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What is Dynamic Balancing?
Matt wants to upgrade his old Security Management server to R81.x using the Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration. What is one of the requirements for a successful upgrade?
What level of CPU load on a Secure Network Distributor would indicate that another may be necessary?
Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?
Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.
The back-end database for Check Point R81 Management uses:
What is a possible command to delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway?
Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?
Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a __________ for user authentication.
What is the recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days?
Which of the following processes pulls the application monitoring status from gateways?
What are the services used for Cluster Synchronization?
What Is the difference between Updatable Objects and Dynamic Objects
Which of the following Check Point commands is true to enable Multi-Version Cluster (MVC)?
Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?
Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?
In the R81 SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?
Which one of the following is NOT a configurable Compliance Regulation?
From SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow:
Alice & Bob are concurrently logged In via SSH on the same Check Point Security Gateway as user "admin* however Bob was first logged in and acquired the lock Alice Is not aware that Bob is also togged in to the same Security Management Server as she is but she needs to perform very urgent configuration changes - which of the following GAlAclish command is true for overriding Bobs configuration database lock:
By default, how often does Threat Emulation update the engine on the Security Gateway?
When running a query on your logs, to find records for user Toni with machine IP of 10.0.4.210 but exclude her tablet IP of 10.0.4.76, which of the following query syntax would you use?
John is using Management HA. Which Security Management Server should he use for making changes?
Which upgrade method you should use upgrading from R80.40 to R81.20 to avoid any downtime?
What are the modes of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?
Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?
Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?
You have pushed policy to GW-3 and now cannot pass traffic through the gateway. As a last resort, to restore traffic flow, what command would you run to remove the latest policy from GW-3?
What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?
Which member of a high-availability cluster should be upgraded first in a Zero downtime upgrade?
Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n)_____________ Server.
What is the command switch to specify the Gaia API context?
How can you see historical data with cpview?
What is true about VRRP implementations?
What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R81.20 code?
Which CLI command will reset the IPS pattern matcher statistics?
Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?
In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?
Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?
Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?
NAT rules are prioritized in which order?
1. Automatic Static NAT
2. Automatic Hide NAT
3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT
4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules
What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?
CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:
What is the difference between an event and a log?
Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .
What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?
Which command will allow you to see the interface status?
Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?
What command verifies that the API server is responding?
What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?
R81.20 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?
During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?
The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects with different IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?
The Event List within the Event tab contains:
What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?
What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?
Fill in the blank: The R81 feature _____ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.
Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?
Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.
To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?
Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.
When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.
What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?
The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:
Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?
Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?
Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every
What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?
To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:
Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?
SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?
When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?
Which features are only supported with R81.20 Gateways but not R77.x?
Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?
Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?
You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?
Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.
What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?
What is true about the IPS-Blade?
Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?
Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.
Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)
After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.
Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?
What is the order of NAT priorities?
The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated.
What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?
What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?
Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.
What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?
Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.
Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.
What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?
Office mode means that:
What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?
In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?
What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?
How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?
Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?
What command is used to manually failover a Multi-Version Cluster during the upgrade?
Check Point security components are divided into the following components:
Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?
For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?
Which command would you use to set the network interfaces’ affinity in Manual mode?
SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:
Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?
What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?
Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?
The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:
Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?
Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?
When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.
Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?
Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?
What is UserCheck?
Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:
During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:
Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R81.20 based management.
What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?
To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?
Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .
What is the command to show SecureXL status?
Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?
What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?
In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:
You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.
What must you do to get SIC to work?
What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?
When using CPSTAT, what is the default port used by the AMON server?
Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.
What will happen to the changes already made?
Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?
When SecureXL is enabled, all packets should be accelerated, except packets that match the following conditions:
SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?
To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?
What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?
What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?
What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?
You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?
What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?
Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.20 SmartConsole application?
Which GUI client is supported in R81?
You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R81.20?
Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?
An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?
Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Server showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?
How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?
What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:
What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool?
What is the port used for SmartConsole to connect to the Security Management Server?
Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?
What are the main stages of a policy installations?
John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?
Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enabled which path is handling the traffic?
SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:
Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?
With Mobile Access enabled, administrators select the web-based and native applications that can be accessed by remote users and define the actions that users can perform the applications. Mobile Access encrypts all traffic using:
You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?
Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?
From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:
You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?
What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?
Automation and Orchestration differ in that:
Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.20 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?
Which statements below are CORRECT regarding Threat Prevention profiles in Smart Dashboard?
Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?
Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R81?
When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?
SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?
When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?
Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?
Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?
Which command shows the current connections distributed by CoreXL FW instances?
SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
NO: 180
What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?
: 156
VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?
You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?
You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?
In R81.20 a new feature dynamic log distribution was added. What is this for?
Installations and upgrades with CPUSE require that the CPUSE agent is up-to-date. Usually the latest build is downloaded automatically. How can you verify the CPUSE agent build?
SecureXL is able to accelerate the Connection Rate using templates. Which attributes are used in the template to identify the connection?
The “MAC magic” value must be modified under the following condition:
Joey want to configure NTP on R81 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?
When detected, an event can activate an Automatic Reaction. The SmartEvent administrator can create and configure one Automatic Reaction, or many, according to the needs of the system. Which of the following statement is false and NOT part of possible automatic reactions:
What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?
Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?
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