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  • Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20)
  • Last Update: Jun 22, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 411
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156-215.81 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Certification

Question # 6

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

156-215.81 question answer

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

A.

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

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Question # 7

What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

A.

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

B.

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

C.

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

D.

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

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Question # 8

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

A.

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.

B.

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

C.

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

D.

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.

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Question # 9

Fill in the blank: The_____is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.

A.

User index

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

User server

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Question # 10

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

A.

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

B.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

C.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

D.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

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Question # 11

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

A.

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

B.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

C.

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

D.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

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Question # 12

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

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Question # 13

What is the default shell for the Gaia command line interface?

A.

Admin

B.

Clish

C.

Expert

D.

Bash

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Question # 14

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

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Question # 15

True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

A.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

B.

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

C.

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

D.

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

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Question # 16

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

A.

cpconfig

B.

Management Command Line

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate

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Question # 17

Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

A.

IPS blade

B.

IPSEC VPN Blade

C.

Identity Awareness Blade

D.

Firewall Blade

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Question # 18

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

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Question # 19

Which tool allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS?

A.

CPASE - Check Point Automatic Service Engine

B.

CPAUE - Check Point Automatic Update Engine

C.

CPDAS - Check Point Deployment Agent Service

D.

CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

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Question # 20

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? (Choose the best answer.)

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Malware

D.

Content Awareness

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Question # 21

You had setup the VPN Community NPN-Stores' with 3 gateways. There are some issues with one remote gateway(l .1.1.1) and an your local gateway. What will be the best log filter to see only the IKE Phase 2 agreed networks for both gateways.

A.

action:”Key Install" AND 1.1.1.1 AND Quick Mode

B.

Blade:”VPN”AND VPN-Stores AND Main Mode

C.

action:”Key Install” AND 1.1.1.1 AND Main Mode

D.

Blade:”VPN”AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

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Question # 22

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

A.

In the system SMEM memory pool.

B.

In State tables.

C.

In the Sessions table.

D.

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

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Question # 23

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

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Question # 24

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

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Question # 25

Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

A.

Network Bandwidth Saturation

B.

Buffer Overflow

C.

SYN Flood

D.

SQL Injection

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Question # 26

In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

A.

Upgrade the software version

B.

Open WebUI

C.

Open SSH

D.

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

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Question # 27

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

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Question # 28

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

A.

The Gateway is an SMB device

B.

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

D.

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

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Question # 29

What is the SOLR database for?

A.

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

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Question # 30

What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

A.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

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Question # 31

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Question # 32

True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.

A.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

B.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.

C.

True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

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Question # 33

Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

A.

User Center

B.

Package repository

C.

Download Center Web site

D.

License and Contract repository

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Question # 34

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

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Question # 35

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

156-215.81 question answer

What is the most likely reason?

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

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Question # 36

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

A.

Access Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Threat Prevention

D.

QoS

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Question # 37

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

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Question # 38

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked

C.

Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab

D.

From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

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Question # 39

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

A.

Centos Linux

B.

Gaia embedded

C.

Gaia

D.

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

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Question # 40

To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

A.

a routing table

B.

awareness of the network topology

C.

a Demilitarized Zone

D.

a Security Policy install

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Question # 41

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

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Question # 42

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

A.

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

B.

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

D.

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

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Question # 43

Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?

A.

src:192.168.1.1 OR dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

B.

src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

C.

192.168.1.1 AND 172.26.1.1 AND drop

D.

192.168.1.1 OR 172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

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Question # 44

What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

A.

To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

B.

To reduce the number of rules in the database.

C.

To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.

D.

To hide the gateway from the Internet.

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Question # 45

When a Security Gateway communicates about its status to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option was chosen?

A.

Targeted

B.

Bridge Mode

C.

Distributed

D.

Standalone

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Question # 46

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

D.

At least 20GB

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Question # 47

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

A.

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

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Question # 48

The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

A.

Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.

B.

When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

C.

Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).

D.

When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.

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Question # 49

Which application is used for the central management and deployment of licenses and packages?

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartLicense

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

Deployment Agent

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Question # 50

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

A.

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

D.

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

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Question # 51

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

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Question # 52

By default, which port is used to connect to the GAiA Portal?

A.

4434

B.

80

C.

8080

D.

443

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Question # 53

In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

A.

Logging & Monitoring

B.

None - the data is available by default

C.

Monitoring Blade

D.

SNMP

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Question # 54

Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

A.

Log

B.

Full Log

C.

Detailed Log

D.

Extended Log

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Question # 55

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

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Question # 56

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

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Question # 57

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

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Question # 58

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

A.

SmartConsole installed device

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

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Question # 59

What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

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Question # 60

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge

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Question # 61

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

A.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

B.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

C.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

D.

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

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Question # 62

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Question # 63

In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

A.

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

B.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

C.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

D.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

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Question # 64

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

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Question # 65

Fill in the blank When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management it is then referred to as_____

A.

User Center

B.

User Administration

C.

User Directory

D.

UserCheck

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Question # 66

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway

A.

Antivirus

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

NAT

D.

Application Control

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Question # 67

When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

A.

Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.

B.

Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

C.

Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.

D.

Only one rule is required for each connection.

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Question # 68

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

A.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

B.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

Full Access
Question # 69

What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

A.

RFC 1939

B.

RFC 1950

C.

RFC 1918

D.

