g., andragogy), which emphasize learner-centered approaches, relevance to practice, and active participation. Reviewing these principles equips the infection preventionist (IP) to design and deliver content that addresses the specific needs, experiences, and motivations of the audience—such as new staff learning infection control protocols—enhancing engagement and retention (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain IV: Education and Research, Competency 4.1 - Develop and implement educational programs). This preparation ensures the presentation is tailored, impactful, and aligned with the goal of promoting infection prevention behaviors.

Option A (observing other departments’ orientation presentations) can provide insights into presentation styles or facility norms, but it is less focused on the IP’s specific educational role and may not address the unique content of infection prevention. Option B (meeting with the facility’s leadership) is valuable for understanding organizational priorities and gaining support, but it is more about collaboration and context-setting rather than direct preparation for presenting educational material. Option D (administering tuberculin skin tests to orientees) is a clinical task related to TB screening, not a preparatory activity for designing or delivering an educational presentation.

The focus on reviewing adult learning principles aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on evidence-based education strategies to improve infection control practices among healthcare personnel (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain IV: Education and Research, Competency 4.2 - Evaluate the effectiveness of educational programs). This approach enables the IP to effectively communicate critical information, such as hand hygiene or isolation protocols, during the orientation program.

The correct answer is D, "Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B vaccine," as this is the recommended regimen for an HBsAb-negative employee with a percutaneous exposure to blood from an HBsAg-positive patient. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for hepatitis B virus (HBV) exposure depends on the employee’s vaccination status and the source’s HBsAg status. For an unvaccinated or known HBsAb-negative individual (indicating no immunity) exposed to HBsAg-positive blood, the standard PEP includes both HBIG and the hepatitis B vaccine. HBIG provides immediate passive immunity by delivering pre-formed antibodies, while the vaccine initiates active immunity to prevent future infections (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). The HBIG should be administered within 24 hours of exposure (preferably within 7 days), and the first dose of the vaccine should be given concurrently, followed by the complete vaccine series.

Option A (immune serum globulin and hepatitis B vaccine) is incorrect because immune serum globulin (ISG) is a general immunoglobulin preparation and not specific for HBV; HBIG, which contains high titers of anti-HBs, is the appropriate specific immunoglobulin for HBV exposure. Option B (hepatitis B immune globulin [HBIG] alone) is insufficient, as it provides only temporary passive immunity without initiating long-term active immunity through vaccination, which is critical for an unvaccinated individual. Option C (hepatitis B vaccine alone) is inadequate for immediate post-exposure protection, as it takes weeks to develop immunity, leaving the employee vulnerable in the interim.

The recommendation for HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on evidence-based post-exposure management to prevent HBV transmission in healthcare settings (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This dual approach is supported by CDC guidelines, which prioritize rapid intervention to reduce the risk of seroconversion following percutaneous exposure (CDC Updated U.S. Public Health Service Guidelines for the Management ofOccupational Exposures to HBV, HCV, and HIV, 2013).

The correct answer is B, "Pre-cleaning, leak testing, and manual cleaning," as these processes are essential for endoscope reprocessing. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, proper reprocessing of endoscopes is critical to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs), given their complex design and susceptibility to microbial contamination. The initial steps of pre-cleaning (removing gross debris at the point of use), leak testing (ensuring the endoscope’s integrity to prevent fluid ingress), and manual cleaning (using enzymatic detergents to remove organic material) are foundational to the reprocessing cycle. These steps prepare the endoscope for high-level disinfection or sterilization by reducing bioburden and preventing damage, as outlined in standards such as AAMI ST91 (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022,Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.3 - Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment). Failure at this stage can compromise subsequent disinfection, making it a non-negotiable component of the process.

Option A (intermediate level disinfection and contact time) is an important step but insufficient alone, as intermediate-level disinfection does not achieve the high-level disinfection required for semi-critical devices like endoscopes, which must eliminate all microorganisms except high levels of bacterial spores. Option C (inspection using a borescope and horizontal storage) includes valuable quality control (inspection) and storage practices, but these occur later in the process and are not essential initial steps; vertical storage is often preferred to prevent damage. Option D (leak testing, manual cleaning, and low level disinfection) includes two essential steps (leak testing and manual cleaning) but is inadequate because low-level disinfection does not meet the standard for endoscopes, which require high-level disinfection or sterilization.

The emphasis on pre-cleaning, leak testing, and manual cleaning aligns with CBIC’s focus on adhering to evidence-based reprocessing protocols to ensure patient safety and prevent HAIs (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.4 - Implement environmental cleaning and disinfection protocols). These steps are mandated by guidelines to mitigate risks associated with endoscope use in healthcare settings.

