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Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?
Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.
Drag and drop the network topology architecture types from the left onto the corresponding function on the right. Not all architecture types are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:
• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2
• R1 will never participate in DR elections
• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.
Which configuration must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?
A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?
What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?
Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?
Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Why implement VRRP?
Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >
An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP address and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user's computer?
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
A)
B)
C)
D)
NO: 346
What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?
Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.
Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by "R1" and "SW1" within the JSON output?
What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP
What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the Lo2 interface on the New York router?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets are flowing from 192.168 10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20 75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?
What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided
• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports
• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3
• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?
Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?
Refer to the exhibit.
In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?
Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?
Which set of methods is supported with the REST API?
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)
Refer to the Exhibit.
After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.
Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?
Which option about JSON is true?
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?
How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.
What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If
the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
How many JSON objects are presented?
What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?
Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria?
• Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters
• Auto detection MDi-X is unavailable
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
What is a characteristic of RSA?
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.
What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
Refer to the exhibit.
An architect is managing a wireless network with APs from several branch offices connecting to the WLC in the data center. There is a new requirement for a single WLAN to process the client data traffic without sending it to the WLC. Which action must be taken to complete the request?
A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.
Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?
What is the role of the root port in a switched network?
What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security? (Choose two.)
What is a purpose of traffic shaping?
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?
Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:
• using an industry-standard trunking protocol
• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs
How must the interconnecting ports be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request
What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that recently aged out?
How is a configuration change made to a wireless AP in lightweight mode?
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?
Refer to the exhibit An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1 Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?
What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?
How does network automation help reduce network downtime?
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?
What describes a northbound REST API for SON?
Which EtherChannel mode must be configured when using LAG on a WLC?
Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?
What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command provides this output?
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
Refer to exhibit.
Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
Refer to Exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?
When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?
Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
What is the purpose of an SSID?
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
Refer to the exhibit.
What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?
Refer to the exhibit.
If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?
Where does wireless authentication happen?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.)
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?
Which interface condition is occurring in this output?
What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23
Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?
How does MAC learning function?
Refer to the exhibit.
Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the function of generative AI in network operations?
Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?
What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:
Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.
Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.
Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?
Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?
Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate, register, and accept terms before accessing the internet?
What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?
Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)
Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?
Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?
What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7
10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6
10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4
10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?
Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
10.174.208.210/28 [110/2708] via G0/21
10.174.208.210/28 [110/25445] via G0/20
10.174.208.210/28 [120/1] via G0/12
10.174.208.210/28 [120/4] via G0/16
What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?
Refer to the exhibit.
Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?
How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?
Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.
Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table
How does the switch handle the frame?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID "Office_WLan" has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?
How does MAC learning function?
Why would a network administrator implement the HSRP protocol?
Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)
Which statement describes virtualization on containers?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?
Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?
Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.
Which set of actions corrects the configuration?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
How does automation affect network management processes?
Which combination of methods satisfies the minimum security requirements when a new multifactor authentication solution is deployed?
A network security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?
Which key function is provided by the data plane?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers In the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?
Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?
Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?
Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?
An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?
In which way does generative AI aid network simulations?
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
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