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  • Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701)
  • Last Update: Oct 4, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 726
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350-701 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Certification

Question # 6

What is an advantage of network telemetry over SNMP pulls?

A.

accuracy

B.

encapsulation

C.

security

D.

scalability

Full Access
Question # 7

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises?

A.

hybrid cloud

B.

private cloud

C.

public cloud

D.

community cloud

Full Access
Question # 8

How is a cross-site scripting attack executed?

A.

Force a currently authenticated end user to execute unwanted actions on a web app

B.

Execute malicious client-side scripts injected to a client via a web app

C.

Inject a database query via the input data from the client to a web app

D.

Intercept communications between a client and a web server

Full Access
Question # 9

What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)

A.

sequential

B.

protocol

C.

database

D.

volume-based

E.

screen-based

Full Access
Question # 10

What is a benefit of using a multifactor authentication strategy?

A.

It provides visibility into devices to establish device trust.

B.

It provides secure remote access for applications.

C.

It provides an easy, single sign-on experience against multiple applications

D.

lt protects data by enabling the use of a second validation of identity.

Full Access
Question # 11

What are two workloaded security models? (Choose two)

A.

SaaS

B.

IaaS

C.

on-premises

D.

off-premises

E.

PaaS

Full Access
Question # 12

Which two Cisco Umbrella security categories are used to prevent command-and-control callbacks on port 53 and protect users from being tricked into providing confidential information? (Choose two.)

A.

DNS Tunneling VPN

B.

Dynamic DNS

C.

Newly Seen Domains

D.

Potentially Harmful Domains

E.

Phishing Attacks

Full Access
Question # 13

Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

A.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

IP Slock List Center

D.

AMP Reputation Center

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Question # 14

Which Cisco ASA deployment model is used to filter traffic between hosts in the same IP subnet using higher-level protocols without readdressing the network?

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

single context mode

D.

multiple context mode

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Question # 15

An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server’s authentication key?

A.

ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1

B.

ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1

C.

ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1

D.

ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

Full Access
Question # 16

Which action controls the amount of URI text that is stored in Cisco WSA logs files?

A.

Configure the datasecurityconfig command

B.

Configure the advancedproxyconfig command with the HTTPS subcommand

C.

Configure a small log-entry size.

D.

Configure a maximum packet size.

Full Access
Question # 17

An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Cisco Umbrella to prevent this activity for suspicious domains while allowing normal web traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?

A.

Set content settings to High

B.

Configure the intelligent proxy.

C.

Use destination block lists.

D.

Configure application block lists.

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Question # 18

An organization wants to provide visibility and to identify active threats in its network using a VM. The

organization wants to extract metadata from network packet flow while ensuring that payloads are not retained

or transferred outside the network. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.

Cisco Umbrella Cloud

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PCM

D.

Cisco Umbrella On-Premises

Full Access
Question # 19

How does Cisco Workload Optimization Manager help mitigate application performance issues?

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

Full Access
Question # 20

An organization recently installed a Cisco Secure Web Appliance and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application-specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

A.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

B.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor.

C.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality.

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Question # 21

A network administrator is setting up Cisco FMC to send logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging (SaaS). The network administrator is anticipating a high volume of logging events from the firewalls and wants lo limit the strain on firewall resources. Which method must the administrator use to send these logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging?

A.

SFTP using the FMCCLI

B.

syslog using the Secure Event Connector

C.

direct connection using SNMP traps

D.

HTTP POST using the Security Analytics FMC plugin

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Question # 22

Which Cisco platform provides an agentless solution to provide visibility across the network including encrypted traffic analytics to detect malware in encrypted traffic without the need for decryption?

A.

Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

D.

Cisco AnyConnect

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Question # 23

Which open source tool does Cisco use to create graphical visualizations of network telemetry on Cisco IOS XE devices?

A.

InfluxDB

B.

Splunk

C.

SNMP

D.

