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Practice Free 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701 v2.0) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the Cisco 350-701 Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701 v2.0) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free 350-701 Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

What is the purpose of a NetFlow version 9 template record?

A.

It specifies the data format of NetFlow processes.

B.

It provides a standardized set of information about an IP flow.

C.

lt defines the format of data records.

D.

It serves as a unique identification number to distinguish individual data records

Question # 7

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

A.

HTTPS file upload site

B.

Microsoft Windows network shares

C.

SQL database injections

D.

encrypted SMTP

Question # 8

Which technology should be used to help prevent an attacker from stealing usernames and passwords of users within an organization?

A.

RADIUS-based REAP

B.

fingerprinting

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

D.

multifactor authentication

Question # 9

Which two global commands must the network administrator implement to limit the attack surface of an internet-facing Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A.

no service password-recovery

B.

no cdp run

C.

service tcp-keepalives-in

D.

no ip http server

E.

ip ssh version 2

Question # 10

A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Third-party systems need to be able to feed host data into Cisco Firepower. What must be configured to accomplish this?

A.

a Network Discovery policy to receive data from the host

B.

a Threat Intelligence policy to download the data from the host

C.

a File Analysis policy to send file data into Cisco Firepower

D.

a Network Analysis policy to receive NetFlow data from the host

Question # 11

Which benefit does DMVPN provide over GETVPN?

A.

DMVPN supports QoS, multicast, and routing, and GETVPN supports only QoS.

B.

DMVPN is a tunnel-less VPN, and GETVPN is tunnel-based.

C.

DMVPN supports non-IP protocols, and GETVPN supports only IP protocols.

D.

DMVPN can be used over the public Internet, and GETVPN requires a private network.

Question # 12

A network administrator is setting up Cisco FMC to send logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging (SaaS). The network administrator is anticipating a high volume of logging events from the firewalls and wants lo limit the strain on firewall resources. Which method must the administrator use to send these logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging?

A.

SFTP using the FMCCLI

B.

syslog using the Secure Event Connector

C.

direct connection using SNMP traps

D.

HTTP POST using the Security Analytics FMC plugin

Question # 13

An administrator configures a Cisco WSA to receive redirected traffic over ports 80 and 443. The organization requires that a network device with specific WSA integration capabilities be configured to send the traffic to the WSA to proxy the requests and increase visibility, while making this invisible to the users. What must be done on the Cisco WSA to support these requirements?

A.

Configure transparent traffic redirection using WCCP in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

B.

Configure active traffic redirection using WPAD in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

C.

Use the Layer 4 setting in the Cisco WSA to receive explicit forward requests from the network device

D.

Use PAC keys to allow only the required network devices to send the traffic to the Cisco WSA

Question # 14

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific group of consumers from different organizations and may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of those organizations?

A.

hybrid cloud

B.

private cloud

C.

community cloud

D.

public cloud

Question # 15

Which VPN technology supports a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GET VPN

Question # 16

Which technology enables integration between Cisco ISE and other platforms to gather and share

network and vulnerability data and SIEM and location information?

A.

pxGrid

B.

NetFlow

C.

SNMP

D.

Cisco Talos

Question # 17

What are two things to consider when using PAC files with the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

If the WSA host port is changed, the default port redirects web traffic to the correct port automatically.

B.

PAC files use if-else statements to determine whether to use a proxy or a direct connection for traffic between the PC and the host.

C.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 9001 by default.

D.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 6001 by default.

E.

By default, they direct traffic through a proxy when the PC and the host are on the same subnet.

Question # 18

Which Cisco security solution secures public, private, hybrid, and community clouds?

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco ASAv

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco pxGrid

Question # 19

A network engineer must enable SSH and SCP on a Cisco IOS router. The engineer has already generated the encryption keys and enabled SCP services on the router. Which configuration action must be performed next?

A.

Enable SSHv2 in the configuration.

B.

Restrict access to specific SSH commands.

C.

Enable SCP strict host-key checking.

D.

Add an ACL to deny access from the LAN.

Question # 20

Which baseline form of telemetry is recommended for network infrastructure devices?

A.

SDNS

B.

NetFlow

C.

passive taps

D.

SNMP

Question # 21

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

Question # 22

A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work What is the reason for this failure?

A.

The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.

B.

The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format

C.

The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended

D.

Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies

Question # 23

Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management

Center?

A.

quality of service

B.

time synchronization

C.

network address translations

D.

intrusion policy

Question # 24

When configuring ISAKMP for IKEv1 Phase1 on a Cisco IOS router, an administrator needs to input the

command crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0. The administrator is not sure what the IP addressing in this command issued for. What would be the effect of changing the IP address from 0.0.0.0 to 1.2.3.4?

A.

The key server that is managing the keys for the connection will be at 1.2.3.4

B.

The remote connection will only be allowed from 1.2.3.4

C.

The address that will be used as the crypto validation authority

D.

All IP addresses other than 1.2.3.4 will be allowed

Question # 25

In which two ways does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution protect users? (Choose two.)

A.

It prevents use of compromised accounts and social engineering.

B.

It prevents all zero-day attacks coming from the Internet.

C.

It automatically removes malicious emails from users ' inbox.

D.

It prevents trojan horse malware using sensors.

E.

It secures all passwords that are shared in video conferences.

Question # 26

What is a capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

A.

It filters NSEL events based on traffic

B.

It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured

C.

It logs all event types only to the same collector

D.

It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active standby failover pair

Question # 27

What is a description of microsegmentation?

A.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery.

B.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate.

C.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container.

D.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

Question # 28

Which DevSecOps implementation process gives a weekly or daily update instead of monthly or quarterly in the applications?

A.

Orchestration

B.

CI/CD pipeline

C.

Container

D.

Security

Question # 29

A security engineer requires social-media websites to be blocked through Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense. Which configuration action must the engineer apply to meet the requirement?

A.

Enable global settings with default URL filtering.

B.

Configure a file policy in an access control policy.

C.

Apply web filtering in an access control policy.

D.

Block the social-media URL category in the destination-network condition of an access control rule.

Question # 30

Which type of protection encrypts RSA keys when they are exported and imported?

A.

file

B.

passphrase

C.

NGE

D.

nonexportable

Question # 31

What are two ways that Cisco Container Platform provides value to customers who utilize cloud service providers? (Choose two.)

A.

Allows developers to create code once and deploy to multiple clouds

B.

helps maintain source code for cloud deployments

C.

manages Docker containers

D.

manages Kubernetes clusters

E.

Creates complex tasks for managing code

Question # 32

Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?

A.

transparent user identification

B.

SOCKS proxy services

C.

web usage controls

D.

user session restrictions

Question # 33

Which two methods must be used to add switches into the fabric so that administrators can control how switches are added into DCNM for private cloud management? (Choose two.)

