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Practice Free 200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the Cisco 200-301 Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free 200-301 Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

Question # 7

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

Question # 8

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Question # 9

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0 ' 1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Question # 10

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Question # 11

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

Question # 12

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

A.
B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

Question # 13

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

A.

1

B.

24

C.

192.168.10.2

D.

0

Question # 14

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

A.

EIGRP

B.

OSPF

C.

Local

D.

RIP

Question # 15

Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?

A.

Default

B.

Access

C.

Trunk

D.

LAG

Question # 16

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 17

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 18

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

A.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

Question # 19

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses

D.

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

Question # 20

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Question # 22

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addresses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP address

Question # 23

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

Question # 25

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

Question # 26

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

Question # 27

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Question # 28

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/2 0

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

Question # 29

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

A.

1

B.

24

C.

192.168.10.2

D.

0

Question # 30

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 31

200-301 question answer

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

200-301 question answer

Question # 32

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

Question # 33

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

A.

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

Question # 34

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

Question # 35

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?

A.

SW1#(config-line)#login local??SW1#(config-line)#exit??SW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

B.

SW1#(config-line)#login local??SW1#(config-line)#exit??SW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1#(config-line)#transport input ssh??SW1#(config-line)#exit??SW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1#(config-line)#exit??SW1(config)#aaa new-model

Question # 36

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

Question # 37

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Question # 38

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

it supports protocol discovery

Question # 39

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Question # 40

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Question # 41

How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

A.

To define the network path the API request should take

B.

To uniquely identify each client application

C.

To specify the type of data format the client prefers to receive

D.

To encrypt data sent in the API request

Question # 42

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Question # 43

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

Question # 44

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 45

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

A.

cost 20

B.

cost 30

C.

cost 40

D.

cost 50

Question # 46

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Question # 47

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

A.

Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

B.

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

C.

allows application developers to interact with the network

D.

integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

Question # 48

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

A.

The link is in a down state.

B.

The link is in an error disables state

C.

The link is becomes an access port.

D.

The link becomes a trunk port.

Question # 49

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

Question # 50

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

A.

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

channel-group 1 mode on

C.

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

channel-group 1 mode active

Question # 51

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLAN " has Layer 2 Security configured with MAC filtering enabled. What additional security is provided by this specific feature?

A.

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addresses connect to the network

B.

There is strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using X.509 standard

C.

All data frames exchanged between the client and the access point are encrypted

D.

There is a Galcis cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication

Question # 52

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

A.

Add a " permit ip any any " statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a " permit ip any any " statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Question # 53

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?

A.

GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/0

C.

GigabitEthernet2/0

D.

Null0

Question # 54

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

Question # 55

A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?

A.

ipconfig /renew

B.

ipconfig

C.

ipconfig /all

D.

ipconfig /displaydns

Question # 56

Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

A.

Informational

B.

debugging

C.

alerts

D.

notifications

Question # 57

Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?

A.

Containers

B.

Cloud computing

C.

Application hosting

D.

Virtualization

Question # 58

What is represented by the word " LB13 " within this JSON schema?

200-301 question answer

A.

value

B.

object

C.

array

D.

key

Question # 59

Which protocol is implemented when an organization must verify network performance, troubleshoot issues, and use an agent to communicate between monitoring tools and end devices?

A.

SNMP

B.

FTP

C.

NTP

D.

NFS

Question # 60

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

Question # 61

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

A.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

B.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

C.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

D.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

E.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

Question # 62

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 63

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

Question # 64

200-301 question answer

200-301 question answer

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Question # 65

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?

A.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point

B.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf cost 5

C.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf 1 area 2

D.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1

Question # 66

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

A.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

C.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.

D.

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

Question # 67

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

Question # 68

An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

A.

255.255.255.224

B.

255.255.255.248

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.252

Question # 69

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?

A.

SW1#(config-line)#login local??SW1#(config-line)#exit??SW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

B.

SW1#(config-line)#login local??SW1#(config-line)#exit??SW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1#(config-line)#transport input ssh??SW1#(config-line)#exit??SW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1#(config-line)#exit??SW1(config)#aaa new-model

Question # 70

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Question # 71

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

Question # 72

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

Question # 73

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

Provides a single broadcast domain for all connected devices

B.

Performs packet fragmentation and reassembly

C.

Tracks the number of active TCP connections

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

Question # 74

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Question # 75

Which option about JSON is true?

A.

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

B.

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C.

used for storing information

D.

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

Question # 76

How is AI used to identify issues within network traffic?

A.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds

B.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection

C.