Grafana

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Question # 24

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

350-701 question answer

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Question # 25

An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the

corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the

latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the

network?

A.

Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration

C.

Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured

D.

Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled

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Question # 26

Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two)

A.

64-bit block size, 112-bit key length

B.

64-bit block size, 168-bit key length

C.

128-bit block size, 192-bit key length

D.

128-bit block size, 256-bit key length

E.

192-bit block size, 256-bit key length

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Question # 27

An administrator configures new authorization policies within Cisco ISE and has difficulty profiling the devices. Attributes for the new Cisco IP phones that are profiled based on the RADIUS authentication are seen however the attributes for CDP or DHCP are not. What should the administrator do to address this issue?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the DHCP interfaces to get the information to Cisco ISE

B.

Configure the authentication port-control auto feature within Cisco ISE to identify the devices that are trying to connect

C.

Configure a service template within the switch to standardize the port configurations so that the correct information is sent to Cisco ISE

D.

Configure the device sensor feature within the switch to send the appropriate protocol information

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Question # 28

In which two customer environments is the Cisco Secure Web Appliance Virtual connector traffic direction method selected? (Choose two.)

A.

Customer needs to support roaming users.

B.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Transparent Redirection (WCCP).

C.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and Virtual Form Factor is required.

D.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Explicit Proxy.

E.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and SSL Tunneling is required.

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Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

A network engineer is testing NTP authentication and realizes that any device synchronizes time with this router and that NTP authentication is not enforced What is the cause of this issue?

A.

The key was configured in plain text.

B.

NTP authentication is not enabled.

C.

The hashing algorithm that was used was MD5. which is unsupported.

D.

The router was not rebooted after the NTP configuration updated.

Full Access
Question # 30

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

A.

Cisco Catalyst Center

B.

Cisco Security Intelligence

C.

Cisco Model Driven Telemetry

D.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

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Question # 31

What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of malware?

A.

Ethos Engine to perform fuzzy fingerprinting

B.

Tetra Engine to detect malware when me endpoint is connected to the cloud

C.

Clam AV Engine to perform email scanning

D.

Spero Engine with machine learning to perform dynamic analysis

Full Access
Question # 32

A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Third-party systems need to be able to feed host data into Cisco Firepower. What must be configured to accomplish this?

A.

a Network Discovery policy to receive data from the host

B.

a Threat Intelligence policy to download the data from the host

C.

a File Analysis policy to send file data into Cisco Firepower

D.

a Network Analysis policy to receive NetFlow data from the host

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Question # 33

Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

350-701 question answer

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Question # 34

Which method must be used to connect Cisco Secure Workload to external orchestrators at a client site when the client does not allow incoming connections?

A.

source NAT

B.

reverse tunnel

C.

GRE tunnel

D.

destination NAT

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Question # 35

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. All servers are in the same VLAN/Subnet. DNS Server-1 and DNS Server-2 must communicate with each other, and all servers must communicate with default gateway multilayer switch. Which type of private VLAN ports should be configured to prevent communication between DNS servers and the file server?

A.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as promiscuous ports.

B.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as promiscuous port, Gigabit Ethernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports C. Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as community ports

C.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as community port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports.

Full Access
Question # 36

What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure new routers for monitoring purposes?

A.

Telemetry uses a pull mehod, which makes it more reliable than SNMP

B.

Telemetry uses push and pull, which makes it more scalable than SNMP

C.

Telemetry uses push and pull which makes it more secure than SNMP

D.

Telemetry uses a push method which makes it faster than SNMP

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Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

A.

privilege level for an authorized user to this router

B.

access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

C.

interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

D.

number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

Full Access
Question # 38

What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?

A.

Traffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level withinthe interval.

B.

Traffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.

C.

Traffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval.

D.

Traffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the packet isunicast or broadcast.

Full Access
Question # 39

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

A.

Mail Submission Agent

B.

Mail Transfer Agent

C.

Mail Delivery Agent

D.