HIV patients require Airborne Precautions if they have tuberculosis (TB).Acavitary lesion in the upper lobeishighly suggestive of active pulmonary TB, which requiresAirborne Precautionsdue toaerosolized transmission.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. 24-year-old male newly diagnosed with a CD4 count of 70–Low CD4 count alone does not warrant Airborne Precautionsunless there isactive TB or another airborne pathogen.

B. 28-year-old female with Mycobacterium avium in sputum–Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) is not airborne, and standard precautions are sufficient.

C. 36-year-old male with cryptococcal meningitis–Cryptococcus neoformans is not transmitted via the airborne route, so Airborne Precautions are unnecessary.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

Patients withHIV and suspected TB require Airborne Precautionsuntil TB is ruled out?.

The correct answer is B, "Repeated observations of staff will be required in order to demonstrate that the program has been effective," as this statement is true regarding the assessment of the effectiveness of the education program. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, evaluating the impact of an education program on hand-hygiene compliance in a long-term care facility requires ongoing monitoring to assess sustained behavior change. Repeated observations provide direct evidence of staff adherence to hand-hygiene protocols over time, allowing the infection preventionist (IP) to measure the program’s effectiveness beyond initial training (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain IV: Education and Research, Competency 4.2 - Evaluate the effectiveness of educational programs). This method aligns with the World Health Organization (WHO) and CDC recommendations for hand-hygiene improvement, which emphasize continuous auditing to ensure lasting improvements in compliance rates.

Option A (a summative evaluation will accurately reflect the extent to which participants will change their hand-hygiene practices) is incorrect because a summative evaluation, typically conducted at the end of a program, assesses overall outcomes but does not predict future behavior changes or account for long-term compliance, which is critical in this context. Option C (a change between pre- and post-test scores correlates well with the expected change in hand-hygiene compliance) is misleading; while pre- and post-tests can measure knowledge gain, they do not reliably correlate with actual practice changes, as knowledge does not always translate to behavior without observation. Option D (an evaluation of the program is not required if the program is mandatory) is false, as mandatory programs still require evaluation to verify effectiveness, especially when addressing low compliance, per CBIC and quality improvement standards.

The focus on repeated observations aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on data-driven assessment to improve infection prevention practices, ensuring that the education program leads to sustained hand-hygiene improvements and reduces healthcare-associated infections (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.4 - Evaluate the effectiveness of infection prevention and control interventions).

Nurse-driven catheter removal protocols have been shown to significantly reduce CAUTI rates by minimizing unnecessary catheter use?.

Routine urine cultures (A) lead to overtreatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria.

Condom catheters (C) are helpful in certain cases but are not universally effective.

Antibiotic-coated catheters (D) have mixed evidence regarding their effectiveness?.

CBIC Infection Control References:

APIC Text, "CAUTI Prevention Strategies," Chapter 10?.

Surveillance is a critical tool in infection prevention and control, used to monitor disease trends and guide public health responses. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the "Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation" domain, which aligns withthe Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) "Principles of Epidemiology in Public Health Practice" (3rd Edition, 2012). The question describes a process of collecting and analyzing indicators to signal an increase in community illness, requiring identification of the appropriate surveillance type among the options provided.

Option C, "Syndromic," is the correct answer. Syndromic surveillance involves monitoring non-specific health indicators or symptoms (e.g., fever, respiratory complaints, or gastrointestinal issues) that may precede a formal diagnosis, aiming to detect potential outbreaks or increases in community illness early. The CDC defines syndromic surveillance as the real-time or near-real-time collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data to provide actionable information, often in collaboration with public health agencies. This approach uses data from sources like emergency department visits, over-the-counter medication sales, or absenteeism reports to identify trends before laboratory confirmation, making it well-suited to the described scenario of signaling community illness increases.

Option A, "Passive," involves healthcare providers or laboratories reporting cases to public health authorities on a voluntary or mandatory basis without active prompting (e.g., routine notifiable disease reporting). While passive surveillance contributes to baseline data, it is less proactive and not specifically designed to signal early increases in illness, making it less fitting. Option B, "Active," entails public health officials actively seeking data from healthcare facilities or providers (e.g., calling to confirm cases during an outbreak). This is more resource-intensive and typically used for specific investigations rather than ongoing community trend monitoring, which aligns better with syndromic methods. Option D, "Targeted," refers to surveillance focused on a specific population, disease, or event (e.g., monitoring TB in a high-risk group). The scenario’s broad focus on community illness indicators does not suggest a targeted approach.

The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines highlight syndromic surveillance as a key strategy for early detection of community-wide health threats, often involving collaboration with public health agencies. Option C best matches the described activity of analyzing indicators to signal illness increases, making it the correct choice.