It exclusively predicts device malfunctions

D.

It guarantees zero packet loss in the network

Question # 77

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

Question # 78

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 79

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

A.

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.

They assign IP addresses to devices.

C.

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

Question # 80

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.

Which set of actions corrects the configuration?

A.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.248.

B.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the DNS servers to 172.16.1.12 and 172.16.1.13.

C.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the default gateway to 172.16.1.7.

D.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the DNS server to 172.16.1.12 only.

Question # 81

Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wireless authentication?

A.

Client Exclusion and SSH

B.

802.1x and the MAC address of the server

C.

Network Access Control State and SSH

D.

AAA Override and the IP address of the server

Question # 82

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

Question # 83

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Question # 84

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 85

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

A.

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

B.

a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

C.

usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

D.

a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

Question # 86

What is a DNS lookup operation?

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Question # 87

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

A.

on the router closest to the server

B.

on the router closest to the client

C.

on every router along the path

D.

on the switch trunk interface

Question # 88

Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?

A.

Containers

B.

Cloud computing

C.

Application hosting

D.

Virtualization

Question # 89

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

Question # 90

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

Question # 91

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 92

Which cloud-provided service allows an organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

infrastructure-as-a-service

D.

network-as-a-service

Question # 93

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

A.

5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoveriapping channels.

B.

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.

C.

5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

D.

Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

E.

Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoveriapping channels.

Question # 94

Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

A.

Shaping

B.

Policing

C.

Weighted fair queuing

D.

FIFO

Question # 95

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

Question # 96

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

Question # 97

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the Internet?

A.

host route

B.

floating static route

C.

default route

D.

network route

Question # 98

Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)

A.

Policing is not supported on subinterfaces.

B.

Shaping and rate limiting have the same effect.

C.

Shaping drops excessive traffic without adding traffic delay.

D.

Shaping levels out traffic bursts by delaying excess traffic.

E.

Policing is performed in the inbound and outbound directions.

Question # 99

Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)

A.

Policing is not supported on subinterfaces.

B.

Shaping and rate limiting have the same effect.

C.

Shaping drops excessive traffic without adding traffic delay.

D.

Shaping levels out traffic bursts by delaying excess traffic.

E.

Policing is performed in the inbound and outbound directions.

Question # 100

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

Question # 101

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

A.

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

B.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

C.

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

D.

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

E.

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

Question # 102

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Question # 103

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

A.

adminadmin123

B.

default

C.

testing 1234

D.

cisco123

Question # 104

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 105

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

Question # 106

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

A.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.

This is a root bridge

C.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Question # 107

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

Question # 108

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

Question # 109

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

A.

10.0.1.3

B.

10.0.1.50

C.

10.0.1.4

D.

Loopback D

Question # 110

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

A.

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

B.

The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

C.

Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

D.

The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

Question # 111

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

B.

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

C.

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

D.

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Question # 112

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Question # 113

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

Question # 114

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

Question # 115

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

A.

lt drops the frame immediately.

B.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

C.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

D.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

Question # 116

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors ' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

A.

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

Question # 117

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

A.

TACACS server

B.

wireless access point

C.

RADIUS server

D.

wireless LAN controller

Question # 118

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 question answer

Question # 119

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?

A.

10

B.

0

C.

1

D.

110

Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

A.

It forwards it out G0/3 only

B.

It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

C.

It drops the frame.

D.

It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

Question # 121

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

A.

overlay

B.

northbound

C.

underlay

D.

southbound

Question # 122

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 question answer

Question # 123

Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 124

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 125

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

Question # 126

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

Question # 127

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

Question # 128

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

A.

WPA2 + AES

B.

WPA + AES

C.

WEP

D.

WPA + TKIP

Question # 129

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

Question # 130

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 131

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 132

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

Question # 133

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 134

200-301 question answer

SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 135

Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?

A.

SSH

B.

SNMP

C.

Kerberos

D.

Telnet

Question # 136

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

A.

northbound interface

B.

software virtual interface

C.

southbound interface

D.

tunnel Interface

Question # 137

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Question # 138

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

Question # 139

A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?

A.

high bandwidth usage

B.

a physical cable fault

C.

a speed mismatch

D.

a cable that is too long

Question # 140

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

Question # 141

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

A.

The port transitions to STP blocking

B.

The port transitions to the root port

C.

The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

D.

The port goes into error-disable state

Question # 143

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

A.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

C.

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25

D.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

Question # 144

What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

authorizing potentially compromised wireless traffic

B.

inspecting specific files and file types for malware

C.

authenticating end users

D.

