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Practice Free 200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the Cisco 200-301 Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free 200-301 Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

200-301 question answer

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

Question # 7

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue. Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?

A.

10.8.0.0/16

B.

10.8.64.0/18

C.

10.8.128.0/19

D.

10.8.138.0/24

Question # 8

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

Question # 9

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 10

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

Question # 11

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

A.

Reassociation Request

B.

Probe Request

C.

Authentication Request

D.

Association Request

Question # 12

Which encryption method is used by WPA3?

A.

PSK

B.

TKIP

C.

SAE

D.

AES

Question # 13

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Question # 14

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

Question # 15

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

Question # 16

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 17

What is a DNS lookup operation?

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Question # 18

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

A.

It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.

B.

It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.

C.

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.

D.

It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

E.

It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

Question # 19

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

A.

overlay

B.

northbound

C.

underlay

D.

southbound

Question # 20

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST+ listens and learns for a specific time period?

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

A.

The port transitions to STP blocking

B.

The port transitions to the root port

C.

The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

D.

The port goes into error-disable state

Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which command provides this output?

A.

show ip route

B.

show ip interface

C.

show interface

D.

show cdp neighbor

Question # 23

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 24

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 25

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

Question # 26

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?

A.

209.165.200.0/27

B.

10.10.10.0/28

C.

0.0.0.0/0

D.

10.10.13.0/24

Question # 27

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Question # 28

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

A.

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.

Point-to-Point Protocol

Question # 29

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Question # 30

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to configure router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 31

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributed management functions

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

Question # 32

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

A.

Provide uninterrupted forwarding service.

B.

Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

C.

Provide direct connectivity for end user devices.

D.

Ensure timely data transfer between layers.

E.

Inspect packets for malicious activity.

Question # 33

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

IPv6 address

D.

OSPF process ID

E.

OSPF stub flag

Question # 34

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

Question # 35

What software-defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

A.

data plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

management plane

Question # 36

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Question # 38

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

A.

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Question # 39

By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

Question # 40

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 41

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

A.

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

B.

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

C.

It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

D.

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

Question # 42

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Question # 43

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

Question # 44

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

Question # 45

Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)

A.

Backup device configurations to encrypted USB drives for secure retrieval

B.

maintain network equipment in a secure location

C.

Use a cryptographic keychain to authenticate to network devices

D.

Place internal email and file servers in a designated DMZ

E.

Disable unused or unnecessary ports, interfaces and services

Question # 46

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

A.

redundancy

B.

console

C.

distribution system

D.

service

Question # 47

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

A.

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.

assign it as VLAN 1

D.

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

Question # 48

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 49

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

Internal EIGRP

D.

OSPF

Question # 50

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

Question # 51

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two)

A.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.

This is a root bridge

C.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Question # 52

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

A.

virtual routing and forwarding

B.

network port ID visualization

C.

virtual device contexts

D.

server virtualization

Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 54

What is a feature of WPA?

A.

802.1x authentication

B.

preshared key

C.

TKIP/MIC encryption

D.

small Wi-Fi application

Question # 55

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Question # 56

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

Question # 57

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

Question # 58

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

Question # 59

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to dynamic desirable.

What is the result of this configuration?

A.

The link is in a down state.

B.

The link is in an err-disabled state.

C.

The link becomes an access port.

D.

The link becomes a trunk port.

Question # 60

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

Question # 61

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Question # 62

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

serves as the network aggregation point

B.

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

C.

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

D.

is the backbone for the network topology

E.

physical connection point for a LAN printer

Question # 63

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 64

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the VLAN 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fe80:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Question # 65

How will Link Aggregation be implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in " mode active " .

C.

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

D.

To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

Question # 66

which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

A.

communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

B.

reports device errors to a controller

C.

generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

D.

facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

Question # 67

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 68

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

How many JSON objects are represented?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question # 69

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

Question # 70

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

A.

Ansible

B.

JSON

C.

Chef

D.

Puppet

Question # 71

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

Question # 72

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

A.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

C.

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25

D.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

Question # 73

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 74

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

A.

The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame

B.

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

C.

The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

D.

The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

Question # 75

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

A.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

B.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table.

C.

Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.

D.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Question # 76

Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 77

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.

Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

switchport access vlan 67

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

C.

switchport private-vlan association host 67

D.

switchport trunk native vlan 67

Question # 78

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

A.

lldp timer

B.

lldp holdtime

C.

lldp reinit

D.

lldp tlv-select

Question # 79

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 80

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Question # 81

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 82

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 83

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Question # 84

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment.