Theoptimal specimen for identifying the etiologic agentin a prosthetic joint infection (PJI) is ajoint aspirate(synovial fluid). This is because:

It provides direct access to the infected sitewithout contamination from external sources.

It allows for accurate microbiologic culture, Gram stain, and leukocyte count analysis.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. Blood– Blood cultures may help detecthematogenous spreadbut are not the best sample for identifyinglocalizedprosthetic joint infections.

B. Wound drainage– Wound cultures oftencontain contaminantsfrom surrounding skin flora and do not accurately reflect joint space infection.

D. Sinus tract tissue– Cultures from sinus tracts often representcolonization rather than the primary infecting organism.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

APIC guidelines confirm thatjoint aspirate is the most reliable specimen for diagnosing prosthetic joint infections?.

Measles is ahighly contagious airborne disease, and thebest immediate actionin an outpatient clinicwithout an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR)is tomask the patient and isolate them in a private room with the door closed.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. Patient should be sent home– While home isolation may be necessary,sending the patient home without proper precautions increases exposure risk.

B. Staff should don a respirator, gown, and face shield– WhileN95 respiratorsare necessary for staff,this does not address patient containment.

C. Patient should be offered the MMR vaccine– Thevaccine does not treat active measles infectionand should be givenonly as post-exposure prophylaxisto susceptible contacts.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

Measles cases in outpatient settings require immediate airborne precautionsto prevent transmission?.

ForSarcoptes scabiei(scabies),Contact Precautionsshould remainin place until 24 hours after effective treatment has been completed. The first-line treatment is5% permethrin cream, which is applied to the entire body and left on for8–14 hoursbefore being washed off.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. When the treatment cream is applied– Themite is still presentand infectiousuntil treatment has fully taken effect.

B. When the bed linen is changed–While changing linens is necessary, it doesnot indicate that the infestation has cleared.

D. 24 hours after the second treatment– Mostcases require only one treatmentwith permethrin, though severe cases may need a second dose after a week.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

According toAPIC guidelines,Contact Precautions can be discontinued 24 hours after effective treatmenthas been administered?.

The correct answer is B, "They are due for a booster as it has been over 7 years," as this is the appropriate recommendation for the healthcare professional regarding their meningococcal vaccination. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), healthcare professionals with routine exposure to Neisseria meningitidis, such as those in clinical microbiology laboratories, are at increased risk of meningococcal disease due to potential aerosol or droplet exposure during culture handling. The quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MenACWY) is recommended for such individuals, with a primary series (one dose for those previously vaccinated or two doses 2 months apart for unvaccinated individuals) and a booster dose every 5 years if the risk persists (CDC Meningococcal Vaccination Guidelines, 2021). However, for laboratory workers with ongoing exposure, the ACIP specifies a booster interval of every 5 years from the last dose, but this is often interpreted in practice as aligning with the 5-7 year range depending on risk assessment and institutional policy. Since the healthcare professional received the vaccine 8 years ago and works in a high-risk setting, a booster is due, with the 7-year threshold being a practical midpoint for this scenario (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents).

Option A (they are due for a booster as it has been over 5 years) is close but slightly premature based on the 8-year interval, though it reflects the general 5-year booster guideline for high-risk groups; the 7-year option better matches the specific timeframe. Option C (they are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; boosters are not required) is incorrect because ongoing exposure necessitates regular boosters, unlike the general population where a single dose may suffice after adolescence. Option D (they are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; a booster is needed every 10 years) applies to the general adult population without ongoing risk (e.g., post-adolescence vaccination), not to laboratory workers with continuous exposure, where the interval is shorter.

The recommendation for a booster aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on protecting healthcare personnel from occupational exposure to communicable diseases, ensuring compliance with evidence-based immunization practices (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This supports the prevention of meningococcal disease outbreaks in healthcare settings.

Thegold standard specimenfor diagnosingpertussis (Bordetella pertussis infection)is anasopharyngeal culturebecause:

B. pertussis colonizes the nasopharynx, making it the best site for detection.

Aproperly collected nasopharyngeal swab or aspirateincreases diagnostic sensitivity.

This method is recommended forculture, PCR, or direct fluorescent antibody testing.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. Cough plate– Not commonly used due tolow sensitivity.

B. Nares culture– Thenares are not a primary sitefor pertussis colonization.

C. Sputum culture–B. pertussis does not commonly infect the lower respiratory tract.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

APIC confirms thatnasopharyngeal culture is the preferred method for diagnosing pertussis?.