URL filtering

Question # 145

in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

Question # 146

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

Question # 147

How does MAC learning function on a switch?

A.

broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table

C.

sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received

D.

sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group

Question # 148

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 149

Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?

A.

AES256

B.

AES

C.

RC4

D.

SHA

Question # 150

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

A.

user training

B.

user awareness

C.

vulnerability verification

D.

physical access control

Question # 151

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Question # 152

A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20 network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 153

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

A.

255.255.254.0

B.

255.255.255.240

C.

255.255.255.248

D.

255.255.255.252

Question # 154

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 155

What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

A.

to mitigate delays over slow links

B.

to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

C.

to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to

D.

be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

Question # 156

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 157

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Question # 158

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

Question # 159

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

A.

It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.

B.

It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.

C.

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.

D.

It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

E.

It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

Question # 160

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

A.

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

B.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

C.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

D.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

E.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

Question # 161

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

A.

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

B.

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

C.

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

D.

physical workstations are configured to share resources

Question # 162

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch are added with redundant connections between them.

B.

A spine switch is added with at least 40?GB uplinks.

C.

A leaf switch is added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch is added with connections to every spine switch.

Question # 163

Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

A.

mesh

B.

local

C.

bridge

D.

point-to-point

Question # 164

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

A.

UDP

B.

RTP

C.

TCP

D.

IP

E.

ARP

Question # 165

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

A.

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

channel-group 1 mode on

C.

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

channel-group 1 mode active

Question # 166

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

performs packet fragmentation and reassembly

B.

tracks the number of active TCP connections

C.

provides a single broadcast domain for all connected devices

D.

uses the data link layer for communications

Question # 167

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Question # 168

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 169

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Question # 170

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

A.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Question # 171

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

Question # 172

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Question # 173

Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 174

Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Question # 175

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

Question # 176

Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows UDP 69 through the firewall?

A.

FTP

B.

TFTP

C.

REST API

D.

SMTP

Question # 177

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Question # 178

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

Question # 179

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 180

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Question # 181

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

Question # 182

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Question # 183

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 184

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Question # 185

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

Question # 186

How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

A.

to specify the type of data format the client prefers to receive

B.

to define the network path the API request should take

C.

to encrypt data sent in the API request

D.

to uniquely identify each client application

Question # 187

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 188

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Question # 189

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

Question # 190

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 191

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 192

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Question # 193

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)

A.

crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024

B.

transport input all

C.

crypto key generate rsa usage-keys

D.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048

E.

transport Input ssh

Question # 194

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Question # 195

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 196

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Question # 197

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

200-301 question answer

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

Question # 198

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 199

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 200

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

Question # 201

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Question # 202

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

E)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question # 204

Which protocol uses the SSL?

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Question # 205

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Question # 206

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Question # 207

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Question # 208

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Question # 209

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config > #ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Question # 210

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Question # 211

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Question # 212

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Question # 213

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

Question # 214

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Question # 215

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Question # 216

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Question # 217

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Question # 218

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 219

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

Question # 220

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Question # 221

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Question # 222

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 223

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Question # 224

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

Question # 225

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Question # 226

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 227

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Question # 228

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Question # 229

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Question # 230

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 231

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 232

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Question # 233

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Question # 234

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Question # 235

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

Question # 236

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Question # 237

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Question # 238

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Question # 239

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

Question # 240

When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

A.

Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC

B.

Re-associate the WLC with the access point.

C.

Re-enable the WLC interfaces

D.

Reboot the WLC

Question # 241

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure preshared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wireless network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

A.

Select the 802.1 x option for Auth Key Management.

B.

Select the WPA Policy option.

C.

Select the PSK option for Auth Key Management.

D.

Select the AES option for Auth Key Management.

E.

Select the AES (CCMP128) option for WPA2/WPA3 Encryption.

Question # 242

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

Question # 243

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 244

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Question # 245

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 246

Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows TCP ports 20 and 21 through the firewall?

A.

REST API

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

Question # 247

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?

A.

Reconfigure the static NAT entries that overlap the NAT pool

B.

Configure the NAT outside interface

C.

Modify the access list for the internal network on e0/1

D.

Apply the ACL to the pool configuration

Question # 248

When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

A.

when a nonidempotent operation is needed

B.

to update a DNS server

C.

to display a web site

D.

when a read-only operation it required

Question # 249

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?

A.

STP

B.

port security

C.

wrong cable type

D.

shutdown command

Question # 250

What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?

A.

Controller-based networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute data-plane functions.

B.

Controller-based networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute control-plane functions.

C.

Traditional networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute control-plane functions.

