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  • Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20
  • Last Update: Apr 24, 2024
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156-315.81 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Certification

Question # 6

What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

A.

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

B.

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

C.

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

D.

Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL

Full Access
Question # 7

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

Full Access
Question # 8

What is the command to show SecureXL status?

A.

fwaccel status

B.

fwaccel stats -m

C.

fwaccel -s

D.

fwaccel stat

Full Access
Question # 9

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Full Access
Question # 10

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

A.

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

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Question # 11

In ClusterXL Load Sharing Multicast Mode:

A.

only the primary member received packets sent to the cluster IP address

B.

only the secondary member receives packets sent to the cluster IP address

C.

packets sent to the cluster IP address are distributed equally between all members of the cluster

D.

every member of the cluster received all of the packets sent to the cluster IP address

Full Access
Question # 12

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Full Access
Question # 13

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

Full Access
Question # 14

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

Full Access
Question # 15

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

A.

HostName:0>show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0>show installer build

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Question # 16

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

Full Access
Question # 17

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

Full Access
Question # 18

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 19

Which command shows the current connections distributed by CoreXL FW instances?

A.

fw ctl multik stat

B.

fw ctl affinity -l

C.

fw ctl instances -v

D.

fw ctl iflist

Full Access
Question # 20

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

Full Access
Question # 21

On what port does the CPM process run?

A.

TCP 857

B.

TCP 18192

C.

TCP 900

D.

TCP 19009

Full Access
Question # 22

You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R81.20. What tool could you use in this process?

A.

migrate export

B.

upgrade_tools verify

C.

pre_upgrade_verifier

D.

migrate import

Full Access
Question # 23

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with __________________ will not apply.

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

3

D.

2

Full Access
Question # 24

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

Full Access
Question # 25

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Full Access
Question # 26

What is true of the API server on R81.20?

A.

By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.

B.

By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.

C.

By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).

D.

By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand-alone servers with 8GB of RAM (or more).

Full Access
Question # 27

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Full Access
Question # 28

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A.

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Question # 29

What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

A.

Firewall logs

B.

Configuration and database files

C.

System message logs

D.

OS and network statistics

Full Access
Question # 30

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust.

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust.

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

Full Access
Question # 31

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

Full Access
Question # 32

What command lists all interfaces using Multi-Queue?

A.

cpmq get

B.

show interface all

C.

cpmq set

D.

show multiqueue all

Full Access
Question # 33

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 34

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0set static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Question # 35

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

Full Access
Question # 36

: 131

Which command is used to display status information for various components?

A.

show all systems

B.

show system messages

C.

sysmess all

D.

show sysenv all

Full Access
Question # 37

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

Full Access
Question # 38

Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

A.

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Full Access
Question # 39

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

Full Access
Question # 40

Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?

A.

https:// /smartviewweb/

B.

https:// /smartview/

C.

https:// smartviewweb

D.

https:// /smartview

Full Access
Question # 41

Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within:

A.

Summary

B.

Views

C.

Reports

D.

Checkups

Full Access
Question # 42

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

Full Access
Question # 43

What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

A.

Capsule Workspace

B.

Capsule Mail

C.

Capsule VPN

D.

Secure Workspace

Full Access
Question # 44

Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?

A.

SOAP

B.

REST

C.

XLANG

D.

XML-RPC

Full Access
Question # 45

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

Full Access
Question # 46

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Full Access
Question # 47

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

Full Access
Question # 48

Which statement is true about ClusterXL?

A.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)

B.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)

C.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)

D.

Does not support Dynamic Routing

Full Access
Question # 49

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

Full Access
Question # 50

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Full Access
Question # 51

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Full Access
Question # 52

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.20 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob –a if

C.

cphaprob –l list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

Full Access
Question # 53

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny Template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

Full Access
Question # 54

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

Full Access
Question # 55

How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

A.

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

B.

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

C.

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

D.

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

Full Access
Question # 56

Using Threat Emulation technologies, what is the best way to block .exe and .bat file types?

A.

enable DLP and select.exe and .bat file type

B.

enable .exe & .bat protection in IPS Policy

C.

create FW rule for particular protocol

D.

tecli advanced attributes set prohibited_file_types exe.bat

Full Access
Question # 57

What are the blades of Threat Prevention?

A.

IPS, DLP, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

B.

DLP, AntiVirus, QoS, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

C.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot

D.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

Full Access
Question # 58

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Full Access
Question # 59

What is the port used for SmartConsole to connect to the Security Management Server?