In an outbreak investigation,the first critical stepis tonotify facility administrationand other key stakeholders.This ensures the rapid mobilization of resources, coordination with infection control teams, and compliance with regulatory reporting requirements.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. Conduct environmental cultures– Whileenvironmental sampling may be necessary, it isnot the first step. The outbreak must first be confirmed and administration alerted.

B. Plan to prevent future outbreaks–Prevention planning happens laterafter the outbreak has been investigated and controlled.

D. Perform analytical studies–Data analysis occurs after case definition and initial response measures are in place.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

APIC guidelines state thatthe first step in an outbreak investigation is confirming the outbreak and notifying key stakeholders?.

To determinewhich surgeon has the highest surgical site infection (SSI) rate, use the following formula:

A screenshot of a report AI-generated content may be incorrect.

SinceDr. White has the highest SSI rate at 9.1%, the correct answer isD. White.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

SSI rates are calculated usinginfection count per total proceduresand reported aspercentage values?.

The correct answer is A, "Pregnant persons," as they should be excluded from receiving the live attenuated influenza virus (LAIV) vaccine. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), the LAIV, commonly known as the nasal spray flu vaccine, contains a live attenuated form of the influenza virus. This vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant individuals due to the theoretical risk of the attenuated virus replicating and potentially harming the fetus, despite limited evidence of adverse outcomes (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). Pregnant persons are instead recommended to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV), which is considered safe during pregnancy.

Option B (healthy persons aged 2 to 49) is incorrect because this group is generally eligible to receive LAIV, provided they have no other contraindications, as the vaccine is approved for healthy, non-pregnant individuals in this age range (CDC Immunization Schedules, 2024). Option C (persons with allergies to chicken feathers) is not a contraindication for LAIV; the vaccine isproduced in eggs, and while egg allergy was historically a concern, current guidelines indicate that LAIV can be administered to persons with egg allergies if they can tolerate egg in their diet, with precautions managed by healthcare providers. Option D (persons simultaneously receiving an inactivated vaccine) is also incorrect, as LAIV can be co-administered with inactivated vaccines without issue, according to ACIP recommendations, as there is no significant interference between the two vaccine types.

The exclusion of pregnant persons reflects CBIC’s emphasis on tailoring infection prevention strategies, including vaccination programs, to protect vulnerable populations while minimizing risks (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This decision is based on precautionary principles outlined in CDC and ACIP guidelines to ensure maternal and fetal safety (CDC Prevention and Control of Seasonal Influenza with Vaccines, 2023).

The proper use of chemical disinfectants is a critical aspect of infection control, as outlined by the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC). Chemical disinfectants are used to eliminate or reduce pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects, and their effective application requires adherence to specific protocols to ensure safety and efficacy. Let’s evaluate each option based on infection control standards:

A. All items to be processed must be cleaned prior to being submerged in solution.: This statement is a fundamental principle of disinfectant use. Cleaning (e.g., removing organic material such as blood, tissue, or dirt) is a prerequisite before disinfection because organic matter can inactivate or reduce the effectiveness of chemical disinfectants. The CBIC emphasizes that proper cleaning is the first step in the disinfection process to ensure that disinfectants can reach and kill microorganisms. This step is universally required for all levels of disinfection (low, intermediate, and high), making it a characterizing feature of proper use.

B. The label on the solution being used must indicate that it kills all viable micro-organisms.: This statement is misleading. No disinfectant can be guaranteed to kill 100% ofall viable microorganisms under all conditions, as efficacy depends on factors like contact time, concentration, and the presence of organic material. Disinfectant labels typically indicate the types of microorganisms (e.g., bacteria, viruses, fungi) and the level of disinfection (e.g., high-level, intermediate-level) they are effective against, based on standardized tests (e.g., EPA or FDA guidelines). Claiming that a solution kills all viable microorganisms is unrealistic and not a requirement for proper use; instead, the label must specify the intended use and efficacy, which varies by product.

C. The solution should be adaptable for use as an antiseptic.: An antiseptic is a chemical agent used on living tissue (e.g., skin) to reduce microbial load, whereas a disinfectant is used on inanimate surfaces. While some chemicals (e.g., alcohol) can serve both purposes, this is not a requirement for proper disinfectant use. The adaptability of a solution for antiseptic use is irrelevant to its classification or application as a disinfectant, which focuses on environmental or equipment decontamination. This statement does not characterize proper disinfectant use.