Which command must be used to configure the route?

A.

ip route 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.2

B.

route add 10.0.3.0 mask 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3

C.

ip route 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3

D.

route add 10.0.3.0 0.255.255.255 10.0.4.2

Question # 85

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

A.

TACACS server

B.

wireless access point

C.

RADIUS server

D.

wireless LAN controller

Question # 86

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

A.

it enables BPDU messages

B.

It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

C.

It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

D.

It immediately enables the port in the listening state

Question # 87

What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Question # 88

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

A.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

B.

This is a root bridge.

C.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

D.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

E.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

Question # 89

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 90

An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?

A.

Password complexity enable

B.

confreg 0x2142

C.

Login authentication my-auth-list

D.

service password-encryption

Question # 91

How does authentication differ from authorization?

A.

Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

B.

Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access

C.

Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network

D.

Authentication is used to verify a person ' s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

Question # 92

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Question # 93

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

Question # 94

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Question # 95

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Question # 96

What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)

A.

It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN

B.

It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN

C.

It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN

D.

It is at most 32 characters long.

E.

IT provides secured access to a WLAN

Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Question # 98

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

200-301 question answer

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

Question # 99

200-301 question answer

Question # 100

Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 101

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

Question # 102

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A.

TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B.

UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits

C.

UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

D.

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

Question # 103

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for new hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 104

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1

Which configuration must be used?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question # 105

Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 106

How does encryption protect the wireless network?

A.

via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame

B.

via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks

C.

via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it

D.

via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network

Question # 107

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 108

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

Question # 109

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Question # 110

What is a function performed by a web server?

A.

provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

B.

send and retrieve email from client devices

C.

authenticate and authorize a user ' s identity

D.

securely store files for FTP access

Question # 111

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

Question # 112

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Question # 113

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Question # 114

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Question # 115

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 116

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 117

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

A.

192.168.1.226

B.

192.168.1.100

C.

192.168.1.254

D.

192.168.1.253

Question # 118

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

200-301 question answer

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

Question # 119

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

Question # 121

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

A.

The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

C.

The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.

D.

The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

Question # 122

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Question # 123

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

Question # 124

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

Question # 125

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

A.

implemented over a dedicated WAN

B.

located in the same data center as the users

C.

all hosted on physical servers

D.

accessed over the Internet

Question # 126

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

Question # 127

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 128

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Question # 129

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

Question # 130

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

Question # 131

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Question # 132

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10.70.128.0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Question # 133

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Question # 134

Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 135

Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?

A.

pipe

B.

control

C.

transport

D.

tunnel

Question # 136

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

anti-replay

D.

accounting

Question # 137

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

Question # 138

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configuredd on the right. Not all commands are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 139

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

Under Protected Management Frames, set the PMF option to Required.

B.

Enable CCKM under Authentication Key Management.

C.

Set the Fast Transition option and the WPA gtk-randomize State to disable.

D.

Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management.

Question # 140

Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 141

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is represented by " R1 " and " SW1 " within the JSON output?

A.

key

B.

array

C.

value

D.

object

Question # 142

Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

A.

To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices

B.

To centralize device information storage

C.

To implement centralized user account management

D.

To deploy the management plane separately from the rest of the network

Question # 143

Which two VPN technologies are recommanded by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)

A.

site-to-site VPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

GETVPN

D.

IPsec remote access

E.

clientless VPN

Question # 144

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

A.

S 192.168.0.0/20 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

B.

S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

C.

S 192.168.2.0/28 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

D.

S 192.168.1.0/30 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

Question # 145

What is a characteristic of a collapsed-core network topology?

A.

It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.

B.

It enables the core and access layers to connect to one logical distribution device over an EtherChannel.

C.

It enables all workstations in a SOHO environment to connect on a single switch with internet access.

D.

It allows wireless devices to connect directly to the core layer, which enables faster data transmission.

Question # 146

Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:

• using an industry-standard trunking protocol

• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs

How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 147

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 148

What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?

A.

VLAN trunking

B.

tunneling

C.

first hop redundancy

D.

link aggregation

Question # 149

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0 0.0 192.168.0.2

Question # 150

Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?

A.

config sessions maxsessions 0

B.

config sessions timeout 0

C.

config serial timeout 0

D.

config serial timeout 9600

Question # 151

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 152

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 153

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

A.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

B.

filters traffic based on destination IP addressing

C.

sends the default route to the hosts on a network

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Question # 154

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

A.

one

B.

four

C.

seven

D.

nine

Question # 155

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

Question # 156

Refer to the exhibit

.