Mail User Agent

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Question # 40

A network administrator is configuring a switch to use Cisco ISE for 802.1X. An endpoint is failing

authentication and is unable to access the network. Where should the administrator begin troubleshooting to verify the authentication details?

A.

Adaptive Network Control Policy List

B.

Context Visibility

C.

Accounting Reports

D.

RADIUS Live Logs

Full Access
Question # 41

A security engineer must add destinations into a destination list in Cisco Umbrella. What describes the application of these changes?

A.

The changes are applied immediately it the destination list is part or a policy.

B.

The destination list must be removed from the policy before changes are made to It.

C.

The changes are applied only after the configuration is saved in Cisco Umbrella.

D.

The user role of Block Page Bypass or higher is needed to perform these changes.

Full Access
Question # 42

Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

A.

PFS

B.

HMAC

C.

MD5

D.

SHA

Full Access
Question # 43

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy.

D.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

Full Access
Question # 44

A university policy must allow open access to resources on the Internet for research, but internal workstations are exposed to malware. Which Cisco AMP feature allows the engineering team to determine whether a file is installed on a selected few workstations?

A.

file prevalence

B.

file discovery

C.

file conviction

D.

file manager

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Question # 45

Which Cisco security solution integrates with cloud applications like Dropbox and Office 365 while protecting data from being exfiltrated?

A.

Cisco Tajos

B.

Cisco Steaithwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

Full Access
Question # 46

When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?

A.

Application Control

B.

Security Category Blocking

C.

Content Category Blocking

D.

File Analysis

Full Access
Question # 47

Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

A.

transparent mode

B.

routed mode

C.

inline mode

D.

active mode

E.

passive monitor-only mode

Full Access
Question # 48

An engineer is adding a Cisco router to an existing environment. NTP authentication is configured on all devices in the environment with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Clsc427128380. There are two routers on the network that are configured as NTP servers for redundancy, 192.168.1.110 and 192.168.1.111. 192.168.1.110 is configured as the authoritative time source. What command must be configured on the new router to use 192.168.1.110 as its primary time source without the new router attempting to offer time to existing devices?

A.

ntp server 192.168.1.110 primary key 1

B.

ntp peer 192.168.1.110 prefer key 1

C.

ntp server 192.168.1.110 key 1 prefer

D.

ntp peer 192.168.1.110 key 1 primary

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Question # 49

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process activity on an endpoint?

A.

Retrospective security

B.

Endpoint isolation

C.

Advanced investigation

D.

Advanced search

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Question # 50

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 51

What is a description of microsegmentation?

A.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

Full Access
Question # 52

Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

A.

Sensitive data must remain onsite.

B.

Demand is unpredictable.

C.

The server team wants to outsource this service.

D.

ESA is deployed inline.

Full Access
Question # 53

Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent?

(Choose two)

A.

Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.

B.

Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.

C.

Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.

D.

An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.

E.

Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls

Full Access
Question # 54

Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 55

What is a capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

A.

It filters NSEL events based on traffic

B.

It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured

C.

It logs all event types only to the same collector

D.

It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active standby failover pair

Full Access
Question # 56

After a recent breach, an organization determined that phishing was used to gain initial access to the network before regaining persistence. The information gained from the phishing attack was a result of users visiting known malicious websites. What must be done in order to prevent this from happening in the future?

A.

Modify an access policy

B.

Modify identification profiles

C.

Modify outbound malware scanning policies

D.

Modify web proxy settings

Full Access
Question # 57

A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Cisco ESA is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

A.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold

C.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold

D.

The policy was created to disable file analysis

Full Access
Question # 58

In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

A.

hypervisor

B.

virtual machine

C.

network

D.

application

Full Access
Question # 59

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that any feature of DNS requests, such as the length of the domain name and the number of subdomains, can be used to construct models of expected behavior to which observed values can be compared. Which type of malicious attack are these values associated with?

A.

W32/AutoRun worm

B.

