11.11 Special Sale - 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: spcl70

156-315.81 PDF

$33

$109.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Printable Format
  • Value of Money
  • 100% Pass Assurance
  • Verified Answers
  • Researched by Industry Experts
  • Based on Real Exams Scenarios
  • 100% Real Questions

156-315.81 PDF + Testing Engine

$52.8

$175.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20
  • Last Update: Nov 8, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 636
  • Free Real Questions Demo
  • Recommended by Industry Experts
  • Best Economical Package
  • Immediate Access

156-315.81 Engine

$39.6

$131.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Best Testing Engine
  • One Click installation
  • Recommended by Teachers
  • Easy to use
  • 3 Modes of Learning
  • State of Art Technology
  • 100% Real Questions included

156-315.81 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Certification

Question # 6

What is Dynamic Balancing?

A.

It is a ClusterXL feature that switches an HA cluster into an LS cluster if required to maximize throughput

B.

It is a feature that uses a daemon to balance the required number of firewall instances and SNDs based on the current load

C.

It is a new feature that is capable of dynamically reserve the amount of Hash kernel memory to reflect the resource usage necessary for maximizing the session rate.

D.

It is a CoreXL feature that assigns the SND to network interfaces to balance the RX Cache of the interfaces

Full Access
Question # 7

Matt wants to upgrade his old Security Management server to R81.x using the Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration. What is one of the requirements for a successful upgrade?

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

Full Access
Question # 8

What level of CPU load on a Secure Network Distributor would indicate that another may be necessary?

A.

Idle <20%

B.

USR <20%

C.

SYS <20%

D.

Wait <20%

Full Access
Question # 9

Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

A.

Firewall

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Application Control

D.

Threat Extraction

Full Access
Question # 10

Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

A.

Accept; redirect

B.

Accept; drop

C.

Redirect; drop

D.

Drop; accept

Full Access
Question # 11

The back-end database for Check Point R81 Management uses:

A.

DBMS

B.

MongoDB

C.

PostgreSQL

D.

MySQL

Full Access
Question # 12

What is a possible command to delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway?

A.

fw sam -I dport 22

B.

fw ctl conntab -x -dpott=22

C.

fw tab -t connections -x -e 00000016

D.

fwaccel dos config set dport ssh

Full Access
Question # 13

Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?

A.

Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files

B.

cp.macro

C.

Contract file (.xml)

D.

license File (.lic)

Full Access
Question # 14

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a __________ for user authentication.

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

Full Access
Question # 15

What is the recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days?

A.

Use Multi-Domain Management Server.

B.

Choose different setting for log storage and SmartEvent db

C.

Install Management and SmartEvent on different machines.

D.

it is not possible.

Full Access
Question # 16

Which of the following processes pulls the application monitoring status from gateways?

A.

cpd

B.

cpwd

C.

cpm

D.

fwm

Full Access
Question # 17

What are the services used for Cluster Synchronization?

A.

256H-CP tor Full Sync and 8116/UDP for Delta Sync

B.

8116/UDP for Full Sync and Delta Sync

C.

TCP/256 for Full Sync and Delta Sync

D.

No service needed when using Broadcast Mode

Full Access
Question # 18

What Is the difference between Updatable Objects and Dynamic Objects

A.

Dynamic Objects ate maintained automatically by the Threat Cloud. Updatable Objects are created and maintained locally. In both cases there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

B.

Updatable Objects is a Threat Cloud Service. The provided Objects are updated automatically. Dynamic Objects are created and maintained locally For Dynamic Objects

there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

C.

Updatable Objects is a Threat Cloud Service. The provided Objects are updated automatically. Dynamic Objects are created and maintained locally In both cases there is no

need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

D.

Dynamic Objects are maintained automatically by the Threat Cloud. For Dynamic Objects there rs no need to install policy for the changes to take effect. Updatable Objects are created and maintained locally.

Full Access
Question # 19

Which of the following Check Point commands is true to enable Multi-Version Cluster (MVC)?

A.

Check Point Security Management HA (Secondary): set cluster member mvc on

B.

Check Point Security Gateway Only: set cluster member mvc on

C.

Check Point Security Management HA (Primary): set cluster member mvc on

D.

Check Point Security Gateway Cluster Member: set cluster member mvc on

Full Access
Question # 20

Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

15%

Full Access
Question # 21

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

A.

Terminal

B.

Light

C.

Full

D.

Custom

Full Access
Question # 22

In the R81 SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

A.