A.

Cisco Cloud Director

B.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

C.

PowerOn Auto Provisioning

D.

Seed IP

E.

CDP AutoDiscovery

Question # 34

Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)

A.

accounting

B.

assurance

C.

automation

D.

authentication

E.

encryption

Question # 35

Which Splunk SOAR component automates multi-step security actions into a repeatable workflow?

A.

Alert

B.

Action

C.

Data model

D.

Playbook

Question # 36

Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

A.

AES-GCM

B.

SHA-96

C.

AES-256

D.

SHA-384

Question # 37

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process activity on an endpoint?

A.

Retrospective security

B.

Endpoint isolation

C.

Advanced investigation

D.

Advanced search

Question # 38

What is a difference between GRE over IPsec and IPsec with crypto map?

A.

Multicast traffic is supported by IPsec with crypto map.

B.

GRE over IPsec supports non-IP protocols.

C.

GRE provides its own encryption mechanism.

D.

IPsec with crypto map oilers better scalability.

Question # 39

A network administrator is modifying a remote access VPN on an FTD managed by an FMC. The administrator wants to offload traffic to certain trusted domains. The administrator wants this traffic to go out of the client ' s local internet and send other internet-bound traffic over the VPN Which feature must the administrator configure?

A.

dynamic split tunneling

B.

local LAN access

C.

dynamic access policies

D.

reverse route injection

Question # 40

After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations.

Which task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?

A.

Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.

B.

Generate a system report.

C.

Review the log files.

D.

Perform a trace.

Question # 41

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco ISE administrator adds a new switch to an 802.1X deployment and has difficulty with some endpoints gaining access.

Most PCs and IP phones can connect and authenticate using their machine certificate credentials. However printer and video cameras cannot base d on the interface configuration provided, what must be to get these devices on to the network using Cisco ISE for authentication and authorization while maintaining security controls?

A.

Change the default policy in Cisco ISE to allow all devices not using machine authentication .

B.

Enable insecure protocols within Cisco ISE in the allowed protocols configuration.

C.

Configure authentication event fail retry 2 action authorize vlan 41 on the interface

D.

Add mab to the interface configuration.

Question # 42

Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to

the VPN?

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Firepower

D.

NGIPS

Question # 43

Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

A.

PFS

B.

HMAC

C.

MD5

D.

SHA

Question # 44

An engineer must modify a policy to block specific addresses using Cisco Umbrella. The policy is created already and is actively u: of the default policy elements. What else must be done to accomplish this task?

A.

Add the specified addresses to the identities list and create a block action.

B.

Create a destination list for addresses to be allowed or blocked.

C.

Use content categories to block or allow specific addresses.

D.

Modify the application settings to allow only applications to connect to required addresses.

Question # 45

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

A.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

B.

Connect to ITSM platforms

C.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

D.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

E.

Third party reporting

Question # 46

An email administrator is setting up a new Cisco ESA. The administrator wants to enable the blocking of greymail for the end user. Which feature must the administrator enable first?

A.

File Analysis

B.

IP Reputation Filtering

C.

Intelligent Multi-Scan

D.

Anti-Virus Filtering

Question # 47

What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

A.

CMX

B.

WMI

C.

Prime Infrastructure

D.

Telemetry

Question # 48

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration item makes it possible to have the AAA session on the network?

A.

aaa authorization exec default ise

B.

aaa authentication enable default enable

C.

aaa authorization network default group ise

D.

aaa authorization login console ise

Question # 49

When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component creates the flow monitor cache that is used

to collect traffic based on the key and nonkey fields in the configured record?

A.

records

B.

flow exporter

C.

flow sampler

D.

flow monitor

Question # 50

Which policy does a Cisco Secure Web Appliance use to block or monitor URL requests based on the reputation score?

A.

Encryption

B.

Enforcement Security

C.

Cisco Data Security

D.

Outbound Malware Scanning

Question # 51

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attack aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

Question # 52

Which security solution is used for posture assessment of the endpoints in a BYOD solution?

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco ASA

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ISE

Question # 53

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

A.

Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B.

Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C.

Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D.

Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E.

Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

Question # 54

What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premises Cisco WSA?

A.

Cisco CWS eliminates the need to backhaul traffic through headquarters for remote workers whereas Cisco WSA does not

B.

Cisco CWS minimizes the load on the internal network and security infrastructure as compared to Cisco WSA.

C.

URL categories are updated more frequently on Cisco CWS than they are on Cisco WSA

D.

Content scanning for SAAS cloud applications is available through Cisco CWS and not available through Cisco WSA

Question # 55

A security engineer must protect endpoints when a file appears harmless during initial inspection but later shows malicious behavior. The solution must continuously observe process and file activity after execution and respond when a threat emerges. The infrastructure includes Cisco Secure Endpoint. Which feature must the engineer configure to meet the requirements?

A.

File Reputation

B.

Continuous Behavioral Monitoring

C.

Forensic Analysis

D.

System Process Protection

Question # 56

An engineer is securing access to data served by a cloud-based application. The data must be protected from modification in transit, and its integrity must be validated. The following security measures have been implemented:

• Governance with role-based access control based on the principle of least privilege

• TLS 1.3 with signed certificates

• AES-256 with MD5

What must be configured to complete the secure implementation?

A.

3DES instead of AES

B.

DES instead of TLS 1.3

C.

SHA-512 instead of MD5

D.

SSLv3 instead of MD5

Question # 57

Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

A.

IP Blacklist Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

AMP Reputation Center

D.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

Question # 58

Which metric is used by the monitoring agent to collect and output packet loss and jitter information?

A.

WSAv performance

B.

AVC performance

C.

OTCP performance

D.

RTP performance

Question # 59

Which portion of the network do EPP solutions solely focus on and EDR solutions do not?

A.

server farm

B.

perimeter

C.

core

D.

East-West gateways

Question # 60

What is a capability of a Trojan horse on a computer system?

A.

It replicates itself into other programs.

B.

It disguises itself as a legitimate program.

C.

It inserts its own code when legitimate programs are executed.

D.

It enables access to restricted areas without being detected.

Question # 61

Which direction do attackers encode data in DNS requests during exfiltration using DNS tunneling?

A.

inbound

B.

north-south

C.

east-west

D.

outbound

Question # 62

An engineer recently completed the system setup on a Cisco WSA Which URL information does the system send to SensorBase Network servers?

A.

Summarized server-name information and MD5-hashed path information

B.

complete URL,without obfuscating the path segments

C.

URL information collected from clients that connect to the Cisco WSA using Cisco AnyConnect

D.

none because SensorBase Network Participation is disabled by default

Question # 63

Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?

A.

It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.

B.

It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.

C.

It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.

D.

It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.

Question # 64

Which Linux system call loads an eBPF program and manages eBPF maps within the kernel?

