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156-915.80 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Check Point Certified Security Expert Update - R80.10 Certification

Question # 6

Your organization maintains several IKE VPN’s. Executives in your organization want to know which mechanism Security Gateway R80 uses to guarantee the authenticity and integrity of messages. Which technology should you explain to the executives?

A.

Certificate Revocation Lists

B.

Application Intelligence

C.

Key-exchange protocols

D.

Digital signatures

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Question # 7

You are trying to configureDirectional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. You see the following window.

156-915.80 question answer

What must you enable to see the Directional Match?

A.

directional_match(true) in the objects_5_0.C file on Security Management Server

B.

VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object’s VPN tab

C.

VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced window, in Global Properties

D.

Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway

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Question # 8

You find that Gateway fw2 can NOT be added to the cluster object. What are possible reasons for that?

Exhibit:

156-915.80 question answer

1) fw2 is a member in a VPN community.

2) ClusterXL software blade is not enabled on fw2.

3) fw2 is a DAIP Gateway.

A.

2 or 3

B.

1 or 2

C.

1 or 3

D.

All

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Question # 9

Fill in the blanks. To view the number of concurrent connections going through your firewall, you would use the command and syntax __ ___ __ __________ __ .

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Question # 10

If Jack was concerned about the number of log entries he would receive in the SmartReporter system, which policy would he need to modify?

A.

Log Sequence Policy

B.

Report Policy

C.

Log Consolidator Policy

D.

Consolidation Policy

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Question # 11

Which CLI tool helps on verifying proper ClusterXL sync?

A.

fw stat

B.

fw ctl sync

C.

fw ctl pstat

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 12

Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports in SmartReporter?

A.

InSmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the R80 Security Gateway object

B.

In SmartReporter, under Express > Network Activity

C.

In SmartReporter, under Standard > Custom

D.

In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters

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Question # 13

Can you implement a complete IPv6 deployment without IPv4 addresses?

A.

No. SmartCenter cannot be accessed from everywhere on the Internet.

B.

Yes. Only one TCP stack (IPv6 or IPv4) can be used at the same time.

C.

Yes, There is no requirement for managing IPv4 addresses.

D.

No. IPv4 addresses are required for management.

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Question # 14

Fill in the blank.

156-915.80 question answer

InNew Mode HA, the internal cluster IP VIP address is 10.4.8.3. The internal interfaces on two members are 10.4.8.1 and 10.4.8.2 Internal host 10.4.8.108 pings 10.4.8.3, and receives replies. Review the ARP table from the internal Windows host 10.4.8.108. According to the output, which member is the standby machine?

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Question # 15

To provide full connectivity upgrade status, use command

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Question # 16

What command withappropriate switches would you use to test Identity Awareness connectivity?

A.

test_ldap

B.

test_ad_connectivity

C.

test_ldap_connectivity

D.

test_ad

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Question # 17

Type the full fw command and syntax that will show full synchronization status.

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Question # 18

Fill in the blank with a numeric value. The default port number for Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) connections with the LDAP Serveris

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Question # 19

If your firewall is performing a lot of IPS inspection and the CPUs assigned tofw_worker_thread are at or near 100%, which of the following could you do to improve performance?

A.

Add more RAM to the system.

B.

Add more Disk Drives.

C.

Assign more CPU cores to CoreXL

D.

Assign more CPU cores to SecureXL.

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Question # 20

A ClusterXL configuration is limited to ___ members.

A.

There is no limit.

B.

16

C.

6

D.

2

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Question # 21

Fill in the blank. To save your OSPF configuration in GAiA, enter the command ___________ .

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Question # 22

Which statements about Management HA are correct?

1) Primary SmartCenter describes first installed SmartCenter

2) Active SmartCenter is always used to administrate with SmartConsole

3) Active SmartCenter describes first installed SmartCenter

4) Primary SmartCenter is always used to administrate with SmartConsole

A.

1 and 4

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 2

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 23

Which three of the following are ClusterXL member requirements?

1) same operating systems

2) same Check Point version

3) same appliance model

4) same policy

A.

1, 3, and 4

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

2, 3, and 4

D.

1, 2, and 3

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Question # 24

How many pre-defined exclusions are included by default in SmartEvent R80 as part of the product installation?

A.

5

B.

0

C.

10

D.

3

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Question # 25

What givesadministrators more flexibility when configuring Captive Portal instead of LDAP query for Identity Awareness authentication?

A.

Captive Portal is more secure than standard LDAP

B.

Nothing, LDAP query is required when configuring Captive Portal

C.

Captive Portal works with both configured users and guests

D.

Captive Portal is more transparent to the user

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Question # 26

The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties. He managed to lock all administrators out of their accounts. How should you unlock these accounts?

A.

Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.

B.

Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.

C.

Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the Security Management Server command line.

D.

Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account; right-click on each administrator object and select unlock.

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Question # 27

Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates. SIC Certificates:

A.

Are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartDashboard and the Security Management Server.

B.