D. A chemical indicator must be used with items undergoing high-level disinfection.: Chemical indicators (e.g., test strips or tapes) are used to verify that the disinfection process has met certain parameters (e.g., concentration or exposure time), particularly in sterilization or high-level disinfection (HLD). While this is a recommended practice for quality assurance in HLD (e.g., with glutaraldehyde or hydrogen peroxide), it is not a universal requirement for all chemical disinfectant use. HLD applies specifically to semi-critical items (e.g., endoscopes), and the need for indicators depends on the protocol and facility standards. This statement is too narrow and specific to characterize the proper use of chemical disinfectants broadly.

The correct answer is A, as cleaning prior to disinfection is a foundational and universally applicable step in the proper use of chemical disinfectants. This aligns with CBIC guidelines, which stress the importance of a clean surface to maximize disinfectant efficacy and prevent infection transmission in healthcare settings.

The correct answer is D, "A device used one time on a patient during a procedure and then discarded," as this accurately describes a single-use medical device. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, a single-use device (SUD), also known as a disposable device, is labeled by the manufacturer for one-time use on a patient and is intended to be discarded afterward to prevent cross-contamination and ensure patient safety. This definition is consistent with regulations from the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), which designate SUDs as devices that should not be reprocessed or reused due to risks of infection, material degradation, or failure to restore sterility (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.3 - Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment). Examples include certain syringes, catheters, and gloves, which are designed for single use to eliminate the risk of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).

Option A (a device which can be used on a single patient) is too vague and could apply to both single-use and reusable devices, as reusable devices are also often used on a single patient per procedure before reprocessing. Option B (a device that is sterilized and can be used again on the same patient) describes a reusable device, not a single-use device, as sterilization and reuse are not permitted for SUDs. Option C (a device used on a patient and reprocessed prior to being used again) refers to a reusable device that undergoes reprocessing (e.g., sterilization), which is explicitly prohibited for SUDs under manufacturer and regulatory guidelines.

The focus on discarding after one use aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on preventing infection through adherence to device labeling and safe reprocessing practices, ensuring that healthcare facilities avoid the risks associated with improper reuse of SUDs (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks). This practice is critical to maintaining a sterile and safe healthcare environment.

The infection preventionist (IP) should start by comparingSSI ratesbetween theacute-care operating roomand thestand-alone surgery center. This direct comparison will help determine if there is a statistically significant difference in infection rates and guide further investigation.

Step-by-Step Justification:

Identify Trends:

Compare SSI ratesbetween the two locationsover a set period to identify patterns?.

Assess Contributing Factors:

Look at factors such aspatient population, antibiotic prophylaxis, surgical techniques, environmental controls, and adherence to infection prevention protocols?.

Validate Surveillance Data:

Ensure thatconsistent SSI surveillance methodologiesare used at both locations to avoid discrepancies?.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Initiate prospective surveillance for SSIs in hysterectomies performed at the stand-alone surgery center:

Prospective surveillance is beneficial butdoes not immediately answer the surgeon’s concernabout existing infections.

B. Compare the most recent post-hysterectomy SSI surveillance data from the surgery center with those of the previous 12 months:

This approach only looks at trends at thesurgery centerwithout comparing it to theacute-care setting.

C. Initiate post-hysterectomy SSI surveillance in hysterectomy patients to verify accuracy of current surveillance methodology:

This step is secondary. Before initiatingnew surveillance, a direct comparison should be made using existing data.

CBIC Infection Control References:

APIC Text, "Surgical Site Infection Surveillance and Prevention Measures"?.

Acomprehensive annual risk assessmentshould focus onfacility-specificfactors, includingpatient population, infection trends, and operational risks.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. System strategic goals and objectives– Whileimportant, goals should alignwith facility-specific infection risks.

B. Cost savings attributed to infection control– Cost considerations aresecondary to risk assessment.

D. Statewide communicable disease and HAI data–Broader epidemiological data is usefulbut should complement, not replace,facility-specificdata.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

APIC emphasizes thatfacility-specific infection data is essential for an effective risk assessment?.

Requiring influenza vaccination as acondition of employmenthas consistently been shown to be the most effective method to increase compliance among healthcare personnel.

TheAPIC/JCR Workbookrecommends this as a gold standard:

"Some organizations have adopted policies requiring annual vaccination as a condition of employment unless medically contraindicated".

CDC and APIC also support this method for maximizing coverage and protecting vulnerable populations.

A patient withpertussis(whooping cough) should remain onDroplet Precautionsto prevent transmission. According toAPIC guidelines, patients with pertussis can be removed from Droplet Precautionsafter completing at least five days of appropriate antimicrobial therapy and showing clinical improvement.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. Direct fluorescent antibody and/or culture are negative– Laboratory results may not always detect pertussis early, and false negatives can occur.

C. The patient has been given pertussis vaccine– The vaccinepreventsbut does not treat pertussis, and it does not shorten the period of contagiousness.