Security Policies

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Manage and Settings

D.

Gateways and Servers

Full Access
Question # 23

Which one of the following is NOT a configurable Compliance Regulation?

A.

GLBA

B.

CJIS

C.

SOCI

D.

NCIPA

Full Access
Question # 24

From SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

Full Access
Question # 25

Alice & Bob are concurrently logged In via SSH on the same Check Point Security Gateway as user "admin* however Bob was first logged in and acquired the lock Alice Is not aware that Bob is also togged in to the same Security Management Server as she is but she needs to perform very urgent configuration changes - which of the following GAlAclish command is true for overriding Bobs configuration database lock:

A.

lock database override

B.

unlock override database

C.

unlock database override

D.

database unlock override

Full Access
Question # 26

By default, how often does Threat Emulation update the engine on the Security Gateway?

A.

Once per day

B.

Once an hour

C.

Once a week

D.

Twice per day

Full Access
Question # 27

When running a query on your logs, to find records for user Toni with machine IP of 10.0.4.210 but exclude her tablet IP of 10.0.4.76, which of the following query syntax would you use?

A.

Toni? AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

B.

To** AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

C.

Ton* AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.75

D.

"Toni" AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

Full Access
Question # 28

John is using Management HA. Which Security Management Server should he use for making changes?

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active SmartConsole

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Log Server

Full Access
Question # 29

Which upgrade method you should use upgrading from R80.40 to R81.20 to avoid any downtime?

A.

Zero Downtime Upgrade (ZDU)

B.

Connectivity Upgrade (CU)

C.

Minimal Effort Upgrade (ME)

D.

Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade (MVC)

Full Access
Question # 30

What are the modes of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

A.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

B.

Cloud. OpenServer and Vmware

C.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

D.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

Full Access
Question # 31

Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

A.

Support for IPv6

B.

Granular access control

C.

Strong user authentication

D.

Secure connectivity

Full Access
Question # 32

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

A.

Admin and Default

B.

Expert and Clish

C.

Control and Monitor

D.

Admin and Monitor

Full Access
Question # 33

You have pushed policy to GW-3 and now cannot pass traffic through the gateway. As a last resort, to restore traffic flow, what command would you run to remove the latest policy from GW-3?

A.

fw unloadlocal

B.

fw unloadpolicy

C.

fwm unload local

D.

fwm unload policy

Full Access
Question # 34

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

Full Access
Question # 35

Which member of a high-availability cluster should be upgraded first in a Zero downtime upgrade?

A.

The Standby Member

B.

The Active Member

C.

The Primary Member

D.

The Secondary Member

Full Access
Question # 36

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n)_____________ Server.

A.

SecurID

B.

NT domain

C.

LDAP

D.

SMTP

Full Access
Question # 37

What is the command switch to specify the Gaia API context?

A.

You have to specify it in the YAML file api.yml which is located underneath the /etc. directory of the security management server

B.

You have to change to the zsh-Shell which defaults to the Gaia API context.

C.

No need to specify a context, since it defaults to the Gaia API context.

D.

mgmt_cli --context gaia_api

Full Access
Question # 38

How can you see historical data with cpview?

A.

cpview -f

B.

cpview -e

C.

cpview -t

D.

cpview -d

Full Access
Question # 39

What is true about VRRP implementations?

A.

VRRP membership is enabled in cpconfig

B.

VRRP can be used together with ClusterXL, but with degraded performance

C.

You cannot have a standalone deployment

D.

You cannot have different VRIDs in the same physical network

Full Access
Question # 40

What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R81.20 code?

A.

Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

B.

Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API

C.

OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API and Policy Editor API

D.

CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

Full Access
Question # 41

Which CLI command will reset the IPS pattern matcher statistics?

A.

ips reset pmstat

B.

ips pstats reset

C.

ips pmstats refresh

D.

ips pmstats reset

Full Access
Question # 42

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Full Access
Question # 43

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

Full Access
Question # 44

Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?

A.

RADIUS server

B.

Username and password (internal, LDAP)

C.

SecurID

D.

TACACS+

Full Access
Question # 45

Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies ae sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Full Access
Question # 46

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

Full Access
Question # 47

What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

A.

With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1

B.

Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

C.

With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported

D.

With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most

Full Access
Question # 48

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

Full Access
Question # 49

What is the difference between an event and a log?

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

Full Access
Question # 50

Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .

A.

TCP Port 18190

B.

TCP Port 18209

C.

TCP Port 19009

D.