A.

perf_event_open()

B.

ioctl()

C.

prctl()

D.

bpf()

Question # 65

Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

A.

transparent

B.

redirection

C.

forward

D.

proxy gateway

Question # 66

In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?

A.

IaaS

B.

UCaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

SaaS

Question # 67

Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

A.

TLSv1.2

B.

TLSv1.1

C.

BJTLSv1

D.

DTLSv1

Question # 68

Which configuration method provides the options to prevent physical and virtual endpoint devices that are in the same base EPG or uSeg from being able to communicate with each other with Vmware VDS or Microsoft vSwitch?

A.

inter-EPG isolation

B.

inter-VLAN security

C.

intra-EPG isolation

D.

placement in separate EPGs

Question # 69

What is a benefit of flexible NetFlow records?

A.

They are used for security

B.

They are used for accounting

C.

They monitor a packet from Layer 2 to Layer 5

D.

They have customized traffic identification

Question # 70

A facilities team is onboarding a fleet of badge readers and IP cameras through MAB authentication on Cisco Catalyst access switches integrated with Cisco ISE. After Cisco ISE profiles each endpoint, an authorization policy must dynamically move the device into a dedicated IoT VLAN that differs from the access VLAN statically defined on the port. The endpoints lack a supplicant and cannot automatically renew their DHCP addresses. The network engineer requires Cisco ISE to issue a Change of Authorization that forces each endpoint to re-establish connectivity and request a fresh DHCP lease under the new authorization policy. Which configuration action must be performed on Cisco ISE to meet the requirement?

A.

Configure the authorization profile to send a CoA-Reauth to the access switch.

B.

Configure the authentication policy to send a CoA-Terminate to reconnect the endpoint.

C.

Configure the authorization profile to send a Port-Bounce CoA to the switch.

D.

Configure the authorization policy to send a CoA-Reconnect and rely on the idle timeout.

Question # 71

Refer to the exhibit.

aaa new-model

aaa authentication dot1x default group ISE-SERVERS

aaa authorization network default group ISE-SERVERS

aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group ISE-SERVERS

!

radius server RADIUS_SRV

address ipv4 172.16.10.12 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813

key shared-secret C1sc0123

!

aaa group server radius ISE-SERVERS

server name RADIUS_SRV

radius-server vsa send authentication

radius-server vsa send accounting

radius-server attribute 6 on-for-login-auth

radius-server attribute 8 include-in-access-req

radius-server attribute 25 access-request include

ip device tracking

!

interface range GigabitEthernet1/0/1 - 48

switchport

switchport host

authentication priority dot1x mab

authentication order dot1x mab

A security engineer is integrating a new Cisco Catalyst access switch with Cisco ISE to enforce port-based network access control using 802.1X. The AAA RADIUS server group and access interfaces are configured on the Cisco Catalyst switch. Cisco ISE has authentication and authorization policies, the workstation supplicants are configured as expected, and connectivity between the switch and ISE is working. During testing, the workstations fail to trigger authentication sessions, and no RADIUS requests appear in the ISE logs or on the switch interfaces. Which two configuration commands must be added to the Cisco Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)

A.

Configure the dot1x system-auth-control command globally.

B.

Implement the aaa server radius dynamic-author command globally.

C.

Apply the dot1x pae authenticator command under interfaces that require 802.1X.

D.

Configure the ip radius source-interface command globally.

E.

Add the mab command under all switch interfaces.

Question # 72

An engineer adds a custom detection policy to a Cisco AMP deployment and encounters issues with the

configuration. The simple detection mechanism is configured, but the dashboard indicates that the hash is not 64 characters and is non-zero. What is the issue?

A.

The engineer is attempting to upload a hash created using MD5 instead of SHA-256

B.

The file being uploaded is incompatible with simple detections and must use advanced detections

C.

The hash being uploaded is part of a set in an incorrect format

D.

The engineer is attempting to upload a file instead of a hash

Question # 73

Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

A.

Google Cloud Platform

B.

Red Hat Enterprise Visualization

C.

VMware ESXi

D.

Amazon Web Services

Question # 74

Which standard is used to automate exchanging cyber threat information?

A.

TAXII

B.

MITRE

C.

IoC

D.

STIX

Question # 75

What are two ways a network administrator transparently identifies users using Active Directory on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

Create an LDAP authentication realm and disable transparent user identification.

B.

Create NTLM or Kerberos authentication realm and enable transparent user identification.

C.

Deploy a separate Active Directory agent such as Cisco Context Directory Agent.

D.

The eDirectory client must be installed on each client workstation.

E.

Deploy a separate eDirectory server; the dent IP address is recorded in this server.

Question # 76

An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and needs an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK

and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?

A.

AES-192

B.

IKEv1

C.

AES-256

D.

ESP

Question # 77

A Cisco FTD engineer is creating a new IKEv2 policy called s2s00123456789 for their organization to allow for additional protocols to terminate network devices with. They currently only have one policy established and need the new policy to be a backup in case some devices cannot support the stronger algorithms listed in the primary policy. What should be done in order to support this?

A.

Change the integrity algorithms to SHA* to support all SHA algorithms in the primary policy

B.

Make the priority for the new policy 5 and the primary policy 1

C.

Change the encryption to AES* to support all AES algorithms in the primary policy

D.

Make the priority for the primary policy 10 and the new policy 1

Question # 78

Which VMware platform does Cisco ACI integrate with to provide enhanced visibility, provide policy integration and deployment, and implement security policies with access lists?

A.

VMware APIC

B.

VMwarevRealize

C.

VMware fusion

D.

VMware horizons

Question # 79

Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

B.

Define security group memberships.

C.

Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

D.

Use antispyware software.

E.

Implement email filtering techniques.

Question # 80

How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

A.

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and sends malware throughthat connection.

B.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.

C.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS servers in order topoison the resolutions.

D.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them to a maliciousdomain.

Question # 81

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

Question # 82

What is the target in a phishing attack?

A.

perimeter firewall

B.

IPS

C.

web server

D.

endpoint

Question # 83

Email security has become a high-priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10.00 to -6.00) on the Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

A.

FilterAction

B.

ScreenAction

C.

Quarantine

D.

Defang

Question # 84

A company deploys an application that contains confidential data and has a hybrid hub-and-spoke topology. The hub resides in a public cloud environment, and the spoke resides on-premises. An engineer must secure the application to ensure that confidential data in transit between the hub-and-spoke servers is accessible only to authorized users. The engineer performs these configurations:

Segregation of duties

Role-based access control

Privileged access management

What must be implemented to protect the data in transit?

A.

MD5

B.

AES-256

C.

SHA-512

D.

TLS 1.3

Question # 85

What is the difference between Cross-site Scripting and SQL Injection, attacks?