HeartBleed SSL Bug

C.

Spectre Worm

D.

Eternal Blue Windows

Full Access
Question # 60

Which type of data exfiltration technique encodes data in outbound DNS requests to specific servers

and can be stopped by Cisco Umbrella?

A.

DNS tunneling

B.

DNS flood attack

C.

cache poisoning

D.

DNS hijacking

Full Access
Question # 61

What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two)

A.

blocked ports

B.

simple custom detections

C.

command and control

D.

allowed applications

E.

URL

Full Access
Question # 62

What is a functional difference between Cisco Secure Endpoint and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?

A.

Secure Endpoint authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.

B.

Secure Endpoint stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.

C.

The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and Secure Endpoint allows only for VPN connectivity.

D.

The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and Secure Endpoint tracks only URL-based threats.

Full Access
Question # 63

Which process is used to obtain a certificate from a CA?

A.

Registration

B.

Enrollment

C.

Signing

D.

Approval

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Question # 64

A network engineer has been tasked with adding a new medical device to the network. Cisco ISE is being used as the NAC server, and the new device does not have a supplicant available. What must be done in order to securely connect this device to the network?

A.

Use MAB with profiling

B.

Use MAB with posture assessment.

C.

Use 802.1X with posture assessment.

D.

Use 802.1X with profiling.

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Question # 65

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

TACACS+

B.

CHAP

C.

NTLMSSP

D.

RADIUS

E.

Kerberos

Full Access
Question # 66

Which capability is provided by application visibility and control?

A.

reputation filtering

B.

data obfuscation

C.

data encryption

D.

deep packet inspection

Full Access
Question # 67

Which action configures the IEEE 802.1X Flexible Authentication feature lo support Layer 3 authentication mechanisms?

A.

Identity the devices using this feature and create a policy that allows them to pass Layer 2 authentication.

B.

Configure WebAuth so the hosts are redirected to a web page for authentication.

C.

Modify the Dot1x configuration on the VPN server lo send Layer 3 authentications to an external authentication database

D.

Add MAB into the switch to allow redirection to a Layer 3 device for authentication.

Full Access
Question # 68

Which two activities are performed using Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Provision

D.

DNS

E.

Accounting

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Question # 69

An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and would like to customize the action assigned for

violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a message added to flag it as a

DLP violation. Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?

A.

deliver and send copies to other recipients

B.

quarantine and send a DLP violation notification

C.

quarantine and alter the subject header with a DLP violation

D.

deliver and add disclaimer text

Full Access
Question # 70

In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint

Protection Platform?

A.

when there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection

B.

when there is no need to have the solution centrally managed

C.

when there is no firewall on the network

D.

when there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities

Full Access
Question # 71

A network administrator needs a solution to match traffic and allow or deny the traffic based on the type of application, not just the source or destination address and port used. Which kind of security product must the network administrator implement to meet this requirement?

A.

Next-generation Intrusion Prevention System

B.

Next-generation Firewall

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 72

Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to

network resources?

A.

BYOD on boarding

B.

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

C.

Client provisioning

D.

MAC authentication bypass

Full Access
Question # 73

What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

A.

Enable IP Layer enforcement.

B.

Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license

C.

Activate SSL decryption.

D.

Enable Intelligent Proxy.

Full Access
Question # 74

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

A.

HMAC

B.

SHA-1

C.

MD5

D.

SISHA-2

Full Access
Question # 75

Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

A.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

C.

asa-host(config)#snmpserver group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

D.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

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Question # 76

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must ensure it reaches the Cisco update servers to retrieve new rules. The engineer must now manually configure the Outbreak Filter rules on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Only outdated rules must be replaced. Up-to-date rules must be retained. Which action must the engineer take next to complete the configuration?

A.

Select Outbreak Filters

B.

Perform a backup/restore of the database

C.

Use the outbreakconfig command in CLI

D.