TCP Port 18191

Full Access
Question # 51

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulator

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

Full Access
Question # 52

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

Full Access
Question # 53

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

Full Access
Question # 54

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

A.

api stat

B.

api status

C.

show api_status

D.

app_get_status

Full Access
Question # 55

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Full Access
Question # 56

R81.20 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Versions R75 and higher

Full Access
Question # 57

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

A.

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.

Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot

Full Access
Question # 58

The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects with different IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?

A.

add host name ip-address

B.

add hostname ip-address

C.

set host name ip-address

D.

set hostname ip-address

Full Access
Question # 59

The Event List within the Event tab contains:

A.

a list of options available for running a query.

B.

the top events, destinations, sources, and users of the query results, either as a chart or in a tallied list.

C.

events generated by a query.

D.

the details of a selected event.

Full Access
Question # 60

What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

A.

2

B.

1

C.

4

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 61

What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

A.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

B.

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

C.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

D.

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

Full Access
Question # 62

Fill in the blank: The R81 feature _____ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

A.

Block Port Overflow

B.

Local Interface Spoofing

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

D.

Adaptive Threat Prevention

Full Access
Question # 63

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

A.

logd

B.

fwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

Full Access
Question # 64

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

Full Access
Question # 65

To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API

B.

3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

C.

2 Internal; External

D.

4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other

Full Access
Question # 66

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

A.

TCP port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

Full Access
Question # 67

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

Full Access
Question # 68

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

A.

This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.

B.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.

C.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

Full Access
Question # 69

The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

C.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

D.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores.

Full Access
Question # 70

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

Full Access
Question # 71

Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?

A.

HTTPS

B.

RPC

C.

VPN

D.

SIC

Full Access
Question # 72

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

Full Access
Question # 73

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronized changes in the objects database

C.

If you wanted to use Full Connectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

Full Access
Question # 74

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

Full Access
Question # 75

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

Full Access
Question # 76

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

Full Access
Question # 77

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

Full Access
Question # 78

Which features are only supported with R81.20 Gateways but not R77.x?

A.

Access Control policy unifies the Firewall, Application Control & URL Filtering, Data Awareness, and Mobile Access Software Blade policies.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

D.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

Full Access
Question # 79

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

Full Access
Question # 80

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

Full Access
Question # 81

You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

A.

SmartEvent Client Info

B.

SecuRemote

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

Check Point Capsule Cloud

Full Access
Question # 82

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

Full Access
Question # 83

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

Full Access
Question # 84

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

Full Access
Question # 85

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

Full Access
Question # 86

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

Full Access
Question # 87

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0set static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

Full Access
Question # 88

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

Full Access
Question # 89

What is the order of NAT priorities?

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Full Access
Question # 90

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated.

What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

A.

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated.

B.

The connection required a Security server.

C.

Acceleration is not enabled.

D.

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself.

Full Access
Question # 91

What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

156-315.81 question answer

A.

Remove the installed Security Policy.

B.

Remove the local ACL lists.

C.

No effect.

D.

Reset SIC on all gateways.

Full Access
Question # 92

How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

3

Full Access
Question # 93

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

Full Access
Question # 94

Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.

A.

SmartMonitor

B.

SmartView Web Application

C.

SmartReporter

D.

SmartTracker

Full Access
Question # 95

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

Full Access
Question # 96

Office mode means that:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

Full Access
Question # 97

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

156-315.81 question answer

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Full Access
Question # 98

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

Full Access
Question # 99

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

Full Access
Question # 100

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

Full Access
Question # 101

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 102

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

Full Access
Question # 103

What command is used to manually failover a Multi-Version Cluster during the upgrade?

A.

clusterXL_admin down in Expert Mode

B.

clusterXL_admin down in Clish

C.

set cluster member state down in Clish

D.

set cluster down in Expert Mode

Full Access
Question # 104

Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

A.

GUI Client, Security Gateway, WebUI Interface

B.

GUI Client, Security Management, Security Gateway

C.

Security Gateway, WebUI Interface, Consolidated Security Logs

D.

Security Management, Security Gateway, Consolidate Security Logs

Full Access
Question # 105

Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

A.

To satellites through center only.

B.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets.

C.

To center and to other satellites through center.

D.

To center only.

Full Access
Question # 106

For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?

A.

20 minutes

B.

15 minutes

C.

Admin account cannot be unlocked automatically

D.