A.

Cross-site Scripting is an attack where code is injected into a database, whereas SQL Injection is an attack where code is injected into a browser.

B.

Cross-site Scripting is a brute force attack targeting remote sites, whereas SQL Injection is a socialengineering attack.

C.

Cross-site Scripting is when executives in a corporation are attacked, whereas SQL Injection is when adatabase is manipulated.

D.

Cross-site Scripting is an attack where code is executed from the server side, whereas SQL Injection is an attack where code is executed from the client side.

Question # 86

An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to analyze protocol fields and detect anomalies in the traffic from industrial systems. What must be done to meet these requirements?

A.

Implement pre-filter policies for the CIP preprocessor

B.

Enable traffic analysis in the Cisco FTD

C.

Configure intrusion rules for the DNP3 preprocessor

D.

Modify the access control policy to trust the industrial traffic

Question # 87

In which cloud services model is the customer responsible for scanning for and mitigation of application vulnerabilities?

A.

PaaS

B.

VMaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

SaaS

Question # 88

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

A.

Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hostA.

B.

Enter the command with a different password on hostB.

C.

Enter the same command on hostB.

D.

Change the password on hostA to the default password.

Question # 89

Which RADIUS attribute can you use to filter MAB requests in an 802.1 x deployment?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

6

D.

31

Question # 90

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to deploy it in transparent mode. Which configuration component must be used to accomplish this goal?

A.

MDA on the router

B.

PBR on Cisco WSA

C.

WCCP on switch

D.

DNS resolution on Cisco WSA

Question # 91

Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social

engineering attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Patch for cross-site scripting.

B.

Perform backups to the private cloud.

C.

Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.

D.

Install a spam and virus email filter.

E.

Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program

Question # 92

What is a benefit of using Cisco AVC (Application Visibility and Control) for application control?

A.

management of application sessions

B.

retrospective application analysis

C.

zero-trust approach

D.

dynamic application scanning

Question # 93

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP snooping database resides on router R1, and dynamic ARP inspection is configured only on switch SW2. Which ports must be configured as untrusted so that dynamic ARP inspection operates normally?

A.

P2 and P3 only

B.

P2, P3, and P6 only

C.

P5, P6, and P7 only

D.

P1, P2, P3, and P4 only

Question # 94

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices The default management port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed What must be done to ensure that all devices can communicate together?

A.

Set the sftunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

B.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTD devices

C.

Set the sftunnel port to 8305.

D.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

Question # 95

What is a prerequisite when integrating a Cisco ISE server and an AD domain?

A.

Place the Cisco ISE server and the AD server in the same subnet

B.

Configure a common administrator account

C.

Configure a common DNS server

D.

Synchronize the clocks of the Cisco ISE server and the AD server

Question # 96

A financial services firm is concerned about employees inadvertently pasting sensitive customer account information into public generative AI websites. The security team needs to implement a solution that inspects outbound traffic and prevents the transmission of sensitive data to AI platforms. Which two configuration actions must the administrator perform on Cisco Secure Access to achieve the requirement? (Choose two.)

A.

Apply an AI Guardrail rule to block uploads to unauthorized AI domains.

B.

Implement a strict firewall rule to block all outbound traffic on port 443 for the entire organization.

C.

Disable all web-browser access for employees to prevent them from navigating to any external websites.

D.

Configure a DLP policy to inspect outbound traffic for sensitive data patterns.

E.

Enable the local endpoint firewall to block all traffic to known AI-service IP addresses.

Question # 97

Drag and drop the cloud security assessment components from the left onto the definitions on the right.

350-701 question answer

Question # 98

An engineer configures new features within the Cisco Umbrella dashboard and wants to identify and proxy traffic that is categorized as risky domains and may contain safe and malicious content. Which action accomplishes these objectives?

A.

Configure URL filtering within Cisco Umbrella to track the URLs and proxy the requests for those categories and below.

B.

Configure intelligent proxy within Cisco Umbrella to intercept and proxy the requests for only those categories.

C.

Upload the threat intelligence database to Cisco Umbrella for the most current information on reputations and to have the destination lists block them.

D.

Create a new site within Cisco Umbrella to block requests from those categories so they can be sent to the proxy device.

Question # 99

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

An engineer must configure a Cisco switch to perform PPP authentication via a TACACS server located at IP address 10.1.1.10. Authentication must fall back to the local database using the username LocalUser and password C1Sc0451069341l if the TACACS server is unreachable.

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the corresponding configuration steps on the right.

350-701 question answer

Question # 100

Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly accessed by several organizations from a specific group?

A.

Hybrid

B.

Community

C.

Private

D.

Public

Question # 101

Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

A.

transparent mode

B.

routed mode

C.

inline mode

D.

active mode

E.

passive monitor-only mode

Question # 102

Which firewall mode does a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance use to inspect Layer 2 traffic?

A.

Routed

B.

Passive

C.

Inline

D.

Transparent

Question # 103

In which scenario is endpoint-based security the solution?

A.

inspecting encrypted traffic

B.

device profiling and authorization

C.

performing signature-based application control

D.

inspecting a password-protected archive

Question # 104

Which two devices support WCCP for traffic redirection? (Choose two.)

A.

Cisco Secure Web Appliance

B.

Cisco IOS

C.

proxy server

D.

Cisco ASA

E.

Cisco IPS

Question # 105

Which action configures the IEEE 802.1X Flexible Authentication feature to support Layer 3 authentication mechanisms?

A.

Add MAB into the switch to allow redirection to a Layer 3 device for authentication.

B.

Identify the devices using this feature and create a policy that allows them to pass Layer 2 authentication.

C.

Modify the Dot1x configuration on the VPN server to send Layer 3 authentications to an external authentication database.

D.

Configure WebAuth so the hosts are redirected to a web page for authentication.

Question # 106

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

Consider that any feature of DNS requests, such as the length off the domain name

and the number of subdomains, can be used to construct models of expected behavior to which

observed values can be compared. Which type of malicious attack are these values associated with?

A.

Spectre Worm

B.

Eternal Blue Windows

C.

Heartbleed SSL Bug

D.

W32/AutoRun worm

Question # 107

A security engineer is deploying an IPsec site-to-site VPN between headquarters and a remote plant, protected by Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense managed by Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center. The following configurations have already been completed:

    Matching IKEv2 proposals, preshared keys, and IPsec transform sets

    Access control rules permitting the traffic

    Crypto maps applied to the outside interfaces

    VPN traffic exempted from inspection

During a packet capture on the firewall, the engineer observes that the traffic is translated to the public IP address, preventing tunnel establishment. Which configuration action must be performed next?

A.

Configure NAT exemption for traffic between the interesting subnet pairs.

B.

Create a tunnel group with preshared-key authentication under connection profiles.

C.