200-301 question answer

After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?

A.

when 203 0 113.1 is no longer reachable as a next hop B. when the default route learned over external BGP becomes invalid

B.

when a route to 203.0 113 1 is learned via BGP

C.

when the default route over external BGP changes its next hop

Question # 157

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

Question # 158

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

Question # 159

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configuredd in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interface of the WLC.

E.

configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

A.

The QoS policy is dropping traffic.

B.

There is a duplex mismatch.

C.

The link is over utilized.

D.

The MTU is not set to the default value.

Question # 161

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?200-301 question answer

A.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.252

B.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.248

C.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0

D.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

Question # 162

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question # 163

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The P2P blocking action option is disabled on the WLC.

A.

Enable the Static IP Tunneling option.

B.

Disable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Check the DHCP Addr. Assignment check box.

D.

Set the P2P Blocking Action option to Forward-UpStream.

Question # 164

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

A.

UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.

B.

TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out- of-order.

C.

TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.

D.

UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

Question # 165

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IIP address 192.168.0.10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

A.

The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly

B.

The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic

C.

The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2

D.

The traffic to 192.168.0.10 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.

Question # 166

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

Question # 167

hostname CPE

service password-encryption

ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

ip name-server 198.51.100.210

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

username admin privilege 15 secret s0m3s3cr3t

line vty 0 4

transport input ssh

login local

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

no ip name-server 198.51.100.210

B.

no login local

C.

no service password-encryption

D.

no ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

E.

no hostname CPE

Question # 168

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 169

By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?

A.

200 seconds

B.

300 seconds

C.

600 seconds

D.

900 seconds

Question # 170

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

A.

user training

B.

user awareness

C.

vulnerability verification

D.

physical access control

Question # 171

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

A.

ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1

B.

ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

C.

ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10

D.

ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10

Question # 172

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 173

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 174

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right Not all options are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 175

What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?

A.

It serves as a sequence tag on SNMP traffic messages.

B.

It serves as a password to protect access to MIB objects.

C.

It passes the Active Directory username and password that are required for device access

D.

It translates alphanumeric MIB output values to numeric values.

Question # 176

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

A.

northbound interface

B.

software virtual interface

C.

southbound interface

D.

tunnel Interface

Question # 177

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question # 178

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?

A.

It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

B.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

C.

It discards the packets.

D.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address.

Question # 179

Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

A.

SLB

B.

FHRP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRP

Question # 180

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

Question # 181

Which property is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?

A.

Both require fiber cable media for transmission.

B.

Both require UTP cable media for transmission.

C.

Both use the single-mode fiber type.

D.

Both use the multimode fiber type.

Question # 182

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 183

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?

A.

Uncheck the Guest User check box

B.

Check the Guest User Role check box

C.

Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0

D.

Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value

Question # 184

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 185

Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

A.

Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtain insights, and traditional campus management requires manual analysis.

B.

Cisco DNA Center handles management tasks at the controller to reduce the load on infrastructure devices, and traditional campus management uses the data backbone.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages YANG and NETCONF to assess the status of fabric and nonfabric devices, and traditional campus management uses CLI exclusively.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automatically compares security postures among network devices, and traditional campus management needs manual comparisons.

Question # 186

How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

A.

TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately.

B.

TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.

C.

TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments.

D.

TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering.

Question # 187

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

200-301 question answer200-301 question answer

Question # 188

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 question answer

Question # 189

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 question answer

Question # 190

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

200-301 question answer200-301 question answer

Question # 191

200-301 question answer

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

200-301 question answer

Question # 192

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 question answer

Question # 193

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Question # 194

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Question # 195

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

200-301 question answer200-301 question answer

Question # 196

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Question # 197

200-301 question answer

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

200-301 question answer

Question # 198

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

A.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

Question # 199

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which functionalities will this SSID have while being used by wirelesss clients?

A.

decreases network security against offline dictionary attacks and encourages easy access to the network

B.

increases network security against offline dictionary attacks and discourages time-consuming brute force attacks

C.

increases network security against man in the middle attacks and discourages denial of service attacks

D.

decreases network security against air sniffing attacks and discourages the use of complex passwords

Question # 200

How does MAC learning function?

A.

rewrites the source and destination MAC addresss

B.

adds unknown source MAC addressses to the CAM table

C.

sends the frame back to the source to verify availability

D.

drops received MAC addressses not listed in the addresss table

Question # 201

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Question # 202

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wirelesss LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

A.

Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.

B.

Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.

C.

Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

D.

Enable the WPA Policy.

Question # 203

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

A.

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

Question # 204

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IIP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

Question # 205

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Faster changes with more reliable results

B.

Reduced operational costs

C.

Fewer network failures

D.

Reduced hardware footprint

E.

Increased network security

Question # 206

What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3.

B.

The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover.

C.

The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network.

D.

The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair.

Question # 207

Which architecture is best for small offices with minimal wirelesss needs and no central management?

A.

cloud-based AP

B.

split MAC

C.

autonomous AP

D.

mesh network

Question # 208

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

200-301 question answer

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

bad NIC

C.

high throughput

D.

broadcast storm

Question # 209

Which interface IP addressss serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets froin the WLC to an AP?

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

Question # 210

A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP addressss of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?

A.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 25

C.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 track 1

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 20

Question # 211

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Question # 212

What describes a northbound REST API for SDN?

A.

application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests

B.

network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods

C.

network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes

D.

application-facing interface for GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

Question # 213

What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

A.

In-band management via an asynchronous transport

B.

out-of-band management via an IP transport

C.

in-band management via an IP transport

D.

out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport

Question # 214

Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?

A.

SSH

B.

SNMP

C.

Kerberos

D.

Telnet

Question # 215

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers froin the failure of an edge routing device

Question # 216

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

A.

Ri(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.62R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5 2

B.

Ri(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

C.

Ri(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5

D.

Ri(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

Question # 217

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The switch cat9k acc.1 connects users to the campus LAN. Printing services are inaccessible through the network. Which interface issue is causing the connectivity problems?

A.

A large number of broadcast packets are resulting in a port reset

B.

Excessive collisions are causing dropped frames.

C.

The interface output queue cannot process the Ethernet frames.

D.

A bad checksum is causing Ethernet frames to drop.

Question # 218

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and pre-shared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option froin the Layer 2 Security drop-down, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two)

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes

B.

Select ASCII froin the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank

C.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes

D.

Select CCKM for the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to Hex, and enter the key

E.

Select PSK froin the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key

Question # 219

Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

A.

AES

B.

TKIP

C.

PEAP

D.

EAP

Question # 220

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

A.

The domain name server is unreachable.

B.

LAN and WAN network segments are different.

C.

IP addressss assignment is incorrect.

D.

The default gateway should be the first usable IP addressss.

Question # 221

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

200-301 question answer

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

queueing

C.

bad NIC

D.

broadcast storm

Question # 222

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168.16.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

Question # 223

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

PC A is communicating with another device at IIP address 10.227.225.255. Through which router does router Y route the traffic?

A.

router A

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router D

Question # 224

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is missing from this output for it to be executed?

A.

double quotes C " ) around the " Cisco Devices " string

B.

curly brace ()) at the end

C.

exclamation point (!) at the beginning of each line

D.

square bracket ([) at the beginning

Question # 225

A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require

A.

Unlike lightweight access points, which require redundant WLCs to support firmware upgrades, autonomous access points require only one WLC.

B.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points store a complete copy of the current firmware for backup.

C.

Unlike lightweight access points, autonomous access points can recover automatically from a corrupt firmware update.

D.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC to implement remote firmware updates.

Question # 226

What is the function of a controller in a software-defined network?

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

forwarding packets

C.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

D.

setting packet-handling policies

Question # 227

How does IPsec provide secure networking for applications within an organization?

A.

It takes advantage of FTP to secure file transfers between nodes on the network.

B.

It provides GRE tunnels to transmit traffic securely between network nodes.

C.

It enables sets of security associations between peers.

D.

It leverages TFTP providing secure file transfers among peers on the network.

Question # 228

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wirelesss LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLan " has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?

A.

There is a strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using x.509 standard.

B.

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addressses connect to the network.

C.

There is a robust security mechanism configured to protect against various Layer 2 and Layer 3 attacks.

D.

There is Galois cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication.

Question # 229

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

A.

GigabitEthernet0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Null0

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

Question # 230

A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?

A.

/64

B.

/96

C.

/124

D.

/128

Question # 231

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 232

What is represented in line 3 within this JSDN schema?

200-301 question answer

A.

object

B.

key

C.

array

D.

value

Question # 233

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements:

• Consume as few IP addresssses as possible.

• Leave at least two additional useable IP addresssses for future growth.