Click Update Rules Now

Full Access
Question # 77

For a given policy in Cisco Umbrella, how should a customer block websites based on a custom list?

A.

By adding the websites to a blocked type destination list

B.

By specifying blocked domains in the policy settings

C.

By adding the website IP addresses to the Cisco Umbrella blocklist

D.

By specifying the websites in a custom blocked category

Full Access
Question # 78

A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work What is the reason for this failure?

A.

The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.

B.

The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format

C.

The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended

D.

Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies

Full Access
Question # 79

Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for

endpoints? (Choose two)

A.

exploits

B.

ARP spoofing

C.

denial-of-service attacks

D.

malware

E.

eavesdropping

Full Access
Question # 80

How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?

A.

up to 2

B.

up to 4

C.

up to 8

D.

up to 16

Full Access
Question # 81

Which type of dashboard does Cisco DNA Center provide for complete control of the network?

A.

service management

B.

centralized management

C.

application management

D.

distributed management

Full Access
Question # 82

How does Cisco AMP for Endpoints provide next-generation protection?

A.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

B.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

C.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Cisco AMP to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

D.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

Full Access
Question # 83

Drag and drop the security solutions from the left onto the benefits they provide on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 84

Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?

A.

smurf

B.

MITM

C.

teardrop

D.

LAND

Full Access
Question # 85

What is a benefit of using Cisco Umbrella?

A.

DNS queries are resolved faster.

B.

Attacks can be mitigated before the application connection occurs.

C.

Files are scanned for viruses before they are allowed to run.

D.

It prevents malicious inbound traffic.

Full Access
Question # 86

Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network architecture dynamically

makes configuration changes on switches within the network?

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

Full Access
Question # 87

An engineer is configuring cloud logging on Cisco ASA and needs events to compress. Which component must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A.

CDO event viewer

B.

SWC service

C.

Cisco analytics

D.

SDC VM

Full Access
Question # 88

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to enable a separated email transfer flow from the Internet and from the LAN. Which deployment mode must be used to accomplish this goal?

A.

single interface

B.

multi-context

C.

transparent

D.

two-interface

Full Access
Question # 89

Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

A.

EIDDOS

B.

virus

C.

DDOS

D.

TCP flood

Full Access
Question # 90

How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise owned storage?

A.

by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs

B.

by sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server

C.

by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal

D.

by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket

Full Access
Question # 91

Which feature enables a Cisco ISR to use the default bypass list automatically for web filtering?

A.

filters

B.

group key

C.

company key

D.

connector

Full Access
Question # 92

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

Full Access
Question # 93

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two Cisco ASAs for high availability. What is the connection status in both cases?

A.

Need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover

B.

Need to be reestablished with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover

C.

Preserved with both stateful and stateless failover

D.

Preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover

Full Access
Question # 94

Drag and drop the cloud security assessment components from the left onto the definitions on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 95

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

Full Access
Question # 96

What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a server?

A.

It is the password for the certificate that is needed to install it with.

B.

It provides the server information so a certificate can be created and signed

C.

It provides the certificate client information so the server can authenticate against it when installing

D.

It is the certificate that will be loaded onto the server

Full Access
Question # 97

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

Full Access
Question # 98

An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA. Which Cisco ASA

command must be used?

A.

flow-export destination inside 1.1.1.1 2055

B.

ip flow monitor input

C.

ip flow-export destination 1.1.1.1 2055

D.

flow exporter

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Question # 99

What is the term for having information about threats and threat actors that helps mitigate harmful events that would otherwise compromise networks or systems?

A.

trusted automated exchange

B.

Indicators of Compromise

C.

The Exploit Database

D.

threat intelligence

Full Access
Question # 100

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZ_inside zone once the configuration is deployed?

A.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection.

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not.

C.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted.

D.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection.

Full Access
Question # 101

Which category includes DoS Attacks?

A.

Virus attacks

B.

Trojan attacks

C.

Flood attacks

D.

