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156-315.80 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R80 Certification

Question # 6

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

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Question # 7

Fill in the blank: A new license should be generated and installed in all of the following situations EXCEPT when ________ .

A.

The license is attached to the wrong Security Gateway.

B.

The existing license expires.

C.

The license is upgraded.

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

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Question # 8

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

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Question # 9

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

A.

This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.

B.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.

C.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

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Question # 10

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

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Question # 11

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R80.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

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Question # 12

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

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Question # 13

What is the recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days?

A.

Use Multi-Domain Management Server.

B.

Choose different setting for log storage and SmartEvent db

C.

Install Management and SmartEvent on different machines.

D.

it is not possible.

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Question # 14

What level of CPU load on a Secure Network Distributor would indicate that another may be necessary?

A.

Idle <20%

B.

USR <20%

C.

SYS <20%

D.

Wait <20%

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Question # 15

There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A’s interface issues were resolved and it became operational.

When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

A.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

B.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

C.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

D.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

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Question # 16

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

St cpmq enable

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Question # 17

Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?

A.

RADIUS server

B.

Username and password (internal, LDAP)

C.

SecurID

D.

TACACS+

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Question # 18

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Question # 19

Which statement is true regarding redundancy?

A.

System Administrators know when their cluster has failed over and can also see why it failed over by using the cphaprob –f if command.

B.

ClusterXL offers three different Load Sharing solutions: Unicast, Broadcast, and Multicast.

C.

Machines in a ClusterXL High Availability configuration must be synchronized.

D.

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia and available to all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized environments.

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Question # 20

With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

A.

Threat Cloud Intelligence

B.

Threat Prevention Software Blade Package

C.

Endpoint Total Protection

D.

Traffic on port 25

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Question # 21

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

A.

In R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

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Question # 22

What is the base level encryption key used by Capsule Docs?

A.

RSA 2048

B.

RSA 1024

C.

SHA-256

D.

AES

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Question # 23

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

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Question # 24

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

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Question # 25

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0set static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Question # 26

Which blades and or features are not supported in R80?

A.

SmartEvent Maps

B.

SmartEvent

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

SmartConsole Toolbars

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Question # 27

In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

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Question # 28

When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the hop Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule that matches a packet. Which of the following statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?

A.

If the Action is Accept, the gateway allows the packet to pass through the gateway.

B.

If the Action is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

C.

If the Action is Accept, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

D.

If the Action is Drop, the gateway applies the Implicit Clean-up Rule for that Policy Layer.

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Question # 29

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

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Question # 30

How can SmartView application accessed?

A.

http:// /smartview

B.

http:// :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// /smartview/

D.

https:// :4434/smartview/

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Question # 31

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

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Question # 32

N NO: 211

The essential means by which state synchronization works to provide failover in the event an active member goes down, ____________ is used specifically for clustered environments to allow gateways to report their own state and learn about the states of other members in the cluster.

A.

ccp

B.

cphaconf

C.

cphad

D.

cphastart

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Question # 33

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

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Question # 34

Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?

A.

source port ranges

B.

source ip

C.

source port

D.

same info from Packet Acceleration is used

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Question # 35

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R80.10. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

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Question # 36

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

A.

To satellites through center only

B.

To center only

C.

To center and to other satellites through center

D.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets

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Question # 37

Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components?

A.

Firewall > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

B.

Firewall > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Client

C.

Firewall > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Client

D.

Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

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Question # 38

What SmartEvent component creates events?

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

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Question # 39

John is using Management HA. Which Security Management Server should he use for making changes?

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active SmartConsole

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Log Server

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Question # 40

One of major features in R80 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A.

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Question # 41

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

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Question # 42

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

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Question # 43

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

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Question # 44

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

A.

Terminal

B.

Light

C.

Full

D.

Custom

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Question # 45

What is the valid range for Virtual Router Identifier (VRID) value in a Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) configuration?

A.

1-254

B.

1-255

C.

0-254

D.

0 – 255

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Question # 46

Besides fw monitor, what is another command that can be used to capture packets?

a. ping

B. arp

C. tcpdump

D. traceroute

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Question # 47

Which of the following is NOT a valid type of SecureXL template?

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

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Question # 48

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

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Question # 49

What state is the Management HA in when both members have different policies/databases?

A.

Synchronized

B.

Never been synchronized

C.

Lagging

D.

Collision

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Question # 50

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

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Question # 51

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 52

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ________ .

A.

User groups

B.

Users using UserCheck

C.

Individual users

D.

All users in the database

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Question # 53

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R80.10?

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

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Question # 54

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A.

URL Filtering and Network

B.

Network and Threat Prevention

C.

Application Control and URL Filtering

D.

Network and Application Control

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Question # 55

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

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Question # 56

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

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Question # 57

Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?

A.

18191

B.

18190

C.

8983

D.

19009

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Question # 58

D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule based and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

A.

The connection is destined for a server within the network

B.

The connection required a Security server

C.

The packet is the second in an established TCP connection

D.

The packets are not multicast

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Question # 59

The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

C.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

D.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores.

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Question # 60

When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?

A.

RADIUS

B.

Remote Access and RADIUS

C.

AD Query

D.

AD Query and Browser-based Authentication

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Question # 61

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

A.

Standard Policies

B.

Shared Policies

C.

Inspection Policies

D.

Unified Policies

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Question # 62

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

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Question # 63

What CLI utility runs connectivity tests from a Security Gateway to an AD domain controller?

A.

test_connectivity_ad –d

B.

test_ldap_connectivity –d

C.

test_ad_connectivity –d

D.

ad_connectivity_test –d

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Question # 64

In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?

A.

TXT, XML and CSV

B.

PDF and TXT

C.

PDF, HTML, and XML

D.

PDF and HTML

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Question # 65

What component of R80 Management is used for indexing?

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Question # 66

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_”cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

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Question # 67

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

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Question # 68

What is the correct order of the default “fw monitor” inspection points?

A.

i, I, o, O

B.

1, 2, 3, 4

C.

i, o, I, O

D.

I, i, O, o

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Question # 69

156-315.80 question answer

You are the administrator for ABC Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

A.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.

B.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.

C.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.

D.

This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.

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