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  • Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20
  • Last Update: Oct 8, 2024
  • Questions and Answers: 400
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156-215.81 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 Certification

Question # 6

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

A.

CPM

B.

HTTPS

C.

FWD

D.

CPD

Full Access
Question # 7

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

Full Access
Question # 8

R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Version R75 and higher

Full Access
Question # 9

Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

A.

Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules

B.

Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules

C.

Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer

D.

Security zones cannot be used in network topology

Full Access
Question # 10

What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

A.

A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

B.

A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.

C.

To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

D.

A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

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Question # 11

To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

A.

a routing table

B.

awareness of the network topology

C.

a Demilitarized Zone

D.

a Security Policy install

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Question # 12

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

A.

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

B.

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

C.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

D.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

Full Access
Question # 13

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

A.

Application Independence

B.

High Performance

C.

Scalability

D.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

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Question # 14

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

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Question # 15

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

A.

Automatic Static NAT

B.

Manual Hide NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Manual Static NAT

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Question # 16

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

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Question # 17

Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

A.

the user connects and authenticates

B.

office mode is initiated

C.

the user requests a connection

D.

the user connects

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Question # 18

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

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Question # 19

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.

A.

SecurID

B.

LDAP

C.

NT domain

D.

SMTP

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Question # 20

Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

A.

Security Gateway Contract file

B.

Service Contract file

C.

License Management file

D.

License Contract file

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Question # 21

What is UserCheck?

A.

Messaging tool user to verify a user’s credentials

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

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Question # 22

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

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Question # 23

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

Full Access
Question # 24

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Question # 25

Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

A.

259, 900

B.

256, 257

C.

8080, 529

D.

80, 256

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Question # 26

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Question # 27

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

A.

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

B.

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

D.

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

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Question # 28

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management container

C.

Management server

D.

Security Gateway container

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Question # 29

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

A.

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

B.

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

C.

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

D.

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

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Question # 30

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Question # 31

What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

A.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

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Question # 32

Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?

A.

Distributed

B.

Bridge Mode

C.

Remote

D.

Standalone

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Question # 33

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

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Question # 34

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

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Question # 35

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

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Question # 36

Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

A.

print cplic

B.

show licenses

C.

fwlic print

D.

cplic print

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Question # 37

Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious.

A.

Penalty Box

B.

Drop Rule in the rulebase

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM)

D.

Stealth rule

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Question # 38

What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges of a root user?

A.

User ID 1

B.

User ID 2

C.

User ID 0

D.

User ID 99

Full Access
Question # 39

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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Question # 40

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

A.

show cluster state

B.

show active cluster

C.

show clusters

D.

show running cluster

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Question # 41

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A.

Monitoring the status of processes

B.

Sending and receiving logs

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.

Generating and modifying certificates

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Question # 42

Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.

A.

SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI

B.

WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole

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Question # 43

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

A.

NAT

B.

Firewall

C.

Global Properties

D.

Object Explorer

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Question # 44

From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

A.

Verify a Security Policy

B.

Open a terminal shell

C.

Add a static route

D.

View Security Management GUI Clients

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Question # 45

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

Full Access
Question # 46

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

A.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

B.

Static NAT

C.

Static Route

D.

HTTPS Inspection

Full Access
Question # 47

You can see the following graphic:

156-215.81 question answer

What is presented on it?

A.

Properties of personal. p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

C.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

D.

Expired. p12 certificate properties for user John.

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Question # 48

Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

A.

Concurrent policy packages

B.

Concurrent policies

C.

Global Policies

D.

Shared policies

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Question # 49

In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

A.

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

B.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

C.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

D.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

Full Access
Question # 50

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

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Question # 51

Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

A.

Network Bandwidth Saturation

B.

Buffer Overflow

C.

SYN Flood

D.

SQL Injection

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Question # 52

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Full Access
Question # 53

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

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Question # 54

Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

A.

Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

B.

Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

C.

Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

D.

Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

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Question # 55

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

A.

IPS

B.

Application Control and URL Filtering

C.

Threat Emulation

D.

Anti-virus

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Question # 56

Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a__________ and _______.

A.

Software blade; software container

B.

Software package: signature

C.

Signature; software blade

D.

Software container software package

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Question # 57

Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

A.

backup

B.

snapshot

C.

Database Revision

D.

migrate export

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Question # 58

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge

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Question # 59

Fill in the blank When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management it is then referred to as_____

A.

User Center

B.

User Administration

C.

User Directory

D.

UserCheck

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Question # 60

Which SmartConsole application shows correlated logs and aggregated data to provide an overview of potential threats and attack patterns?

A.

SmartEvent

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartLog

D.

SmartView Monitor

Full Access
Question # 61

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____________.

A.

User groups

B.

Users using UserCheck

C.

Individual users

D.

All users in the database

Full Access
Question # 62

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

A.

add rba user roles

B.

add user

C.

add rba user

D.

add user roles

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Question # 63

Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

A.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

B.

WebUI. CLI. or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI. SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartConsole, WebUI. or CLI

Full Access
Question # 64

Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

A.

SecureID

B.

Radius

C.

DynamicID

D.

TACACS

Full Access
Question # 65

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

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Question # 66

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

A.

Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.

B.

Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.

C.

Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.

D.

Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run

Full Access
Question # 67

When should you generate new licenses?

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

Full Access
Question # 68

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

A.

Application database

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application-Forensic Database

D.

Application Library

Full Access
Question # 69

To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

A.

Protections

B.

IPS Protections

C.

Profiles

D.