Enable IKEv2 fragmentation on both peers to reduce packet size.

D.

Attach the new VPN policy to the global prefilter default action.

Question # 108

A Cisco Firepower administrator needs to configure a rule to allow a new application that has never been seen

on the network. Which two actions should be selected to allow the traffic to pass without inspection? (Choose

two)

A.

permit

B.

trust

C.

reset

D.

allow

E.

monitor

Question # 109

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)

A.

A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.

B.

An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.

C.

A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.

D.

An endpoint is profiled for the first time.

E.

A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona

Question # 110

Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

water holing

C.

DDoS

D.

buffer overflow

Question # 111

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

Question # 112

Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for

endpoints? (Choose two)

A.

exploits

B.

ARP spoofing

C.

denial-of-service attacks

D.

malware

E.

eavesdropping

Question # 113

What are two workload security models? (Choose two.)

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

off-premises

D.

on-premises

E.

IaaS

Question # 114

After a recent breach, an organization determined that phishing was used to gain initial access to the network before regaining persistence. The information gained from the phishing attack was a result of users visiting known malicious websites. What must be done in order to prevent this from happening in the future?

A.

Modify an access policy

B.

Modify identification profiles

C.

Modify outbound malware scanning policies

D.

Modify web proxy settings

Question # 115

What are two security benefits of an MDM deployment? (Choose two.)

A.

robust security policy enforcement

B.

privacy control checks

C.

on-device content management

D.

distributed software upgrade

E.

distributed dashboard

Question # 116

A security engineer must configure a Splunk Universal Forwarder to send network traffic logs from Cisco Catalyst switches to a Splunk indexer cluster. Strict compliance requirements require all network traffic logs to be ingested into Splunk as an audit trail. The environment includes thousands of forwarders, and the data must be distributed across all indexers. Which two configuration actions must be performed? (Choose two.)

A.

Configure outputs.conf with the DNS names and indexing ports of all indexers within the cluster.

B.

Implement a large output queue in outputs.conf and disable automatic load balancing.

C.

Configure the forwarder to write logs to a local file share and schedule a batch job to copy the data into the indexers.

D.

Use a deployment server to push an application containing outputs.conf to all Universal Forwarders.

E.

Configure a single primary indexer in outputs.conf and enable a forced connection.

Question # 117

An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identity that references two different policies. Which action ensures that the policy that the identity must use takes precedence over the second one?

A.

Configure the default policy to redirect the requests to the correct policy

B.

Place the policy with the most-specific configuration last in the policy order

C.

Configure only the policy with the most recently changed timestamp

D.

Make the correct policy first in the policy order

Question # 118

An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server’s authentication key?

A.

ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1

B.

ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1

C.

ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1

D.

ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

Question # 119

What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?

A.

The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and AMP for Endpoints tracks only URL-based threats.

B.

The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and AMP for Endpoints allows only for VPN connectivity

C.

AMP for Endpoints authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.

D.

AMP for Endpoints stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.

Question # 120

Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?

A.

Monthly

B.

Yearly

C.

Contractor

D.

Full-Time

Question # 121

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What does this Python script accomplish?

A.

It allows authentication with TLSv1 SSL protocol

B.

It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.

C.

lt authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username of ersad

D.

It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE

Question # 122

What is the purpose of joining Cisco WSAs to an appliance group?

A.

All WSAs in the group can view file analysis results.

B.

The group supports improved redundancy

C.

It supports cluster operations to expedite the malware analysis process.

D.

It simplifies the task of patching multiple appliances.

Question # 123

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?

A.

hashing algorithm mismatch

B.

encryption algorithm mismatch

C.

authentication key mismatch

D.

interesting traffic was not applied

Question # 124

An engineer is implementing Cisco CES in an existing Microsoft Office 365 environment and must route inbound email to Cisco CE.. record must be modified to accomplish this task?

A.

CNAME

B.

MX

C.

SPF

D.

DKIM

Question # 125

What provides total management for mobile and PC including managing inventory and device tracking, remote view, and live troubleshooting using the included native remote desktop support?

A.

mobile device management

B.

mobile content management

C.

mobile application management

D.

mobile access management

Question # 126

Which two activities are performed using Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Provision

D.

DNS

E.

Accounting

Question # 127

What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate applications and

resources?

A.

to use multifactor authentication

B.

to use strong passwords

C.

to use a wired network, not wireless

D.

to disconnect from the network when inactive

Question # 128

Why should organizations migrate to an MFA strategy for authentication?

A.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than MFA.

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for MFA due to its ability to be hacked easily.

C.

MFA methods of authentication are never compromised.

D.

MFA does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism.

Question # 129

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right.

350-701 question answer

Question # 130

What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?

A.

Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.

B.

Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.

C.

Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.

D.

Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices

Question # 131

Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?

A.

compliant

B.

unknown

C.

authorized

D.

noncompliant

Question # 132

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch

offices, and cloud?

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question # 133

A network engineer must distribute an operating system image to a network device and activate the image on that device by using the Cisco Catalyst Center API. Which two API requests perform the required operations? (Choose two.)

A.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/image/distribution

B.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device/import

C.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/image/activation/device

D.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/network/{site_id}

E.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/template-programmer/project/{project_id}/template

Question # 134

Which two fields are defined in the NetFlow flow? (Choose two)

A.

type of service byte

B.

class of service bits

C.

Layer 4 protocol type

D.

destination port

E.

output logical interface

Question # 135

Which mitigation strategy should be used to protect against session hijacking attacks in a cloud environment?

A.

Implement input validation.

B.

Use secure cookies.

C.

Apply the principle of least privilege.

D.

Use anti-cross-site request forgery tokens.

Question # 136

A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the “Chat and Instant Messaging” category. Which reputation score should be selected to accomplish this goal?

A.

1

B.

3

C.

5

D.

10

Question # 137

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address https:// < FMC IP > /capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A.

Disable the proxy setting on the browser

B.

Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead

C.

Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser

D.

Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy

Question # 138

An administrator is adding a new switch onto the network and has configured AAA for network access control. When testing the configuration, the RADIUS authenticates to Cisco ISE but is being rejected. Why is the ip radius source-interface command needed for this configuration?

A.

Only requests that originate from a configured NAS IP are accepted by a RADIUS server

B.

The RADIUS authentication key is transmitted only from the defined RADIUS source interface

C.

RADIUS requests are generated only by a router if a RADIUS source interface is defined.

D.

Encrypted RADIUS authentication requires the RADIUS source interface be defined

Question # 139

Which Cisco security solution integrates with cloud applications like Dropbox and Office 365 while protecting data from being exfiltrated?

A.

Cisco Tajos

B.

Cisco Steaithwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

Question # 140

Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System? (Choose two)

A.

packet decoder

B.

SIP

C.

modbus

D.

inline normalization

E.