A.

CPMI port 18191/TCP

B.

CPM port/TCP port 19009

C.

SIC port 18191/TCP

D.

https port 4434/TCP

Full Access
Question # 60

How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications.

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application.

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation.

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client.

Full Access
Question # 61

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

A.

19090,22

B.

19190,22

C.

18190,80

D.

19009,443

Full Access
Question # 62

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

Full Access
Question # 63

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

A.

For short connections like http service – delay sync for 2 seconds

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

Full Access
Question # 64

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

Full Access
Question # 65

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

Full Access
Question # 66

Which directory below contains log files?

A.

/opt/CPSmartlog-R81/log

B.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/log

C.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/fw1/log

D.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/log

Full Access
Question # 67

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

Full Access
Question # 68

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode.

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA.

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario.

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance.

Full Access
Question # 69

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

Full Access
Question # 70

Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R81?

A.

SmartConsole

B.

SmartMonitor

C.

SmartEndpoint

D.

SmartDashboard

Full Access
Question # 71

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

Full Access
Question # 72

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enabled which path is handling the traffic?

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

Full Access
Question # 73

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

Full Access
Question # 74

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

A.

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Full Access
Question # 75

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

Full Access
Question # 76

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

Full Access
Question # 77

SecureXL improves non-encrypted firewall traffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic throughput.

A.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve all traffic.

B.

This statement is false because SecureXL does not improve this traffic but CoreXL does.

C.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve this traffic.

D.

This statement is false because encrypted traffic cannot be inspected.

Full Access
Question # 78

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

Full Access
Question # 79

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

Full Access
Question # 80

NO: 219

What cloud-based SandBlast Mobile application is used to register new devices and users?

A.

Check Point Protect Application

B.

Management Dashboard

C.

Behavior Risk Engine

D.

Check Point Gateway

Full Access
Question # 81

Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

A.

GUI Client, Security Gateway, WebUI Interface

B.

GUI Client, Security Management, Security Gateway

C.

Security Gateway, WebUI Interface, Consolidated Security Logs

D.

Security Management, Security Gateway, Consolidate Security Logs

Full Access
Question # 82

Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?

A.

SmartEvent Maps

B.

SmartEvent

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

SmartConsole Toolbars

Full Access
Question # 83

The essential means by which state synchronization works to provide failover in the event an active member goes down, ____________ is used specifically for clustered environments to allow gateways to report their own state and learn about the states of other members in the cluster.

A.

ccp

B.

cphaconf

C.

cphad

D.

cphastart

Full Access
Question # 84

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

Full Access
Question # 85

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

A.

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

Full Access
Question # 86

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

A.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

Full Access
Question # 87

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

Full Access
Question # 88

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two.

Which of the following statements correctly identify each product's capabilities?

A.

Workspace supports ios operating system, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports ios operating system and Android only

B.

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

C.

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support and has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password and certain SSO login support.

D.

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support.

Full Access
Question # 89

Fill in the blank. Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is ________ .

A.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Full Access
Question # 90

Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

A.

To satellites through center only.

B.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets.

C.

To center and to other satellites through center.

D.

To center only.

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Question # 91

Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.

A.

SmartMonitor

B.

SmartView Web Application

C.

SmartReporter

D.

SmartTracker

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Question # 92

What command would show the API server status?

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Question # 93

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

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Question # 94

Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R81.20 based management.

A.

Gateways & Servers --> Compliance View

B.

Compliance blade not available under R81.20

C.

Logs & Monitor --> New Tab --> Open compliance View

D.

Security & Policies --> New Tab --> Compliance View

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Question # 95

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

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Question # 96

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 97

Which features are only supported with R81.20 Gateways but not R77.x?

A.

Access Control policy unifies the Firewall, Application Control & URL Filtering, Data Awareness, and Mobile Access Software Blade policies.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

D.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

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Question # 98

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

A.

fw ctl sdstat

B.

fw ctl affinity –l –a –r –v

C.

fw ctl multik stat

D.

cpinfo

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Question # 99

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

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Question # 100

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

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Question # 101

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

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Question # 102

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

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Question # 103

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

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Question # 104

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

A.

2(OS) images

B.

images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the newest image

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Question # 105

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

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Question # 106

What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

A.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

B.

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

C.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

D.

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

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Question # 107

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

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Question # 108

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:

A.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001

B.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191

C.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.

D.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.

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Question # 109

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

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Question # 110

Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?