30 minutes at least

Full Access
Question # 107

Which command would you use to set the network interfaces’ affinity in Manual mode?

A.

sim affinity -m

B.

sim affinity -l

C.

sim affinity -a

D.

sim affinity -s

Full Access
Question # 108

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

Full Access
Question # 109

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

Full Access
Question # 110

What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?

A.

A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.

B.

A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.

C.

Another name for the Clean-up Rule.

D.

Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.

Full Access
Question # 111

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Full Access
Question # 112

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Full Access
Question # 113

Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?

A.

cpwd_admin -l

B.

cpwd -l

C.

cpwd admin_list

D.

cpwd_admin list

Full Access
Question # 114

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

Full Access
Question # 115

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

Full Access
Question # 116

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

Full Access
Question # 117

What is UserCheck?

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

Full Access
Question # 118

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:

A.

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

C.

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

D.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

Full Access
Question # 119

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

Full Access
Question # 120

Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R81.20 based management.

A.

Gateways & Servers --> Compliance View

B.

Compliance blade not available under R81.20

C.

Logs & Monitor --> New Tab --> Open compliance View

D.

Security & Policies --> New Tab --> Compliance View

Full Access
Question # 121

What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

A.

Performs OS-level sandboxing for SandBlast Cloud architecture

B.

Ensure the Check Point SandBlast services is running on the end user’s system

C.

If malware enters an end user’s system, the SandBlast Agent prevents the malware from spreading with the network

D.

Clean up email sent with malicious attachments

Full Access
Question # 122

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

Full Access
Question # 123

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

A.

User Directory

B.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.

Captive Portal

D.

UserCheck

Full Access
Question # 124

What is the command to show SecureXL status?

A.

fwaccel status

B.

fwaccel stats -m

C.

fwaccel -s

D.

fwaccel stat

Full Access
Question # 125

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Full Access
Question # 126

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?

A.

6 GB

B.

8GB with Gaia in 64-bit mode

C.

4 GB

D.

It depends on the number of software blades enabled

Full Access
Question # 127

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

A.

For short connections like http service – delay sync for 2 seconds

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

Full Access
Question # 128

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

Full Access
Question # 129

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

Full Access
Question # 130

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

Full Access
Question # 131

When using CPSTAT, what is the default port used by the AMON server?

A.

18191

B.

18192

C.

18194

D.

18190

Full Access
Question # 132

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

A.

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

Full Access
Question # 133

Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?

A.

SmartEvent Maps

B.

SmartEvent

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

SmartConsole Toolbars

Full Access
Question # 134

When SecureXL is enabled, all packets should be accelerated, except packets that match the following conditions:

A.

All UDP packets

B.

All IPv6 Traffic

C.

All packets that match a rule whose source or destination is the Outside Corporate Network

D.

CIFS packets

Full Access
Question # 135

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

Full Access
Question # 136

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny Template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

Full Access
Question # 137

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

Full Access
Question # 138

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

Full Access
Question # 139

What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

A.

Capsule Workspace

B.

Capsule Mail

C.

Capsule VPN

D.

Secure Workspace

Full Access
Question # 140

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

Full Access
Question # 141

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

Full Access
Question # 142

Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.20 SmartConsole application?

A.

IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation.

B.

Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control.

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction.

D.

Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation.

Full Access
Question # 143

Which GUI client is supported in R81?

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartLog

Full Access
Question # 144

You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R81.20?

A.

dbedit is not supported in R81.20

B.

dbedit is fully supported in R81.20

C.

You can use dbedit to modify threat prevention or access policies, but not create or modify layers

D.

dbedit scripts are being replaced by mgmt_cli in R81.20

Full Access
Question # 145

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

A.

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Full Access
Question # 146

An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

A.

He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.

B.

He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.

C.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.

D.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

Full Access
Question # 147

Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Server showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?

A.

$FWDIR/database/fwauthd.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauth.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/state/fwauthd.conf

Full Access
Question # 148

How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications.

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application.

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation.

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client.

Full Access
Question # 149

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

Full Access
Question # 150

SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

A.

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

B.

detect only

C.

inline/prevent or detect

D.

as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only

Full Access
Question # 151

What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool?

A.

Run the command: fw monitor debug on

B.

Clear the connections table

C.

Disable CoreXL

D.

Disable SecureXL

Full Access
Question # 152

What is the port used for SmartConsole to connect to the Security Management Server?

A.

CPMI port 18191/TCP

B.

CPM port/TCP port 19009

C.