SSL

Question # 141

Which two types of connectors are used to generate telemetry data from IPFIX records in a Cisco Secure Workload implementation? (Choose two.)

A.

ADC

B.

ERSPAN

C.

Cisco ASA

D.

NetFlow

E.

Cisco Secure Workload

Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

During the rollout of a new site-to-site VPN between a headquarters Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device and a partner firewall, the tunnel never completes IKEv1 Phase 1 and remains in the MM_WAIT_MSG_6 state. Reachability between the firewalls over the Internet is verified, ISAKMP UDP port 500 is permitted end-to-end, and the IKE Phase 1 policy parameters—including encryption, hashing, DH group, and lifetime—match exactly on both ends. Which configuration action must be performed to resolve the issue?

A.

Configure matching peer-identity values under each tunnel group on both endpoints.

B.

Add the same pre-shared key on both peers within their tunnel-group attributes.

C.

Implement identical Diffie-Hellman group numbers within the active IKEv1 policy.

D.

Apply equivalent transform sets and lifetimes inside the crypto-map entries.

Question # 143

Which Cisco security solution provides patch management in the cloud?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco CloudLock

D.

Cisco Tetration

Question # 144

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Question # 145

What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of malware?

A.

Ethos Engine to perform fuzzy fingerprinting

B.

Tetra Engine to detect malware when me endpoint is connected to the cloud

C.

Clam AV Engine to perform email scanning

D.

Spero Engine with machine learning to perform dynamic analysis

Question # 146

What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

A.

Can track ingress and egress information

B.

Include the flow record and the flow importer

C.

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface

D.

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces

E.

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic

Question # 147

Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

A.

To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.

B.

A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.

C.

NSEL can be used without a collector configured.

D.

A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy

Question # 148

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What will occur when this device tries to connect to the port?

A.

802.1X will not work, but MAB will start and allow the device on the network.

B.

802.1X will not work and the device will not be allowed network access

C.

802 1X will work and the device will be allowed on the network

D.

802 1X and MAB will both be used and ISE can use policy to determine the access level

Question # 149

Which solution detects threats across a private network, public clouds, and encrypted traffic?

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco CTA

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question # 150

For which type of attack is multifactor authentication an effective deterrent?

A.

Ping of death

B.

Teardrop

C.

SYN flood

D.

Phishing

Question # 151

How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?

A.

per policy

B.

in the Reporting settings

C.

in the Security Settings section

D.

per network in the Deployments section

Question # 152

Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN communications?

A.

3DES

B.

AES 256

C.

AES 128

D.

DES

Question # 153

A group of hospitals is collaborating to transition from an on-premises infrastructure to a cloud solution. The solution must be cost-effective, flexible, scalable, and support large volumes of data traffic. Each hospital has its own rules and policies that require direct control over its processes. Sensitive data, including patient records, must remain on-premises. Which type of cloud must be used?

A.

Federated

B.

Private

C.

Public

D.

Hybrid

Question # 154

Which type of encryption uses a public key and private key?

A.

Asymmetric

B.

Symmetric

C.

Linear

D.

Nonlinear

Question # 155

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco Tetration

Question # 156

What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)

A.

sequential

B.

protocol

C.

database

D.

volume-based

E.

screen-based

Question # 157

Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

A.

EIDDOS

B.

virus

C.

DDOS

D.

TCP flood

Question # 158

Why is it important for the organization to have an endpoint patching strategy?

A.

so the organization can identify endpoint vulnerabilities

B.

so the internal PSIRT organization is aware of the latest bugs

C.

so the network administrator is notified when an existing bug is encountered

D.

so the latest security fixes are installed on the endpoints

Question # 159

A security test performed on one of the applications shows that user input is not validated. Which security vulnerability is the application more susceptible to because of this lack of validation?

A.

denial -of-service

B.

cross-site request forgery

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

SQL injection

Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

A.

privilege level for an authorized user to this router

B.

access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

C.

interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

D.

number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

Question # 161

An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

A.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor, .

B.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

C.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality

Question # 162

Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

A.

SDN controller and the network elements

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the cloud

Question # 163

A hacker initiated a social engineering attack and stole username and passwords of some users within a company. Which product should be used as a solution to this problem?

A.

Cisco NGFW

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

D.

Cisco Duo

Question # 164

Why is it important to implement MFA inside of an organization?

A.

To prevent man-the-middle attacks from being successful.

B.

To prevent DoS attacks from being successful.

C.

To prevent brute force attacks from being successful.

D.

To prevent phishing attacks from being successful.

Question # 165

Which security product enables administrators to deploy Kubernetes clusters in air-gapped sites without needing Internet access?

A.

Cisco Content Platform

B.

Cisco Container Controller

C.

Cisco Container Platform

D.

Cisco Cloud Platform

Question # 166

What is a description of microsegmentation?

A.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

Question # 167

What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

A.

DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCPsnooping binding database.

B.

In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which areuntrusted

C.

DAI associates a trust state with each switch.

D.

DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.

Question # 168

Which solution for remote workers enables protection, detection, and response on the endpoint against known and unknown threats?

A.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Duo

Question # 169

What is a feature of NetFlow Secure Event Logging?

A.

It exports only records that indicate significant events in a flow.

B.

It filters NSEL events based on the traffic and event type through RSVP.

C.

It delivers data records to NSEL collectors through NetFlow over TCP only.

D.

It supports v5 and v8 templates.

Question # 170

A network engineer must create an access control list on a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewall. The access control list must permit HTTP traffic to the internet from the organization ' s inside network 192.168.1.0/24. Which IOS command must oe used to create the access control list?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Question # 171

Which capability allows an administrator to configure forensics rules in Cisco Secure Workload?

A.

Custom clauses

B.

MITRE ATT & CK framework only predefined

C.

Cisco Secure Workload predefined

D.

Windows or Linux application

Question # 172

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

Question # 173

Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and Control?

A.

SNMP

B.

802.1X

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNORT

Question # 174

What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats,

which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

External Threat Feeds

C.

Cisco Threat Grid

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Question # 175

What must be used to share data between multiple security products?

A.

Cisco Rapid Threat Containment

B.

Cisco Platform Exchange Grid

C.

Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Question # 176

Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?

A.

username and password

B.

encryption method

C.

device serial number

D.

registration key

Question # 177

Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

A.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

IP Slock List Center

D.

AMP Reputation Center

Question # 178

What do tools like Jenkins, Octopus Deploy, and Azure DevOps provide in terms of application and

infrastructure automation?

A.

continuous integration and continuous deployment

B.

cloud application security broker

C.

compile-time instrumentation

D.

container orchestration

Question # 179

In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

A.

Smurf

B.

distributed denial of service

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

rootkit exploit

Question # 180

Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?

A.