D. The paroxysmal stage has ended– Theparoxysmal stage(severe coughing fits) can last weeks, butinfectiousness decreaseswith antibiotics.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

According toAPICguidelines, Droplet Precautions should continue until the patient has received at leastfive days of antimicrobial therapy?.

Theincidence ratemeasuresnew cases of infection in a population over a defined time periodusing the formula:

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

B. Disease specific– Refers to infectionscaused by a particular pathogen, not the general rate of new infections.

C. Point prevalence– Measuresexisting cases at a specific point in time, not new cases.

D. Period prevalence– Includesboth old and new cases over a set period, unlike incidence, which only considers new cases.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

APIC definesincidence rate as the number of new infections in a population over a given period?.

Maintaining hot water at 140°F (60°C) prevents Legionella growth and is the most effective control strategy?.

Flushing water (A) alone is not sufficient.

Carbon filters (C) do not remove Legionella.

Routine testing (D) is not always necessary unless an outbreak occurs.

CBIC Infection Control References:

APIC Text, "Waterborne Pathogens and Infection Control," Chapter 9?.

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is a type of healthcare-associated pneumonia that occurs in patients receiving mechanical ventilation for more than 48 hours. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes identifying risk factors for VAP in the "Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domain, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for preventing ventilator-associated events. The question requires identifying which factor among the options increases a patient’s risk of developing VAP, based on evidence from clinical and epidemiological data.

Option B, "Nasogastric tube," is the correct answer. The presence of a nasogastric tube is a well-documented risk factor for VAP. This tube can facilitate the aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions or gastric contents into the lower respiratory tract, bypassing natural defense mechanisms like the epiglottis. The CDC’s "Guidelines for Preventing Healthcare-Associated Pneumonia" (2004) and studies in the American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine (e.g., Kollef et al., 2005) highlight that nasogastric tubes increase VAP risk by promoting microaspiration, especially if improperly managed or if the patient has impaired gag reflexes. This mechanical disruption of the airway’s protective barriers is a direct contributor to infection.

Option A, "Hypoxia," refers to low oxygen levels in the blood, which can be a consequence of lung conditions or VAP but is not a primary risk factor for developing it. Hypoxia may indicate underlying respiratory compromise, but it does not directly increase the likelihood of VAP unless associated with other factors (e.g., prolonged ventilation). Option C, "Acute lung disease," is a broad term that could include conditions like acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which may predispose patients to VAP due to prolonged ventilation needs. However, acute lung disease itself is not a specific risk factor; rather, it is the need for mechanical ventilation that elevates risk, making this less direct than the nasogastric tube effect. Option D, "In-line suction," involves a closed-system method for clearing respiratory secretions, which is designed to reduce VAP risk by minimizing contamination during suctioning. The CDC and evidence-based guidelines (e.g., American Thoracic Society, 2016) recommend in-line suction to prevent infection, suggesting it decreases rather than increases VAP risk.

The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines prioritize identifying modifiable risk factors like nasogastric tubes for targeted prevention strategies (e.g., elevating the head of the bed to reduce aspiration). Option B stands out as the factor most consistently linked to increased VAP risk based on clinical evidence.

AnIshikawa diagram (fishbone diagram)is used tovisually represent cause-and-effect relationshipsin problem analysis. It is best for summarizing and categorizing issues found in a gap analysis related to infection prevention.

TheAPIC Textconfirms:

“A fishbone diagram (also called a tree diagram or Ishikawa) allows a team to identify, explore, and graphically display all of the possible causes related to a problem to discover the root cause”.

It’s particularly useful in quality improvement and infection prevention project analysis.

The correct answer is D, "sodium hypochlorite," as it is an effective sporicidal disinfectant for Clostridioides difficile that the infection preventionist (IP) should recommend. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile) is a spore-forming bacterium responsible for significant healthcare-associated infections (HAIs), and its spores are highly resistant to many common disinfectants. Sodium hypochlorite (bleach) is recognized by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) as a sporicidal agent capable of inactivating C. difficile spores when used at appropriate concentrations (e.g., 1:10 dilution of household bleach) and with the recommended contact time (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.4 - Implement environmental cleaning and disinfection protocols). This makes it a preferred choice for environmental disinfection in outbreak settings or areas with known C. difficile contamination.

Option A (quaternary ammonium compound) is effective against many bacteria and viruses but lacks sufficient sporicidal activity against C. difficile spores, rendering it inadequate for this purpose. Option B (phenolic) has broad-spectrum antimicrobial properties but is not reliably sporicidal and is less effective against C. difficile spores compared to sodium hypochlorite. Option C (isopropyl alcohol) is useful for disinfecting surfaces and killing some pathogens, but it is not sporicidal and evaporates quickly, making it ineffective against C. difficile spores.