RFC 793

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Question # 70

The SIC Status “Unknown” means

A.

There is connection between the gateway and Security Management Server but it is not trusted.

B.

The secure communication is established.

C.

There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.

D.

The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SIC.

Full Access
Question # 71

Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

A.

Cplic verify license

B.

Cplic print

C.

Cplic show

D.

Cplic license

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Question # 72

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Question # 73

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Question # 74

Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

A.

file attributes

B.

application information

C.

destination port

D.

data type information

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Question # 75

What are two basic rules Check Point recommending for building an effective security policy?

A.

Accept Rule and Drop Rule

B.

Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule

C.

Explicit Rule and Implied Rule

D.

NAT Rule and Reject Rule

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Question # 76

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

Full Access
Question # 77

Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

A.

Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways

B.

Users can share identities with other users

C.

Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways

D.

Administrators can share identifies with other administrators

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Question # 78

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

A.

Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention

B.

Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN

D.

Firewall, Application Control and IPS

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Question # 79

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

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Question # 80

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write

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Question # 81

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

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Question # 82

Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

A.

print cplic

B.

show licenses

C.

fwlic print

D.

cplic print

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Question # 83

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

Full Access
Question # 84

What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

A.

Source

B.

Static

C.

Hide

D.

Destination

Full Access
Question # 85

When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

A.

Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

B.

Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers

C.

R81.10 does not support Layers

D.

Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

Full Access
Question # 86

Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

A.

Pentagon, star, and combination

B.

Star, octagon, and combination

C.

Combined and star

D.

Meshed, star, and combination

Full Access
Question # 87

Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

A.

Eyeglasses

B.

Pencil

C.

Padlock

D.

Book

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Question # 88

: 370

What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

A.

Stateful Inspection. Firewall Blade, and URL'Application Blade

B.

Packet Filtenng. Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall

C.

Firewall Blade. URL/Application Blade and IPS

D.

Stateful Inspection. URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention

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Question # 89

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

A.

Limit

B.

Resource

C.

Custom Application / Site

D.

Network Object

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Question # 90

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

A.

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

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Question # 91

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

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Question # 92

Can you use the same layer in multiple policies or rulebases?

A.

Yes - a layer can be shared with multiple policies and rules.

B.

No - each layer must be unique.

C.

No - layers cannot be shared or reused, but an identical one can be created.

D.

Yes - but it must be copied and pasted with a different name.

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Question # 93

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

A.

3DES

B.

AES-128

C.

DES

D.

AES-256

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Question # 94

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

A.

Client machine IP address.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Log server IP address.

D.

Gateway proxy IP address.

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Question # 95

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

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Question # 96

When should you generate new licenses?

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

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Question # 97

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

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Question # 98

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

A.

CloudSec deployment

B.

Disliked deployment

C.

Router only deployment

D.

Standalone deployment

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Question # 99

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by ?

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

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Question # 100

To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

A.

Protections

B.

IPS Protections

C.

Profiles

D.

ThreatWiki

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Question # 101

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

A.

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

B.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

C.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

D.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

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Question # 102

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

A.

Upper; Application

B.

First two; Internet

C.

Lower; Application

D.

First two; Transport

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Question # 103

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

A.

Standalone

B.

Remote

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

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Question # 104

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

A.

Save and install the Policy

B.

Delete older versions of database

C.

Revert the session.

D.

Publish or discard the session

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Question # 105

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

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Question # 106

When a gateway requires user information for authentication, what order does it query servers for user information?

A.

First - Internal user database, then LDAP servers in order of priority, finally the generic external user profile

B.

First the Internal user database, then generic external user profile, finally LDAP servers in order of priority.

C.

First the highest priority LDAP server, then the internal user database, then lower priority LDAP servers, finally the generic external profile

D.

The external generic profile, then the internal user database finally the LDAP servers in order of priority.

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Question # 107

Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

A.

Inline

B.

Explicit

C.

Implicit drop

D.

Implicit accept

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Question # 108

Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

A.

Anti-Bot

B.

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

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Question # 109

Which Security Blade needs to be enabled in order to sanitize and remove potentially malicious content from files, before those files enter the network?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Anti-Malware

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Threat Extraction

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Question # 110

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

A.

Application Independence

B.

High Performance

C.

Scalability

D.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

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Question # 111

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

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Question # 112

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

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Question # 113

Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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Question # 114

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection ‘Host Port Scan’ from ‘Medium’ to ‘High’ Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

A.

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

B.

The Access Control Policy.

C.

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

D.

The Threat Prevention Policy.

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Question # 115

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

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Question # 116

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Question # 117

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

A.

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

B.

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

C.

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

D.

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

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Question # 118

Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

A.

Security Gateway Contract file

B.

Service Contract file

C.

License Management file

D.

License Contract file

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Question # 119

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Complete

D.

Light

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Question # 120

Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?

    Route-based— The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTls. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.

A.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

B.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

C.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.

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Question # 121

Most Check Point deployments use Gaia but which product deployment utilizes special Check Point code (with unification in R81.10)?

A.

Enterprise Network Security Appliances

B.

Rugged Appliances

C.

Scalable Platforms

D.

Small Business and Branch Office Appliances

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Question # 122

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

A.

Control Bandwidth issues

B.

Control Data Security

C.

Improve organizational security

D.

Decrease legal liability

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Question # 123

Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

A.

SecureID

B.

Radius

C.

DynamicID

D.

TACACS

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