A.

source port ranges

B.

source ip

C.

source port

D.

same info from Packet Acceleration is used

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Question # 111

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

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Question # 112

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

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Question # 113

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

A.

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.

Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot

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Question # 114

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

A.

api stat

B.

api status

C.

show api_status

D.

app_get_status

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Question # 115

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

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Question # 116

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

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Question # 117

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

A.

TCP port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

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Question # 118

Which is the least ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

A.

Synchronized

B.

Never been synchronized

C.

Lagging

D.

Collision

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Question # 119

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

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Question # 120

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

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Question # 121

On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

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Question # 122

R81.20 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Versions R75 and higher

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Question # 123

What is the difference between an event and a log?

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

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Question # 124

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

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Question # 125

SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

A.

Management Dashboard

B.

Gateway

C.

Personal User Storage

D.

Behavior Risk Engine

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Question # 126

To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API

B.

3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

C.

2 Internal; External

D.

4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other

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Question # 127

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

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Question # 128

Which command lists all tables in Gaia?

A.

fw tab –t

B.

fw tab –list

C.

fw-tab –s

D.

fw tab -1

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Question # 129

In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

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Question # 130

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

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Question # 131

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

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Question # 132

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

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Question # 133

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

A.

logd

B.

fwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

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Question # 134

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronized changes in the objects database

C.

If you wanted to use Full Connectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

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Question # 135

Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?

A.

HTTPS

B.

RPC

C.

VPN

D.

SIC

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Question # 136

Your manager asked you to check the status of SecureXL, and its enabled templates and features. What command will you use to provide such information to manager?

A.

fw accel stat

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fw acces stats

D.

fwaccel stats

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Question # 137

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

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Question # 138

fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?

A.

fwd

B.

cpwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

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Question # 139

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

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Question # 140

What is the correct command to observe the Sync traffic in a VRRP environment?

A.

fw monitor –e “accept[12:4,b]=224.0.0.18;”

B.

fw monitor –e “accept port(6118;”

C.

fw monitor –e “accept proto=mcVRRP;”

D.

fw monitor –e “accept dst=224.0.0.18;”

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Question # 141

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

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Question # 142

Alice wants to upgrade the current security management machine from R80.40 to R81.20 and she wants to check the Deployment Agent status over the GAIA CLISH. Which of the following GAIACLISH command is true?

A.

show agent status

B.

show uninstaller status

C.

show installer packages

D.

show installer status

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Question # 143

After having saved the Cllsh Configuration with the "save configuration config.txt* command, where can you find the config.txt file?

A.

You will find it in the home directory of your usef account (e.g. /home/admirV)

B.

You can locate the file via SmartConsole > Command Line.

C.

You have to launch the WebUl and go to "Config" -> "Export Conflg File" and specifly the destination directory of your local tile system

D.

You cannot locate the file in the file system sine© Clish does not have any access to the bash fie system

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Question # 144

SmartEvent Security Checkups can be run from the following Logs and Monitor activity:

A.

Reports

B.

Advanced

C.

Checkups

D.

Views

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Question # 145

The customer has about 150 remote access user with a Windows laptops. Not more than 50 Clients will be connected at the same time. The customer want to use multiple VPN Gateways as entry point and a personal firewall. What will be the best license for him?

A.

He will need Capsule Connect using MEP (multiple entry points).

B.

Because the customer uses only Windows clients SecuRemote will be sufficient and no additional license is needed

C.

He will need Harmony Endpoint because of the personal firewall.

D.

Mobile Access license because he needs only a 50 user license, license count is per concurrent user.

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Question # 146

Which 3 types of tracking are available for Threat Prevention Policy?

A.

SMS Alert, Log, SNMP alert

B.

Syslog, None, User-defined scripts

C.

None, Log, Syslog

D.

Alert, SNMP trap, Mail

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Question # 147

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

A.

Admin and Default

B.

Expert and Clish

C.

Control and Monitor

D.

Admin and Monitor

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Question # 148

What is the recommended way to have a redundant Sync connection between the cluster nodes?

A.

In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define two Sync interfaces per node. Connect both Sync interfaces

without using a switch.

B.

Use a group of bonded interfaces. In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define a Virtual IP for the Sync

interface.

C.

In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define two Sync interfaces per node. Use two different Switches to

connect both Sync interfaces.

D.

Use a group of bonded interfaces connected to different switches. Define a dedicated sync interface, only one interface per node using the SmartConsole / Gateways &

Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management.

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Question # 149

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

A.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

B.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

C.

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

D.