The IP’s recommendation of sodium hypochlorite aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on selecting disinfectants based on their efficacy against specific pathogens and adherence to evidence-based guidelines (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks). Proper use, including correct dilution and contact time, is critical to ensure effectiveness, and the IP should collaborate with the Product Evaluation Committee to ensure implementation aligns with safety and regulatory standards (CDC Guidelines for Environmental Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities, 2019).

A patient withactive shingles (herpes zoster)is contagious to individuals who havenever had varicella (chickenpox) or the varicella vaccine.The best roommate selectionis someone who has received thevaricella vaccine, as they are consideredimmune and not at riskfor contracting the virus.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

B. Treatment with acyclovir– Acyclovirtreatsherpes zoster but does notprevent transmissionto others.

C. A history of herpes simplex– Priorherpes simplex virus (HSV) infection does not confer immunity to varicella-zoster virus (VZV).

D. Varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)–VZIG provides temporary immunitybut does not offerlong-term protectionlike the vaccine.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

APIC guidelines recommendplacing patients with active shingles in a room with individuals immune to varicella, such as those vaccinated?.

ThePlan, Do, Study, Act (PDSA) modelis awidely used performance improvement tool in infection prevention. It focuses oncontinuous quality improvementthroughplanning, implementing, analyzing data, and making adjustments. This model aligns withinfection control program evaluationsandThe Joint Commission’s infection prevention and control standards.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. Six Sigma– Adata-driven process improvement methodbut not as commonly used in infection control as PDSA.

B. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)– Used toidentify risks before implementation, rather than ongoing evaluation.

D. Root Cause Analysis (RCA)– Used toanalyze failures after they occur, rather than guiding continuous improvement.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

ThePDSA cycle is a recognized model for evaluating and improving infection control plans?.

The correct answer is D, "Clean, sterilize," as this represents the correct order of steps for reprocessing critical medical equipment. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, critical medical equipment—items that enter sterile tissues or the vascular system (e.g., surgical instruments, implants)—must undergo a rigorous reprocessing cycle to ensure they are free of all microorganisms, including spores. The process begins with cleaning to remove organic material, debris, and soil, which is essential to allow subsequent sterilization to be effective. Sterilization, the final step, uses methods such as steam, ethylene oxide, or hydrogen peroxide gas to achieve a sterility assurance level (SAL) of 10??, eliminating all microbial life (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.3 - Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment). Disinfection, while important for semi-critical devices, is not a step in the reprocessing of critical items, as it does not achieve the sterility required; it is a separate process for non-critical or semi-critical equipment.

Option A (clean, sterilize, disinfect) is incorrect because disinfecting after sterilization is unnecessary and redundant, as sterilization already achieves a higher level of microbial kill. Option B (disinfect, clean, sterilize) reverses the logical sequence; cleaning must precede any disinfection or sterilization to remove bioburden, and disinfection is not appropriate for critical items. Option C (disinfect, sterilize) omits cleaning and incorrectly prioritizes disinfection, which is insufficient for critical equipment requiring full sterility.

The focus on cleaning followed by sterilization aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on evidence-based reprocessing protocols to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs), ensuring that criticalequipment is safe for patient use (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.4 - Implement environmental cleaning and disinfection protocols). This sequence is supported by standards such as AAMI ST79, which outlines the mandatory cleaning step before sterilization to ensure efficacy and safety.

Multi-drug resistant (MDR) Klebsiella pneumoniae in a high-risk area like the ICU requires urgent investigationbecause:

It spreads rapidly via contaminated hands or equipment.

It poses a serious risk to immunocompromised patients.

An outbreak could lead to severe hospital-acquired infections (HAIs).

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. One blood isolate of Streptococcus agalactiae in the nursery–Single cases are not indicative of an outbreak.

B. Two isolates of Staphylococcus aureus in postoperative surgical sites–Common post-surgical pathogen; requires monitoring but not immediate outbreak investigation.

D. Two blood isolates of coagulase-negative staphylococci in the oncology unit–Common contaminants in blood culturesandnot immediately alarming.

CBIC Infection Control Reference

APIC guidelines prioritizeinvestigating MDR pathogens in high-risk units, such as ICU, to prevent transmission?.

The correct answer is C, "Rate of multi-drug resistant organisms acquisition," as it represents an example of an outcome measure. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, outcome measures are indicators that reflect the impact or result of infection prevention and control interventions on patient health outcomes or the incidence of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). The rate of multi-drug resistant organisms (MDRO) acquisition directly measures the incidence of new infections caused by resistant pathogens, which is a key outcome affected by the effectiveness of infection control practices (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.4 - Evaluate the effectiveness of infection prevention and control interventions).