ThreatWiki

Full Access
Question # 70

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

A.

cphaprob state

B.

cphaprob status

C.

cphaprob

D.

cluster state

Full Access
Question # 71

In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

A.

Logging & Monitoring

B.

None - the data is available by default

C.

Monitoring Blade

D.

SNMP

Full Access
Question # 72

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A.

URL Filtering and Network

B.

Network and Threat Prevention

C.

Application Control and URL Filtering

D.

Network and Application Control

Full Access
Question # 73

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

A.

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

B.

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

C.

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

D.

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

Full Access
Question # 74

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

Full Access
Question # 75

True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

A.

True, every administrator works on a different database that Is independent of the other administrators

B.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

C.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission

Full Access
Question # 76

When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.

A.

Publish database

B.

Activate policy

C.

Install policy

D.

Save changes

Full Access
Question # 77

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

A.

Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention

B.

Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN

D.

Firewall, Application Control and IPS

Full Access
Question # 78

Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

A.

remote access clients.

B.

a combination of computer or computer groups and networks.

C.

users and user groups.

D.

All of the above.

Full Access
Question # 79

Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

A.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom's changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom's changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

Full Access
Question # 80

What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

A.

Clustered Protocol

B.

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

C.

Control Cluster Protocol

D.

Cluster Control Protocol

Full Access
Question # 81

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

A.

Client machine IP address.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Log server IP address.

D.

Gateway proxy IP address.

Full Access
Question # 82

When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

A.

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

B.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

C.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

D.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

Full Access
Question # 83

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

A.

Tracking

B.

Log

C.

None

D.

Alert

Full Access
Question # 84

What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

A.

To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base

B.

To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports

C.

To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database

D.

To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

Full Access
Question # 85

If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network what is the best way to accomplish this?

A.

Create an inline layer where the destination is the target network resource Define sub-rules allowing only specific sources to access the target resource

B.

Use a "New Legacy User at Location", specifying the LDAP user group that the users belong to, at the desired location

C.

Create a rule allowing only specific source IP addresses access to the target network resource.

D.

Create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined Use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule

Full Access
Question # 86

What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

A.

To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

B.

To reduce the number of rules in the database.

C.

To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.

D.

To hide the gateway from the Internet.

Full Access
Question # 87

Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?

A.

The Security Gateway is upgraded.

B.

The existing license expires.

C.

The license is upgraded.

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

Full Access
Question # 88

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

A.

One

B.

Three

C.

Two

D.

Infinite

Full Access
Question # 89

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

A.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Full Access
Question # 90

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked

C.

Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab

D.

From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

Full Access
Question # 91

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

Full Access
Question # 92

You had setup the VPN Community NPN-Stores' with 3 gateways. There are some issues with one remote gateway(l .1.1.1) and an your local gateway. What will be the best log filter to see only the IKE Phase 2 agreed networks for both gateways.

A.

action:”Key Install" AND 1.1.1.1 AND Quick Mode

B.

Blade:”VPN”AND VPN-Stores AND Main Mode

C.

action:”Key Install” AND 1.1.1.1 AND Main Mode

D.

Blade:”VPN”AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

Full Access
Question # 93

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

Full Access
Question # 94

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.

A.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

Captive Portal

Full Access
Question # 95

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Full Access
Question # 96

Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

A.

file attributes

B.

application information

C.

destination port

D.

data type information

Full Access
Question # 97

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

A.

Inspection Policies

B.

Shared Policies

C.

Unified Policies

D.

Standard Policies

Full Access
Question # 98

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

Full Access
Question # 99

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

A.

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

B.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

Full Access
Question # 100

When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

A.

Log, Alert, None

B.

Log, Allow Packets, Email

C.

Drop Packet, Alert, None

D.

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

Full Access
Question # 101

In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

A.

Hide; source

B.

Static; source

C.

Simple; source

D.

Hide; destination

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Question # 102

What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

A.

license view

B.

fw ctl tab -t license -s

C.

show license -s

D.

cplic print

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Question # 103

When should you generate new licenses?

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After a device upgrade.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

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Question # 104

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Question # 105

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

A.

Original packet and translated packet

B.

Manipulated packet and original packet

C.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

D.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

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Question # 106

Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

A.

Remote Access

B.

UserCheck

C.

AD Query

D.

RADIUS

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Question # 107

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_“cpview process ID”. cap”number of captures”?

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

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Question # 108

Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

A.

IPS blade

B.

IPSEC VPN Blade

C.

Identity Awareness Blade

D.

Firewall Blade

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Question # 109

Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working?

A.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

B.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish the policy.

C.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

D.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish the policy.

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Question # 110

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

A.

SmartDashboard

B.

SmartEvent

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartUpdate

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Question # 111

What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

A.

In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.

B.

Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.

C.

Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.

D.

The public IP-address is different from the gateway’s external IP

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Question # 112

What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

A.

Source

B.

Static

C.

Hide

D.

Destination

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Question # 113

Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

A.

Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation

B.

Perpetual and Trial

C.

Evaluation and Subscription

D.

Subscription and Perpetual

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Question # 114

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

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Question # 115

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

A.

Centos Linux

B.

Gaia embedded

C.

Gaia

D.

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

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Question # 116

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

A.

License and Update

B.

Package Repository and Licenses

C.

Update and License & Contract

D.

License & Contract and Package Repository

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Question # 117

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

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Question # 118

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

A.

AD Query

B.

Browser-Based Authentication

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Terminal Servers Agent

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Question # 119

Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Logging and Status

D.

Monitoring

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Question # 120

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

D.

At least 20GB

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