For R75 Security Gateways are created during the Security Management Server installation.

C.

Decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the Security Management Servers and the Security Gateway.

D.

Uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as VPN Certificates.

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Question # 28

What type of traffic can be re-directed to the Captive Portal?

A.

SMTP

B.

HTTP

C.

All of the above

D.

FTP

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Question # 29

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimizemalware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants tomove around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

What should John do when he cannot access the web server from a different personal computer?

A.

John should lock and unlock his computer

B.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

C.

The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC

D.

John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

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Question # 30

Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The Firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have its own Policy Package. These rules must be installed on this machine and not onthe Internet Firewall. How can this be accomplished?

A.

A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a Firewall are defined by the selection in the Rule Base row Install On.

B.

When selecting the correct Firewall in each line of the Rule Base row Install On, only this Firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install on Target.

C.

In the menu of SmartDashboard, go to Policy > Policy Installation Targets and select the correct firewall via Specific Targets.

D.

A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point Firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install on Target.

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Question # 31

Your company is running Security Management Server R80 on GAiA, which has been migrated through each version starting from CheckPoint 4.1. How do you add a new administrator account?

A.

Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator

B.

Using SmartDashboard or cpconfig

C.

Using the Web console on GAiA under Product configuration, select Administrators

D.

Using cpconfig on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators

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Question # 32

Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?

A.

$CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib

B.

$FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib

C.

It is obtained only by request from the TAC.

D.

There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.

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Question # 33

Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export?

A.

upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.

B.

Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newer Security Gateway version.

C.

upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included or excluded before exporting.

D.

This command is no longer supported in GAiA.

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Question # 34

Suppose the Security Gateway hard drive fails and you are forced to rebuild it. You have a snapshot file stored to a TFTP server andbackups of your Security Management Server. What is the correct procedure for rebuilding the Gateway quickly?

A.

Reinstall the base operating system (i.e., GAiA). Configure the Gateway interface so that the Gateway can communicate with the TFTP server. Revert to the stored snapshot image, and install the Security Policy.

B.

Run the command revert to restore the snapshot, establish SIC, and install the Policy.

C.

Run the command revert to restore the snapshot. Reinstall any necessary Check Point products. Establish SIC and install the Policy.

D.

Reinstall the base operating system (i.e., GAia). Configure the Gateway interface so that the Gateway can communicate with the TFTP server. Reinstall any necessary Check Point products and previously applied hotfixes.Revert to the stored snapshot image, and install the Policy.

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Question # 35

You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you havecreated an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why.

A.

You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.

B.

Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.

C.

You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.

D.

Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.

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Question # 36

Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R80 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?

A.

Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.

B.

Use Hide NAT for network10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.

C.

Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.

D.

Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

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Question # 37

Your organization’s disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the new distributed R80 installation benefits. Your plan must meet the following required and desired objectives:

Required Objective: The Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.

Desired Objective: The R80 components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up at least once a week.

Desired Objective: Back up R80 logs at least once a week.

Your disasterrecovery plan is as follows:

- Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each night on the Security Management Servers.

- Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the files created by the command upgrade_export.

- Configure the GAiA back up utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night.

- Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each Saturday night on the log servers.

- Configure an automatic, nightly logswitch.

- Configure theorganization's routine back up software to back up the switched logs every night.

Upon evaluation, your plan:

A.

Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.

B.

Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.

C.

Does not meet the required objective.

D.

Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.

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Question # 38

You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner’s access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following:

1)Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

- Allow bi-directional NAT

- Translate destination on client side

Do the above settings limit the partner’s access?

A.

Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.

No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.

C.

Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.

D.

No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.

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Question # 39

You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Serverthat has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewall external interface and the Internet.

What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?

A.

Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.

B.

Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall's external address.

C.

Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.

D.

Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.

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Question # 40

You are running a R80 Security Gateway on GAiA. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What back up method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?

A.

manual backup

B.

upgrade_export

C.

backup

D.

snapshot

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Question # 41

You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You wantinternal users from 10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.

156-915.80 question answer

What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZservers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?

A.

When connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x, configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the Security Gateway DMZ interface.

B.

When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.

C.

When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.

D.

When trying to access DMZ servers, configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind the DMZ’sinterface.

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Question # 42

Your R80 primary Security Management Server is installed on GAiA. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every 48 hours. How do you create this schedule?

A.

On a GAiA Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished byconfiguring the command fw logswitch via the cron utility.

B.

Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.

C.

Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object's Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.

D.

Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object’sGlobal Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch.

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Question # 43

You have created a Rule Base for firewall, websydney. Now you are going to create a new policy package with security and address translation rules for a secondGateway.

156-915.80 question answer

What is TRUE about the new package’s NAT rules?

A.

Rules 1, 2, 3 will appear in the new package.

B.

Only rule 1 will appear in the new package.

C.

NAT rules will be empty in the new package.

D.

Rules 4 and 5 will appear in the new package.

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Question # 44

Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?

A.

fw cpinfo

B.

cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt

C.

diag

D.

cpstat - date.cpstat.txt

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Question # 45

In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:

A.