RSA SecureID

B.

Internal Database

C.

Active Directory

D.

LDAP

Question # 181

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast

packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to

address this issue?

A.

Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard

B.

embedded event monitoring

C.

storm control

D.

access control lists

Question # 182

An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked from being

accessed via the firewall which requires that the administrator input the bad URL categories that the

organization wants blocked into the access policy. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

A.

Cisco ASA because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco FTDdoes not

B.

Cisco ASA because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not

C.

Cisco FTD because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco FTD because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco ASA does not

Question # 183

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console?

A.

Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

B.

Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

C.

Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal.

D.

Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal.

Question # 184

A logistics company issues corporate laptops that must automatically establish a Cisco Secure Client VPN tunnel whenever users are outside the office and connected to an untrusted external network. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense is the VPN headend and is already configured with remote-access profiles, address pools, and a PKI that distributes both machine and user certificates to endpoints. Management requires the tunnel to come up unattended before any user signs in to a laptop. Device-based authentication must be used, and the client must distinguish the corporate LAN from outside networks. The VPN must be connected when a user is outside the corporate network. Which configuration action must be performed to meet the requirements?

A.

Configure a Management VPN tunnel with user-certificate authentication for unattended connectivity.

B.

Configure Trusted Network Detection and Start Before Login with machine-certificate authentication for the client.

C.

Configure Trusted Network Detection using cached domain credentials for client authentication.

D.

Implement Start Before Login paired with user-certificate authentication in the profile.

Question # 185

An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Cisco Umbrella to prevent this activity for suspicious domains while allowing normal web traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?

A.

Set content settings to High

B.

Configure the intelligent proxy.

C.

Use destination block lists.

D.

Configure application block lists.

Question # 186

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

A site-to-site IKEv2 VPN between two Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense devices at a healthcare organization completes IKE Phase 1 successfully but fails during CREATE_CHILD_SA. The engineer captures the debug output from the initiating Cisco Secure Firewall. Which action must be performed to resolve the issue?

A.

Align the protected network definitions on both firewalls so that the local and remote traffic selectors proposed during CREATE_CHILD_SA match on both peers.

B.

Change the IPsec encryption algorithm from AES-256 to AES-128 on the initiating firewall and redeploy the VPN policy.

C.

Extend the IKE SA lifetime on both firewalls to give CREATE_CHILD_SA sufficient time to complete the negotiation before the Phase 1 SA expires.

D.

Remove DH Group 19 from the IPsec proposal on the initiating FTD because the TS_UNACCEPTABLE notification indicates that the responder does not support the proposed PFS group.

Question # 187

Which solution is more secure than the traditional use of a username and password and encompasses at least two of the methods of authentication?

A.

single-sign on

B.

RADIUS/LDAP authentication

C.

Kerberos security solution

D.

multifactor authentication

Question # 188

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

Question # 189

An administrator is configuring a DHCP server to better secure their environment. They need to be able to ratelimit the traffic and ensure that legitimate requests are not dropped. How would this be accomplished?

A.

Set a trusted interface for the DHCP server

B.

Set the DHCP snooping bit to 1

C.

Add entries in the DHCP snooping database

D.

Enable ARP inspection for the required VLAN

Question # 190

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?

A.

No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance.

B.

Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

C.

The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

D.

Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

Question # 191

How does the Cisco WSA enforce bandwidth restrictions for web applications?

A.

It implements a policy route to redirect application traffic to a lower-bandwidth link.

B.

It dynamically creates a scavenger class QoS policy and applies it to each client that connects through the WSA.

C.

It sends commands to the uplink router to apply traffic policing to the application traffic.

D.

It simulates a slower link by introducing latency into application traffic.

Question # 192

Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct connection?

A.

Malware installation

B.

Command-and-control communication

C.

Network footprinting

D.

Data exfiltration

Question # 193

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

An engineer configures an IPsec VPN between two Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense devices named FTD1 and FTD2. However, the hosts behind FTD1 and FTD2 cannot communicate with each other. The engineer runs a debug command to troubleshoot the issue. What must be configured to resolve the issue?

A.

Transform set

B.

Crypto access control list

C.

NAT traversal

D.

Preshared secret

Question # 194

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are

authenticating with dot1x or mab?

A.

show authentication registrations

B.

show authentication method

C.

show dot1x all

D.

show authentication sessions

Question # 195

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

A.

asset inventory management

B.

allowed application management

C.

Active Directory group policy management

D.

network device management

E.

critical device management

Question # 196

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Which task is the Python script performing by using the Cisco Umbrella API?

A.

Creating a list of the latest security events

B.

Copying a list of the latest security activity

C.

Retrieving a list of the latest security events

D.

Sending a list of the latest security activity

Question # 197

A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3

Question # 198

Which action configures the IEEE 802.1X Flexible Authentication feature lo support Layer 3 authentication mechanisms?

A.

Identity the devices using this feature and create a policy that allows them to pass Layer 2 authentication.

B.

Configure WebAuth so the hosts are redirected to a web page for authentication.

C.

Modify the Dot1x configuration on the VPN server lo send Layer 3 authentications to an external authentication database

D.

Add MAB into the switch to allow redirection to a Layer 3 device for authentication.

Question # 199

Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two)

A.

It can handle explicit HTTP requests.

B.

It requires a PAC file for the client web browser.

C.

It requires a proxy for the client web browser.

D.

WCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

E.

Layer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

Question # 200

A mall provides security services to customers with a shared appliance. The mall wants separation of

management on the shared appliance. Which ASA deployment mode meets these needs?

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

multiple zone mode

Question # 201

Drag and drop the features of Cisco ASA with Firepower from the left onto the benefits on the right.

350-701 question answer

Question # 202

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

A.

advanced persistent threat

B.

open command and control

C.

structured threat information expression

D.

trusted automated exchange of indicator information

Question # 203

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet. Extranet, and Internet, with a proxy configuration running in explicit mode Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

A.

Transparent mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

Question # 204

What is the purpose of a denial-of-service attack?

A.

to disrupt the normal operation of a targeted system by overwhelming It

B.

to exploit a security vulnerability on a computer system to steal sensitive information

C.

to prevent or limit access to data on a computer system by encrypting It

D.

to spread throughout a computer system by self-replicating to additional hosts

Question # 205

An engineer needs to configure an access control policy rule to always send traffic for inspection without

using the default action. Which action should be configured for this rule?

A.

monitor

B.

allow

C.

block

D.

trust

Question # 206

A network engineer entered the snmp-server user asmith myv7 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0xxxxxxxxx command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.255.1. Which

command achieves this goal?

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.255.1 version 3 myv7

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.255.1 snmpv3 myv7

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.255.1 version 3 asmith

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.255.1 snmpv3 asmith

Question # 207

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?

A.