Phishing attacks

Full Access
Question # 102

Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct connection?

A.

Malware installation

B.

Command-and-control communication

C.

Network footprinting

D.

Data exfiltration

Full Access
Question # 103

When MAB is configured for use within the 802.1X environment, an administrator must create a policy that allows the devices onto the network. Which information is used for the username and password?

A.

The MAB uses the IP address as username and password.

B.

The MAB uses the call-station-ID as username and password.

C.

Each device must be set manually by the administrator.

D.

The MAB uses the MAC address as username and password.

Full Access
Question # 104

An engineer is implementing DHCP security mechanisms and needs the ability to add additional attributes to profiles that are created within Cisco ISE Which action accomplishes this task?

A.

Define MAC-to-lP address mappings in the switch to ensure that rogue devices cannot get an IP address

B.

Use DHCP option 82 to ensure that the request is from a legitimate endpoint and send the information to Cisco ISE

C.

Modify the DHCP relay and point the IP address to Cisco ISE.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping on the switch VLANs and trust the necessary interfaces

Full Access
Question # 105

What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

A.

Can track ingress and egress information

B.

Include the flow record and the flow importer

C.

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface

D.

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces

E.

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic

Full Access
Question # 106

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices. The default management

port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed. What must be done to ensure

that all devices can communicate together?

A.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

B.

Set the tunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

C.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTDdevices

D.

Set the tunnel port to 8305

Full Access
Question # 107

Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP/TCP flags, and payload length?

A.

interpacket variation

B.

software package variation

C.

flow insight variation

D.

process details variation

Full Access
Question # 108

An engineer is configuring web filtering for a network using Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway.

The requirement is that all traffic needs to be filtered. Using the SSL decryption feature, which type of

certificate should be presented to the end-user to accomplish this goal?

A.

third-party

B.

self-signed

C.

organization owned root

D.

SubCA

Full Access
Question # 109

Which solution supports high availability in routed or transparent mode as well as in northbound and

southbound deployments?

A.

Cisco FTD with Cisco ASDM

B.

Cisco FTD with Cisco FMC

C.

Cisco Firepower NGFW physical appliance with Cisco. FMC

D.

Cisco Firepower NGFW Virtual appliance with Cisco FMC

Full Access
Question # 110

What is a feature of container orchestration?

A.

ability to deploy Amazon ECS clusters by using the Cisco Container Platform data plane

B.

ability to deploy Amazon EKS clusters by using the Cisco Container Platform data plane

C.

ability to deploy Kubernetes clusters in air-gapped sites

D.

automated daily updates

Full Access
Question # 111

What is a feature of NetFlow Secure Event Logging?

A.

It exports only records that indicate significant events in a flow.

B.

It filters NSEL events based on the traffic and event type through RSVP.

C.

It delivers data records to NSEL collectors through NetFlow over TCP only.

D.

It supports v5 and v8 templates.

Full Access
Question # 112

An engineer needs a cloud solution that will monitor traffic, create incidents based on events, and integrate with

other cloud solutions via an API. Which solution should be used to accomplish this goal?

A.

SIEM

B.

CASB

C.

Adaptive MFA

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Full Access
Question # 113

A company recently discovered an attack propagating throughout their Windows network via a file named abc428565580xyz exe The malicious file was uploaded to a Simple Custom Detection list in the AMP for Endpoints Portal and the currently applied policy for the Windows clients was updated to reference the detection list Verification testing scans on known infected systems shows that AMP for Endpoints is not detecting the presence of this file as an indicator of compromise What must be performed to ensure detection of the malicious file?

A.

Upload the malicious file to the Blocked Application Control List

B.

Use an Advanced Custom Detection List instead of a Simple Custom Detection List

C.

Check the box in the policy configuration to send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

D.

Upload the SHA-256 hash for the file to the Simple Custom Detection List

Full Access
Question # 114

Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two)

A.

put

B.

options

C.

get

D.

push

E.

connect

Full Access
Question # 115

What is the difference between EPP and EDR?