D.

Traditional networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute data-plane functions.

Question # 251

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Faster changes with more reliable results

B.

Reduced operational costs

C.

Fewer network failures

D.

Reduced hardware footprint

E.

Increased network security

Question # 252

Which encryption method is used by WPA3?

A.

PSK

B.

TKIP

C.

SAE

D.

AES

Question # 253

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 254

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration. Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)

A.

SW1(config)#enable secret ccnaTest123

B.

SW1(config)#username NEW secret R3mote123

C.

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15 SW1(config-line)#transport input ssh

D.

SW1(config)# crypto key generate rsa

E.

SW1(config)# interface f0/1 SW1(confif-if)# switchport mode trunk

Question # 255

Which action must be taken when password protection is Implemented?

A.

Use less than eight characters in length when passwords are complex.

B.

Store passwords as contacts on a mobile device with single-factor authentication.

C.

Include special characters and make passwords as long as allowed.

D.

Share passwords with senior IT management to ensure proper oversight.

Question # 256

A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

A.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

B.

Configure high availability and redundancy tor the access points.

C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

D.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to It.

Question # 257

Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

A.

Channel-group mode passive.

B.

Channel-group mode on.

C.

Channel-group mode desirable.

D.

Channel-group mode active.

Question # 258

Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)

A.

Only authentication records the duration of a user ' s connection.

B.

Only authentication supports user-activity audits.

C.

Only authentication provides supporting information for billing users.

D.

Only authentication challenges users for their credentials and returns a response.

E.

Only authentication validates " who you are. "

Question # 259

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 260

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

A.

core and WAN

B.

access and WAN

C.

distribution and access

D.

core and distribution

Question # 261

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?

A.

Lightweight with local switching disabled

B.

Local with AP fallback enabled

C.

OfficeExtend with high availability disabled

D.

FlexConnect with local switching enabled

Question # 262

What is a zero-day exploit?

A.

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SOL server.

Question # 263

How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?

A.

ratio of signal-to-noise rating supplied by the wireless device

B.

signals from other Wi-Fi networks that interfere with the local signal

C.

measured difference between the desired Wi-Fi signal and an interfering Wi-Fi signal

D.

any interference that is not Wi-Fi traffic that degrades the desired signal

Question # 264

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

ip domain-name domain

B.

password password

C.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Question # 265

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1?

A.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

B.

configuring a password for the console port

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Question # 266

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?

A.

Small frames less than 64 bytes are rejected due to size.

B.

The receive buffer is full due to a broadcast storm.

C.

Frames are discarded due to a half-duplex negotiation.

D.

Broadcast packets are rejected because ARP timeout is enabled.

Question # 267

Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

A.

ESX host

B.

resolver

C.

web

D.

file transfer

E.

authentication

Question # 268

Which protocol does a REST API use to communicate?

A.

SSH

B.

SNMP

C.

HTTP

D.

STP

Question # 269

Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:

• using an industry-standard trunking protocol

• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs

How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 270

A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

A.

ARP

B.

CDP

C.

flooding

D.

multicast

Question # 271

Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)

A.

site-to-site VPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

GETVPN

D.

IPsec remote access

E.

clientless VPN

Question # 272

It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?

A.

email system patches

B.

physical access control

C.

software firewall enabled on all PCs

D.

user awareness training

Question # 273

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

A.

one

B.

four

C.

seven

D.

nine

Question # 274

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes.

B.

Select ASCII from the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank.

C.

Select PSK from the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key.

D.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes.

Question # 275

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 276

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

Question # 277

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 278

Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

A.

virtual interface

B.

management interface

C.

console port

D.

service port

Question # 279

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Question # 280

Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?

A.

LAG

B.

default

C.

trunk

D.

Bopess

Question # 281

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is represented by " R1 " and " SW1 " within the JSON output?

A.

key

B.

array

C.

value

D.

object

Question # 282

NO: 346

What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?

Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.

Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.

A.

Cloud-based mode APs are easy to deploy but harder to automate than APs in autonomous mode.

B.

Autonomous mode APs are easy to deploy and automate than APs in cloud-based mode.

Question # 283

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

A.

shaping

B.

policing

C.

CBWFQ

D.

LLQ

Question # 284

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168.16.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

Question # 285

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

200-301 question answer

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

Question # 286

Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 287

How does encryption project the wireless network?

A.

via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame

B.

via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks

C.

via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it

D.

via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network

Question # 288

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

A.

It continues to use a statically assigned IPv4 address

B.

It forces the DNS server to provide the same IPv4 address at each renewal.

C.