SDN controller and the cloud

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the management solution

Question # 208

An engineer is configuring cloud logging on Cisco ASA and needs events to compress. Which component must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A.

CDO event viewer

B.

SWC service

C.

Cisco analytics

D.

SDC VM

Question # 209

Which Cisco IOS XE command rejects packets with a source IP address that fails a reverse-path-forwarding prefix check on the ingress interface?

A.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via both

B.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx

C.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via tx

D.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via any

Question # 210

A Cisco Secure Email Gateway network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Secure Email Gateway is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

A.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold.

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold.

C.

The policy was created to disable file analysis.

D.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop.

Question # 211

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

A.

Traffic is proximed through the intelligent proxy.

B.

Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.

C.

Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled and allowed.

D.

Traffic is allowed but logged.

Question # 212

An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to

prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?

A.

Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails

B.

Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails

C.

Configure policies to stop and reject communication

D.

Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection

Question # 213

Which functionality does Incident Manager provide in Cisco XDR?

A.

It calculates the time usually required for incident identification.

B.

It determines the time required to resolve an issue.

C.

It enables backup activities when a threat has been misidentified.

D.

It prioritizes the steps required to recover from an incident.

Question # 214

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What will happen when this Python script is run?

A.

The compromised computers and malware trajectories will be received from Cisco AMP

B.

The list of computers and their current vulnerabilities will be received from Cisco AMP

C.

The compromised computers and what compromised them will be received from Cisco AMP

D.

The list of computers, policies, and connector statuses will be received from Cisco AMP

Question # 215

Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

A.

Sensitive data must remain onsite.

B.

Demand is unpredictable.

C.

The server team wants to outsource this service.

D.

ESA is deployed inline.

Question # 216

Drag and drop the deployment models from the left onto the explanations on the right.

350-701 question answer

Question # 217

An organization wants to implement a cloud-delivered and SaaS-based solution to provide visibility and threat detection across the AWS network. The solution must be deployed without software agents and rely on AWS VPC flow logs instead. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

NetFlow collectors

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question # 218

When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two)

A.

authentication server: Cisco Identity Service Engine

B.

supplicant: Cisco AnyConnect ISE Posture module

C.

authenticator: Cisco Catalyst switch

D.

authenticator: Cisco Identity Services Engine

E.

authentication server: Cisco Prime Infrastructure

Question # 219

An engineer needs to detect and quarantine a file named abc424400664 zip based on the MD5 signature of the file using the Outbreak Control list feature within Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints The configured detection method must work on files of unknown disposition Which Outbreak Control list must be configured to provide this?

A.

Blocked Application

B.

Simple Custom Detection

C.

Advanced Custom Detection

D.

Android Custom Detection

Question # 220

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

A.

You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B.

It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C.

It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D.

It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

Question # 221

A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on-premise. The

company needs to be able to protect sensitive data throughout the full environment. Which tool should be used

to accomplish this goal?

A.

Security Manager

B.

Cloudlock

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Cisco ISE

Question # 222

When a Cisco WSA checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

A.

It blocks the request.

B.

It applies the global policy.

C.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

D.

It applies the advanced policy.

Question # 223

Which API technology with SDN architecture is used to communicate with a controller and network devices such as routers and switches?

A.

REST APIs

B.

Northbound APIs

C.

Unprotected APIs

D.

Southbound APIs

Question # 224

What are two benefits of using an MDM solution? (Choose two.)

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device

B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users

C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments

D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints

E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations

Question # 225

Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing

environments?

A.

Cisco SDA

B.

Cisco Firepower

C.

Cisco HyperFlex

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question # 226

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

Question # 227

Which option is the main function of Cisco Firepower impact flags?

A.

They alert administrators when critical events occur.

B.

They highlight known and suspected malicious IP addresses in reports.

C.

They correlate data about intrusions and vulnerability.

D.

They identify data that the ASA sends to the Firepower module.

Question # 228

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What will happen when the Python script is executed?

A.

The hostname will be translated to an IP address and printed.

B.

The hostname will be printed for the client in the client ID field.

C.

The script will pull all computer hostnames and print them.

D.

The script will translate the IP address to FODN and print it

Question # 229

A network administrator is configuring a switch to use Cisco ISE for 802.1X. An endpoint is failing

authentication and is unable to access the network. Where should the administrator begin troubleshooting to verify the authentication details?

A.

Adaptive Network Control Policy List

B.

Context Visibility

C.

Accounting Reports

D.

RADIUS Live Logs

Question # 230

An organization is selecting a cloud architecture and does not want to be responsible for patch management of the operating systems. Why should the organization select either Platform as a Service or Infrastructure as a Service for this environment?

A.

Platform as a Service because the customer manages the operating system

B.

Infrastructure as a Service because the customer manages the operating system

C.

Platform as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system

D.

Infrastructure as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system

Question # 231

What are two Trojan malware attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Frontdoor

B.

Rootkit

C.

Smurf

D.

Backdoor

E.

Sync

Question # 232

Which Cisco ISE feature helps to detect missing patches and helps with remediation?

A.

posture assessment

B.

profiling policy

C.

authentication policy

D.

enabling probes

Question # 233

What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?

A.

show authorization status

B.

show authen sess int gi0/1

C.

show connection status gi0/1

D.

show ver gi0/1

Question # 234

Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor, and secure mobile devices on Windows and Mac computers from a centralized dashboard?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Question # 235

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

A.

virus

B.

NTP amplification

C.

ping of death

D.

HTTP flood

Question # 236

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must enable secure SSH protocols and enters this configuration. What are two results of running this set of commands on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A.

Labels the key pair to be used for SSH

B.

Uses the FQDN with the label command

C.

Generates AES key pairs on the router

D.

Generates RSA key pair on the router

E.

Enables SSHv1 on the router

Question # 237

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

A.

Defang

B.

Quarantine

C.

FilterAction

D.

ScreenAction

Question # 238

Which protocol does the BYOD component in Cisco ISE use to obtain a unique device certificate from an internal CA?

A.

CMP

B.

SCEP

C.

SFTP

D.

OCSP

Question # 239

In which two ways does Easy Connect help control network access when used with Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two)

A.

It allows multiple security products to share information and work together to enhance security posture in the network.

B.

It creates a dashboard in Cisco ISE that provides full visibility of all connected endpoints.

C.

It allows for the assignment of Security Group Tags and does not require 802.1x to be configured on the switch or the endpoint.

D.

It integrates with third-party products to provide better visibility throughout the network.

E.

It allows for managed endpoints that authenticate to AD to be mapped to Security Groups (PassiveID).

Question # 240

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into Cisco DNA Center with the native API?

A.

GET and serialNumber

B.

userSudiSerlalNos and deviceInfo

C.

POST and name

D.

lastSyncTime and pid

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