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Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue. Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?
Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
Which encryption method is used by WPA3?
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

What is a DNS lookup operation?
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST+ listens and learns for a specific time period?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Refer to the exhibit.

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to configure router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
What software-defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?
Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
How is the native VLAN secured in a network?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two)
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What is a feature of WPA?
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to dynamic desirable.
What is the result of this configuration?
An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the VLAN 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
How will Link Aggregation be implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment.
Which command must be used to configure the route?
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
Refer to the exhibit.

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?
How does authentication differ from authorization?
Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for new hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:
• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2
• R1 will never participate in DR elections
• R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1
Which configuration must be used?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.

How does encryption protect the wireless network?
Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
What is a function performed by a web server?
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?
(Choose two.)
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?
What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10.70.128.0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?
Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?
Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configuredd on the right. Not all commands are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by " R1 " and " SW1 " within the JSON output?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?
Which two VPN technologies are recommanded by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?
What is a characteristic of a collapsed-core network topology?
Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:
• using an industry-standard trunking protocol
• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs
How must the interconnecting ports be configured?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?
Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?
Refer to the exhibit.

How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.
A)

B)

C)

D)

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements
• Create 8 new subnets
• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet
• A Layer 3 interface is used
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?
Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit
.

After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?
Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?
SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configuredd in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

The P2P blocking action option is disabled on the WLC.
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
Refer to the exhibit.

User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IIP address 192.168.0.10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?
Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?
hostname CPE
service password-encryption
ip domain name ccna.cisco.com
ip name-server 198.51.100.210
crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024
username admin privilege 15 secret s0m3s3cr3t
line vty 0 4
transport input ssh
login local
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right

By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?
To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?
Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right Not all options are used.

What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?
Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:
• Only Telnet access is allowed.
• The enable password must be stored securely.
• The enable password must be applied in plain text.
• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.
Which configuration script meets the requirements?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?
Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?
Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?
Which property is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?
How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.


All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.



Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.



IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.


Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.





IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

Refer to the exhibit. Which functionalities will this SSID have while being used by wirelesss clients?
How does MAC learning function?
What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wirelesss LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?
What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)
What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?
Which architecture is best for small offices with minimal wirelesss needs and no central management?
Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

Which interface IP addressss serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets froin the WLC to an AP?
A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP addressss of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?
What describes a northbound REST API for SDN?
What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?
Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?
What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.

The switch cat9k acc.1 connects users to the campus LAN. Printing services are inaccessible through the network. Which interface issue is causing the connectivity problems?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and pre-shared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option froin the Layer 2 Security drop-down, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two)
Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?
Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?
Refer to the exhibit.

PC A is communicating with another device at IIP address 10.227.225.255. Through which router does router Y route the traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is missing from this output for it to be executed?
A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require
What is the function of a controller in a software-defined network?
How does IPsec provide secure networking for applications within an organization?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wirelesss LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLan " has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?
A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What is represented in line 3 within this JSDN schema?

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements:
• Consume as few IP addresssses as possible.
• Leave at least two additional useable IP addresssses for future growth.
Which set of configurations must be applied?
A)

B)

C)

D)


Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and pre-shared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option froin the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middIe attacks?

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination addresss of 10.10.10.147?
Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?
What does WPA3 provide in wirelesss networking?
Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?
What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addressses?

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSDN data is shown?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?
Which authentication method requires the user to provide a physical attribute to authenticate successfully?
What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local addresss and a unique local addresss?

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW1. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet?
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the user wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?


Which type of traffic is sent with pure IPsec?
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
How does QoS optimize voice traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
What does physical access control regulate?
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
Refer to the exhibit.


A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
Refer to Exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
Refer to the exhibit.

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.
Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A network analyst is tasked with configure the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
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