Which set of configurations must be applied?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 234

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and pre-shared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option froin the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes.

B.

Select ASCII froin the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank.

C.

Select PSK froin the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key.

D.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes.

Question # 235

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization

B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable

C.

when the addressses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addressses

D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet

Question # 236

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middIe attacks?

A.

Telnet

B.

console

C.

HTTPS

D.

SSH

Question # 237

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination addresss of 10.10.10.147?

A.

Serial 0/0

B.

FastEthernet 0/2

C.

FastEthernet 0/0

D.

FastEthernet 0/1

Question # 238

Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?

A.

service port

B.

virtual

C.

AP-Manager

D.

dynamic

Question # 239

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?

A.

Port security

B.

High throughput

C.

Cable disconnect

D.

duplex mismatch

Question # 240

What does WPA3 provide in wirelesss networking?

A.

safeguards against brute force attacks with SAE

B.

optional Protected Management Frame negotiation

C.

backward compatibility with WPAand WPA2

D.

increased security and requirement of a complex configuration

Question # 241

Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

A.

virtual interface

B.

management interface

C.

console port

D.

service port

Question # 242

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addressses?

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

Question # 243

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSDN data is shown?

A.

sequence

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

Question # 244

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 245

What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

A.

DHCPREQUEST

B.

DHCPDISCOVER

C.

DHCPACK

D.

DHCPOFFER

Question # 246

Which authentication method requires the user to provide a physical attribute to authenticate successfully?

A.

password

B.

muftifactor

C.

biometric

D.

certificate

Question # 247

What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local addresss and a unique local addresss?

A.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local addresss is limited to a loopback addresss, and an IPv6 unique local addresss is limited to a directly attached interface.

B.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local addresss can be used throughout a company site or network, but an IPv6 unique local addresss is limited to a loopback addresss.

C.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local addresss is global, but the scope of an IPv6 unique local addresss is limited to a loopback addresss.

D.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local addresss is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local addresss is used throughout a company site or network.

Question # 248

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

A.

EIGRP

B.

OSPF

C.

RIP

D.

Local

Question # 249

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

A.

802.1q trunks

B.

Cisco vPC

C.

LLDP

D.

LACP

Question # 250

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

Question # 251

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default helto timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Question # 252

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The IP domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Question # 253

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

Question # 254

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 255

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW1. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 256

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

Question # 257

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

A.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Question # 258

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet?

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

Question # 259

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

A.

Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B.

Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C.

Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

D.

Accept: application/json

Question # 260

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 261

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

Question # 262

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

A.

modify helto interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Question # 263

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Question # 264

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Question # 265

Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

A.

0050.0c05.ad81

B.

0007.c061.bc01

C.

0000.5E00.0101

D.

0500.3976.6401

Question # 266

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

Question # 267

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

Question # 268

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

Question # 269

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

Question # 270

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Question # 271

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the user wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 272

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

B.

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

C.

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

D.

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Question # 273

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Question # 274

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

Question # 275

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

A.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

B.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

C.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmetrical

D.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Question # 276

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Question # 277

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 278

Which type of traffic is sent with pure IPsec?

A.

broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites

B.

multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location

C.

spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites

D.

unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

Question # 279

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

A.

Each device is separated by the same number of hops

B.

It provides variable latency

C.

It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.

D.

Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Question # 280

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

Question # 281

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Question # 282

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Question # 283

What does physical access control regulate?

A.

access to specific networks based on business function

B.

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

C.

access to computer networks and file systems

D.

access to networking equipment and facilities

Question # 284

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

Question # 285

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Question # 286

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

Question # 287

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Helto packets

Question # 288

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

Question # 289

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

A.

configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

B.

enable SLAAC on an interface

C.

disable the EUI-64 bit process

D.

explicitly assign a link-local address

Question # 290

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

Question # 291

What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

A.

Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

B.

Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

C.

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

D.

explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

Question # 292

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

Question # 293

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in " mode active "

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Question # 294

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

A.

cost

B.

administrative distance

C.

metric

D.

as-path

Question # 295

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

Question # 296

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

Question # 297

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

A.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

Question # 298

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Question # 299

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

Question # 300

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Question # 301

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Question # 302

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 303

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 304

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

Question # 305

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Question # 306

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Question # 307

A network analyst is tasked with configure the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

A.

Clock timezone

B.

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.

Clock summer-time date

D.

Clock set

Question # 308

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Question # 309

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Question # 310

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168 26.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

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