It requests the same IPv4 address when it renews its lease with the DHCP server.

D.

It prefers a pool of addresses when renewing the IPv4 host IP address

Question # 289

What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?

A.

A packet sent to an IPv6 multicast address is delivered to one or more destinations at once, but a packet sent to an IPv6 anycast address is routed to the closest interface with that address.

B.

An IPv6 multicast address uses the prefix 2002::/15 and forwards to one destination, and an IPv6 anycast address uses the prefix ff00::/8 and forwards to any destination in a group.

C.

IPv6 multicast addresses are used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6, and IPv6 anycast addresses are used for address aggregation in an IPv6-only environment.

D.

An IPv6 multicast address is assigned to numerous interfaces within a subnet, but an IPv6 anycast address is used for a predefined group of nodes in an all-IPv6 routers group.

Question # 290

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 291

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

A.

broadcast to all ports on the switch

B.

flooded to all ports except the origination port

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

inspected and dropped by the switch

Question # 292

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

A.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

B.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.

C.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on interface FaO 2 on SW2.

D.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

Question # 293

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

A.

It needs a high MTU between sites.

B.

It has a high implementation cost.

C.

It must have point-to-point communication.

D.

It requires complex configuration.

E.

It works only with BGP between sites.

Question # 294

Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?

A.

dynamic

B.

service port

C.

virtual

D.

management

Question # 295

A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?

A)

200-301 question answer

B)

200-301 question answer

C)

200-301 question answer

D)

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 296

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

A.

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.252.0 g0/0

B.

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 g0/0

C.

ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 g0/0

D.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0

Question # 297

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

Reduces the forwarding table on network routers

B.

Used on the external interface of a firewall

C.

Used by ISPs when only one IP is needed to connect to the internet

D.

Address space which is isolated from the internet

Question # 298

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right Not all options are used.

200-301 question answer

Question # 299

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

A.

Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.

B.

Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.

C.

Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

D.

Enable the WPA Policy.

Question # 300

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Question # 301

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Question # 302

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

Question # 303

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

A.

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

Question # 304

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Question # 305

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Question # 306

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

Question # 307

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 308

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

A.

encrypts data before sending between data resources

B.

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

C.

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

D.

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

Question # 309

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 310

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?

A.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity

B.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

C.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connectivity

D.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1

Question # 311

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

A.

Unicode

B.

base64

C.

decimal

D.

ASCII

Question # 312

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 313

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

A.

Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B.

Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C.

Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

D.

Accept: application/json

Question # 314

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

Question # 315

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

A.

management interface settings

B.

QoS settings

C.

Ip address of one or more access points

D.

SSID

E.

Profile name

Question # 316

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Question # 317

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Question # 318

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

Question # 319

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 320

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

Question # 321

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

Question # 322

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

200-301 question answer

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

A.

Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

B.

Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

C.

Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

D.

Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

Question # 323

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

Question # 324

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

Question # 325

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

Question # 326

Refer to me exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

Question # 327

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

A.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

B.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

C.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical

D.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Question # 328

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Question # 329

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Question # 330

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

Question # 331

200-301 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Question # 332

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

Question # 333

What is the function of a server?

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Question # 334

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

Question # 335

What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)

A.

It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN

B.

It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN

C.

It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN

D.

It is at most 32 characters long.

E.

IT provides secured access to a WLAN

Question # 336

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

Question # 337

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

A.

Device(Config)#lldp run

B.

Device(Config)#cdp run

C.

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D.

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Question # 338

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Question # 339

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

Question # 340

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 341

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

A.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

Question # 342

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Question # 343

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

A.

modify hello interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Question # 344

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question # 345

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

Question # 346

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Question # 347

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 348

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Question # 349

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Question # 350

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

Question # 351

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

All ARP packets are dropped by the switch

B.

Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.

C.

All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted

D.

The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.

Question # 352

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Question # 353

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

Question # 354

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

A.

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D.

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Question # 355

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

200-301 question answer

Question # 356

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

Question # 357

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

200-301 question answer

Question # 358

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

Question # 359

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Question # 360

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

200-301 question answer

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

Question # 361

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

Question # 362

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

A.

cost

B.

adminstrative distance

C.

metric

D.

as-path

Question # 363

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

Question # 364

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

A.

The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

B.

The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

C.

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

D.

The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

Question # 365

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

A.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Question # 366

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

Question # 367

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

Question # 368

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 question answer

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

Question # 369

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

200-301 question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question # 370

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

Question # 371

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

A.

802.1q trunks

B.

Cisco vPC

C.

LLDP

D.

LACP

Question # 372

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

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