Option A (hand hygiene compliance rate) is an example of a process measure, which tracks adherence to specific protocols or practices intended to prevent infections, rather than the resulting health outcome. Option B (adherence to environmental cleaning) is also a process measure, focusing on the implementation of cleaning protocols rather than the end result, such as reduced infection rates. Option D (timing of preoperative antibiotic administration) is another process measure, assessing the timeliness of an intervention to prevent surgical site infections, but it does not directly indicate the outcome (e.g., infection rate) of that intervention.

Outcome measures, such as the rate of MDRO acquisition, are critical for evaluating the success of infection prevention programs and are often used to guide quality improvement initiatives. This aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on using surveillance data to assess the effectiveness of interventions and inform decision-making (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies). The focus on MDRO acquisition specifically highlights a significant healthcare challenge, making it a prioritized outcome measure in infection control.

The correct answer is A, "Type of floor material," as it is the least important operating suite design feature for the prevention of infection compared to the other options. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, the design of operating suites plays a critical role in infection prevention, particularly for surgical site infections (SSIs). While the type of floor material (e.g., vinyl, tile, or epoxy) can affect ease of cleaning and durability, its impact on infection prevention is secondary to other design elements that directly influence air quality, hygiene practices, and personnel movement (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks). Modern flooring materials are generally designed to be non-porous and easily disinfected, mitigating their role as a primary infection risk factor when proper cleaning protocols are followed.

Option B (positive pressure air handling) is highly important because it prevents the influx ofcontaminated air into the operating suite, reducing the risk of airborne pathogens, including those causing SSIs. This is a standard feature in operating rooms to maintain a sterile environment (AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice, 2023). Option C (placement of sinks for surgical scrubs) is critical for ensuring that surgical staff can perform effective hand and forearm antisepsis, a key step in preventing SSIs by reducing microbial load before surgery. Option D (control of traffic and traffic flow patterns) is essential to minimize the introduction of contaminants from outside the operating suite, as excessive or uncontrolled movement can increase the risk of airborne and contact transmission (CDC Guidelines for Environmental Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities, 2019).

The relative unimportance of floor material type stems from the fact that infection prevention relies more on consistent cleaning practices and the aforementioned design features, which directly address pathogen transmission routes. This aligns with CBIC’s focus on evaluating environmental risks based on their direct impact on infection control (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.4 - Implement environmental cleaning and disinfection protocols).

The correct answer is B, "24 hours," as this is the earliest recommended time that a healthcare personnel with an acute group A streptococcal throat infection may return to work after receiving appropriate antibiotic therapy. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), healthcare workers with group A Streptococcus (GAS) infections, such as streptococcal pharyngitis, should be treated with antibiotics (e.g., penicillin or a suitable alternative) to eradicate the infection and reduce transmission risk. The CDC and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) guidelines specify that healthcare personnel can return to work after at least 24 hours of effective antibiotic therapy, provided they are afebrile and symptoms are improving, as this period is sufficient to significantly reduce the bacterial load and contagiousness (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents).

Option A (8 hours) is too short a duration to ensure the infection is adequately controlled and the individual is no longer contagious. Option C (48 hours) and Option D (72 hours) are longer periods that may apply in some cases (e.g., if symptoms persist or in outbreak settings), but they exceed the minimum recommended time based on current evidence. The 24-hour threshold is supported by studies showing that GAS shedding decreases substantially within this timeframe with appropriate antibiotic treatment, minimizing the risk to patients and colleagues (CDC Guidelines for Infection Control in Healthcare Personnel, 2019).

The infection preventionist’s role includes enforcing return-to-work policies to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs), aligning with CBIC’s emphasis on timely and evidence-based interventions to control infectious disease transmission in healthcare settings (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). Compliance with this recommendation also supports occupational health protocols to balance staff safety and patient care.

To determine the number of employees whoseroconverted(became infected) after aneedlestick exposure, we use the given data:

Total Needlestick Injuries:250

Needlestick Injuries Involving Bloodborne Pathogens:100

Seroconversion Rate:2%

Calculation:

A black text with black numbers AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. 1:Incorrect calculation;2% of 100 is 2, not 1.

C. 5:Overestimates the actual number of infections.

D. 10:Exceeds the calculated value based on given data.

CBIC Infection Control References:

APIC Text, "Occupational Exposure and Seroconversion Risks"?.

APIC Text, "Bloodborne Pathogens and Needlestick Injury Prevention"?