SIC port 18191/TCP

D.

https port 4434/TCP

Full Access
Question # 153

Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

A.

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Full Access
Question # 154

What are the main stages of a policy installations?

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

Full Access
Question # 155

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

Full Access
Question # 156

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enabled which path is handling the traffic?

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

Full Access
Question # 157

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

Full Access
Question # 158

Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?

A.

SOAP

B.

REST

C.

XLANG

D.

XML-RPC

Full Access
Question # 159

With Mobile Access enabled, administrators select the web-based and native applications that can be accessed by remote users and define the actions that users can perform the applications. Mobile Access encrypts all traffic using:

A.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

B.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

C.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, no additional software is required.

D.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, no additional software is required.

Full Access
Question # 160

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

Full Access
Question # 161

Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?

A.

https:// /smartviewweb/

B.

https:// /smartview/

C.

https:// smartviewweb

D.

https:// /smartview

Full Access
Question # 162

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Full Access
Question # 163

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

Full Access
Question # 164

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

Full Access
Question # 165

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

Full Access
Question # 166

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.20 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob –a if

C.

cphaprob –l list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

Full Access
Question # 167

Which statements below are CORRECT regarding Threat Prevention profiles in Smart Dashboard?

A.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule Only.

B.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule only.

C.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

D.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

Full Access
Question # 168

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

A.

cpwd

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

Full Access
Question # 169

Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R81?

A.

SmartConsole

B.

SmartMonitor

C.

SmartEndpoint

D.

SmartDashboard

Full Access
Question # 170

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

Full Access
Question # 171

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

Full Access
Question # 172

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

Full Access
Question # 173

Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

A.

SecuRemote

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

Endpoint Security VPN

D.

Check Point Mobile

Full Access
Question # 174

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

Full Access
Question # 175

Which command shows the current connections distributed by CoreXL FW instances?

A.

fw ctl multik stat

B.

fw ctl affinity -l

C.

fw ctl instances -v

D.

fw ctl iflist

Full Access
Question # 176

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Full Access
Question # 177

NO: 180

What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

A.

cpinfo -hf

B.

cpinfo –y all

C.

cpinfo –get hf

D.

cpinfo installed_jumbo

Full Access
Question # 178

: 156

VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?

A.

The Firewall will drop the packets.

B.

The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel.

C.

The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces.

D.

The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down.

Full Access
Question # 179

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

Full Access
Question # 180

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

A.

cpinfo –h all

B.

cpinfo –o hotfix

C.

cpinfo –l hotfix

D.

cpinfo –y all

Full Access
Question # 181

In R81.20 a new feature dynamic log distribution was added. What is this for?

  • Configure the Security Gateway to distribute logs between multiple active Log Servers to support a better rate of Logs and Log Servers redundancy
  • In case of a Management High Availability the management server stores the logs dynamically on the member with the most available disk space in /var/log
  • Synchronize the log between the primary and secondary management server in case of a Management High Availability
A.

To save disk space in case of a firewall cluster local logs are distributed between the cluster members.

Full Access
Question # 182

Installations and upgrades with CPUSE require that the CPUSE agent is up-to-date. Usually the latest build is downloaded automatically. How can you verify the CPUSE agent build?

A.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

B.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status version

C.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

D.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer agent

Full Access
Question # 183

SecureXL is able to accelerate the Connection Rate using templates. Which attributes are used in the template to identify the connection?

A.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port

B.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port

C.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port. Pro^col

D.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port. Protocol

Full Access
Question # 184

The “MAC magic” value must be modified under the following condition:

A.

There is more than one cluster connected to the same VLAN

B.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Multicast for CCP traffic

C.

There are more than two members in a firewall cluster

D.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Broadcast for CCP traffic

Full Access
Question # 185

Joey want to configure NTP on R81 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

A.

https://

B.

http:// :443

C.

https:// :10000

D.

https:// :4434

Full Access
Question # 186

When detected, an event can activate an Automatic Reaction. The SmartEvent administrator can create and configure one Automatic Reaction, or many, according to the needs of the system. Which of the following statement is false and NOT part of possible automatic reactions:

A.

Syslog

B.

SNMPTrap

C.

Block Source

D.

Mail

Full Access
Question # 187

What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

A.

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

B.

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

C.

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

D.

Use 2 clusters +1st sync + 2nd sync

Full Access
Question # 188

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

A.

Source Address

B.

Destination Address

C.

TCP Acknowledgment Number

D.

Source Port

Full Access