It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.

B.

It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.

C.

TheSecurity Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.

D.

VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.

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Question # 46

Which of the following allows administrators to allow or deny traffic to or from a specific network based on the user’s credentials?

A.

Access Policy

B.

Access Role

C.

Access Rule

D.

Access Certificate

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Question # 47

Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and enters the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can bedone to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.

A.

You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.

B.

You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter onthe Security Management Server

C.

It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain from Peter’s help.

D.

You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on theSecurity Gateway.

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Question # 48

Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R80 configuration report?

A.

fw cpinfo

B.

infoCP

C.

cpinfo

D.

infoview

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Question # 49

An internal host initiates a session to the Google.com website and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of __________.

A.

client side NAT

B.

source NAT

C.

destination NAT

D.

None of these

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Question # 50

You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNSconfiguration information from your R80 GAiA Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do you use?

A.

Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf

B.

GAiA back up utilities

C.

upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands

D.

Database Revision Control

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Question # 51

You need to change the number of firewall instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

A.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.

cpconfig; reboot required

C.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.

cpconfig: reboot not required

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Question # 52

What’s true about Troubleshooting option in the IPS profile properties?

A.

Temporarily change the active protection profile to “Default_Protection”

B.

Temporarily set all protections to track (log) in SmartView Tracker

C.

Temporarily will disable IPS kernel engine

D.

Temporarily set all active protections to Detect

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Question # 53

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point APIavailable in R80.10?

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

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Question # 54

What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

A.

cpinfo –hf

B.

cpinfo –y all

C.

cpinfo –get hf

D.

cpinfo installed_jumbo

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Question # 55

What processes does CPM control?

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

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Question # 56

R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Version R75 and higher

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Question # 57

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10 GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20 GB

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Question # 58

When configuring SmartEvent Initial settings, you must specify a basic topology for SmartEvent to help it calculate traffic direction for events. What is this setting called, and what are you defining?

A.

Network; and defining your Class A space

B.

Topology; and you are defining the Internal network

C.

Internal addresses; you are defining the gateways

D.

Internal network(s); you are defining your networks

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Question # 59

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulation

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

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Question # 60

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud

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Question # 61

The Regulatory Compliance pane shows compliance statistics for selected regulatory standards, based on the Security Best Practice scan. Which of the following does NOT show in this pane?

A.

The total number ofRegulatory Requirements that are monitored

B.

The Average compliance score for each regulation shown

C.

The average number of Regulatory Requirements that are monitored

D.

The Number of Regulatory Requirements for each Regulation

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Question # 62

What is the proper CLISH syntax to configure a default route via 192.168.255.1 in Gaia?

A.

setstatic-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

B.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway logical eth1 on

C.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

D.

set static-route nexthop default gateway logical 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

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Question # 63

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which ofthose hosts should you try to remediate first?

A.

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.

Host having a Critical event found byAnti-Bot

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Question # 64

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

A.

When a box is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

D.

When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

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Question # 65

Which one ofthe following processes below would not start if there was a licensing issue.

A.

CPD

B.

CPCA

C.

FWM

D.

CPWD

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Question # 66

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the case?

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d–s report

C.

cpstat–f-all

D.

cphaprob –a list

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Question # 67

Which deployment methods can an administrator choose when deploying the Sandblast agent?

A.

Manually installing the deployment agent on each workstation

B.

Use GPO and SCCM to deploy the deployment agent.

C.

Use both SCCM and GPO for the deployment agent and End Point Management to push the Agent.

D.

Use the Configure SandBlast Agent to push the Agent.

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Question # 68

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 69

The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects withdifferent IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?

A.

add host name ip-address

B.

add hostname ip-address

C.

set host name ip-address

D.

set hostname ip-address

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Question # 70

How long may verification of one file take for Sandblast Threat Emulation?

A.

up to 1 minutes

B.

withinseconds cleaned file will be provided

C.

up to 5 minutes

D.

up to 3 minutes

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Question # 71

The Event List within the Events tab contains:

A.

a list of options available for running a query.

B.

the top events, destinations, sources, and users of the query results, either as a chart or in a tallied list.

C.

events generated by a query.

D.

the details of a selected event.

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Question # 72

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A.

fw cti multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw cti multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw cti multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctimultik pq enable

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Question # 73

Which of these options is an implicit MEP option?

A.

Primary-backup

B.

Source addressbased

C.

Round robin

D.

Load Sharing

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Question # 74

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with ___________ will not apply.

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

3

D.

2

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Question # 75

Jack hasfinished building his new SMS server, Red, on new hardware. He used SCP to move over the Red-old.tgz export of his old SMS server. What is the command he will use to import this into the new server?

A.

Expert@Red# ./upgrade import Red-old.tgz

B.

Red> ./migrate import Red-old.tgz

C.

Expert@Red# ./migrate import Red-old.tgz

D.

Red> ./upgrade import Red-old.tgz

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