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

Full Access
Question # 150

What are the two high availability modes?

A.

Load Sharing and Legacy

B.

Traditional and New

C.

Active and Standby

D.

New and Legacy

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Question # 151

Firewall polices must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the GAiA platform if it Firewall software. The Multicast destination assigned by the internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) for VRRP is:

A.

224.0.0.18

B.

224 00 5

C.

224.0.0.102

D.

224.0.0.22

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Question # 152

What is false regarding a Management HA environment?

A.

Only one Management Server should be active, while any others be in standby mode

B.

It is not necessary to establish SIC between the primary and secondary management server, since the latter gets the exact same copy of the management database from the prior.

C.

SmartConsole can connect to any management server in Readonly mode.

D.

Synchronization will occur automatically with each Publish event if the Standby servers are available.

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Question # 153

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A.

URL Filtering and Network

B.

Network and Threat Prevention

C.

Application Control and URL Filtering

D.

Network and Application Control

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Question # 154

When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the hop Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule that matches a packet. Which of the following statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?

A.

If the Action is Accept, the gateway allows the packet to pass through the gateway.

B.

If the Action is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

C.

If the Action is Accept, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

D.

If the Action is Drop, the gateway applies the Implicit Clean-up Rule for that Policy Layer.

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Question # 155

Bob needs to know if Alice was configuring the new virtual cluster interface correctly. Which of the following Check Point commands is true?

A.

cphaprob-aif

B.

cp hap rob state

C.

cphaprob list

D.

probcpha -a if

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Question # 156

What is the base level encryption key used by Capsule Docs?

A.

RSA 2048

B.

RSA 1024

C.

SHA-256

D.

AES

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Question # 157

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identities connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

A.

Source Port

B.

TCP Acknowledgment Number

C.

Source Address

D.

Destination Address

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Question # 158

Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packet acceleration?

A.

Source address

B.

Protocol

C.

Destination port

D.

VLAN Tag

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Question # 159

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

A.

For FTP connections – do not sync

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

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Question # 160

Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?

A.

Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways.

When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.

B.

Route-based- The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to

forward traffic to these VTIs. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.

C.

Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways.

A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

D.

Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

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Question # 161

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

A.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

B.

PKI Certificates and DynamicID OTP

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

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Question # 162

SecureXL is able to accelerate the Connection Rate using templates. Which attributes are used in the template to identify the connection?

A.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port

B.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port

C.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port. Pro^col

D.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port. Protocol

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Question # 163

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A.

Monitoring the status of processes.

B.

Sending and receiving logs.

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server.

D.

Generating and modifying certificates.

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Question # 164

156-315.81 question answer

What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?

A.

Rule 7 was created by the ‘admin’ administrator in the current session

B.

8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation

C.

The rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the ‘admin’ administrator

D.

Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator

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Question # 165

Which command shows only the table names of all kernel tables?

A.

fwtab-t

B.

fw tab -s

C.

fw tab -n

D.

fw tab -k

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Question # 166

What should the admin do in case the Primary Management Server is temporary down?

A.

Use the VIP in SmartConsole you always reach the active Management Server.

B.

The Secondary will take over automatically Change the IP in SmartConsole to logon to the private IP of the Secondary Management Server.

C.

Run the 'promote_util' to activate the Secondary Management server

D.

Logon with SmartConsole to the Secondary Management Server and choose "Make Active' under Actions in the HA Management Menu

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Question # 167

The back-end database for Check Point R81 Management uses:

A.

DBMS

B.

MongoDB

C.

PostgreSQL

D.

MySQL

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Question # 168

In terms of Order Rule Enforcement, when a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

If the Action of the matching rule is Accept the gateway will drop the packet

B.

If the Action of the matching rule is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down

C.

If the Action of the matching rule is Drop the gateway stops matching against later rules in the Policy Rule Base and drops the packet

D.

If the rule does not match in the Network policy it will continue to other enabled polices

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Question # 169

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

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Question # 170

After some changes in the firewall policy you run into some issues. You want to test if the policy from two weeks ago have the same issue. You don't want to lose the changes from the last weeks. What is the best way to do it?

A.

Use the Gaia WebUI to take a backup of the Gateway. In SmartConsole under Security Policies go to the Installation History view of the Gateway, select the policy version

from two weeks ago and press the 'Install specific version' button

B.

Use the Gaia WebUI to take a snapshot of management. In the In SmartConsole under Manage & Settlings go to Sessions -> Revisions and select the revision from two

weeks ago. Run the action 'Revert to this revision...' Restore the management snapshot.

C.

In SmartConsole under Manage & Settings go to Sessions -> Revisions and select the revision from two weeks ago. Run the action 'Revert to this revision...'.

D.

In SmartConsole under Security Policies go to the Installation History view of the Gateway, select the policy version from two weeks ago and press the 'Install specific

version' button

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Question # 171

When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is FALSE?

A.

The state of connections using resources is maintained in a Security Server, so their connections cannot be synchronized.

B.

Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized.

C.

In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly working synchronization.

D.

Client Authentication or Session Authentication connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member fails.

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Question # 172

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

A.

Expert

B.

Clish

C.

Admin

D.

Normal

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Question # 173

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

A.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

B.

Shared User Certificates

C.

Shared Secret Passwords

D.

Unique Passwords

Full Access
Question # 174

Is it possible to establish a VPN before the user login to the Endpoint Client?

A.

yes, you had to set neo_remember_user_password to true in the trac.defaults of the Remote Access Client or you can use the endpoint_vpn_remember_user_password

attribute in the trac_client_1 .ttm file located in the SFWDIR/conf directory on the Security Gateway

B.

no, the user must login first.

C.

yes. you had to set neo_always_connected to true in the trac.defaults of the Remote Access Client or you can use the endpoint_vpn_always_connected attribute in the

trac_client_1 .ttm file located in the SFWDIR/conf directory on the Security Gateway

D.

yes, you had to enable Machine Authentication in the Gateway object of the Smart Console

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Question # 175

What does Backward Compatibility mean upgrading the Management Server and how can you check it?

A.

The Management Server is able to manage older Gateways. The lowest supported version is documented in the Installation and Upgrade Guide

B.

The Management Server is able to manage older Gateways The lowest supported version is documented in the Release Notes

C.

You will be able to connect to older Management Server with the SmartConsole. The lowest supported version is documented in the Installation and Upgrade Guide

D.

You will be able to connect to older Management Server with the SmartConsole The lowest supported version is documented in the Release Notes

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Question # 176

When configuring SmartEvent Initial settings, you must specify a basic topology for SmartEvent to help it calculate traffic direction for events. What is this setting called and what are you defining?

A.

Network, and defining your Class A space

B.

Topology, and you are defining the Internal network

C.

Internal addresses you are defining the gateways

D.

Internal network(s) you are defining your networks

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Question # 177

What is required for a site-to-site VPN tunnel that does not use certificates?

A.

Pre-Shared Secret

B.

RSA Token

C.

Unique Passwords

D.

SecurelD

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Question # 178

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

A.

80

B.

4434

C.

443

D.

8080

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Question # 179

How many versions, besides the destination version, are supported in a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?

A.

1

B.

3

C.

2

D.

4

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Question # 180

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items. Choose the correct statement.

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

B.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

D.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine.

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Question # 181

Sieve is a Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Bank with a large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances Steve's manager. Diana asks him to provide firewall connection table details from one of the firewalls for which he is responsible. Which of these commands may impact performance briefly and should not be used during heavy traffic times of day?

A.

fw tab -t connections -s

B.

fw tab -t connections

C.

fw tab -t connections -c

D.

fw tab -t connections -f

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Question # 182

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server, where it is forwarded to___________via____________

A.

cpd, fwm

B.

cpm, cpd

C.

fwm, cpd

D.

cpwd, fwssd

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Question # 183

Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R81 gateways is installed during the _______ .

A.

Firewall policy install

B.

Threat Prevention policy install

C.

Anti-bot policy install

D.

Access Control policy install

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Question # 184

You have used the "set inactivity-timeout 120" command to prevent the session to be disconnected after 10 minutes of inactivity. However, the Web session is being disconnected after 10 minutes. Why?

A.

The idle timeout for the web session is specified with the "set web session-timeout" command.

B.

The number specified is the amount of the idle timeout in seconds rather than in minutes. So you have to use the command "set inactivity-timeout 600" instead.

C.

Probably, you have forgotten to make sure that nobody is accessing the management server via the SmartConsole which locks the management database.

D.

The number of minutes is correct. Probably, you have forgotten to save this setting with the "save config" command.

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Question # 185

You have pushed policy to GW-3 and now cannot pass traffic through the gateway. As a last resort, to restore traffic flow, what command would you run to remove the latest policy from GW-3?

A.

fw unloadlocal

B.

fw unloadpolicy

C.

fwm unload local

D.

fwm unload policy

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