A.

EPP focuses primarily on threats that have evaded front-line defenses that entered the environment.

B.

Having an EPP solution allows an engineer to detect, investigate, and remediate modern threats.

C.

EDR focuses solely on prevention at the perimeter.

D.

Having an EDR solution gives an engineer the capability to flag offending files at the first sign of malicious behavior.

Full Access
Question # 116

Which two functions does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution perform in trying to protect from phishing attacks? (Choose two.)

A.

blocks malicious websites and adds them to a block list

B.

does a real-time user web browsing behavior analysis

C.

provides a defense for on-premises email deployments

D.

uses a static algorithm to determine malicious

E.

determines if the email messages are malicious

Full Access
Question # 117

What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)

A.

data exfiltration

B.

command and control communication

C.

intelligent proxy

D.

snort

E.

URL categorization

Full Access
Question # 118

Which solution stops unauthorized access to the system if a user's password is compromised?

A.

VPN

B.

MFA

C.

AMP

D.

SSL

Full Access
Question # 119

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?

A.

SDN controller and the cloud

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the management solution

Full Access
Question # 120

What must be enabled to secure SaaS-based applications?

A.

modular policy framework

B.

two-factor authentication

C.

application security gateway

D.

end-to-end encryption

Full Access
Question # 121

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

Full Access
Question # 122

Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two)

A.

Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; theIPsec configuration is copied automatically

B.

The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the sametype of device.

C.

The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device

D.

Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device;the IKE configuration is copied automatically.

E.

The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be thesame type of device

Full Access
Question # 123

What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection and

Response?

A.

EPP focuses on prevention, and EDR focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.

B.

EDR focuses on prevention, and EPP focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.

C.

EPP focuses on network security, and EDR focuses on device security.

D.

EDR focuses on network security, and EPP focuses on device security.

Full Access
Question # 124

Which algorithm provides asymmetric encryption?

A.

RC4

B.

AES

C.

RSA

D.

3DES

Full Access
Question # 125

Client workstations are experiencing extremely poor response time. An engineer suspects that an attacker is eavesdropping and making independent connections while relaying messages between victims to make them think they are talking to each other over a private connection. Which feature must be enabled and configured to provide relief from this type of attack?

A.

Link Aggregation

B.

Reverse ARP

C.

private VLANs

D.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

Full Access
Question # 126

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What does this Python script accomplish?

A.

It allows authentication with TLSv1 SSL protocol

B.

It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.

C.

lt authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username of ersad

D.

It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE

Full Access
Question # 127

Which type of attack is MFA an effective deterrent for?

A.

ping of death

B.

phishing

C.

teardrop

D.

syn flood

Full Access
Question # 128

Which function is performed by certificate authorities but is a limitation of registration authorities?

A.

accepts enrollment requests

B.

certificate re-enrollment

C.

verifying user identity

D.

CRL publishing

Full Access
Question # 129

What are two functions of IKEv1 but not IKEv2? (Choose two)

A.

NAT-T is supported in IKEv1 but rot in IKEv2.

B.

With IKEv1, when using aggressive mode, the initiator and responder identities are passed cleartext

C.

With IKEv1, mode negotiates faster than main mode

D.

IKEv1 uses EAP authentication

E.

IKEv1 conversations are initiated by the IKE_SA_INIT message

Full Access
Question # 130

Which VPN technology supports a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GET VPN

Full Access
Question # 131

A company has 5000 Windows users on its campus. Which two precautions should IT take to prevent WannaCry ransomware from spreading to all clients? (Choose two.)

A.

Segment different departments to different IP blocks and enable Dynamic ARp inspection on all VLANs

B.

Ensure that noncompliant endpoints are segmented off to contain any potential damage.

C.

Ensure that a user cannot enter the network of another department.

D.

Perform a posture check to allow only network access to (hose Windows devices that are already patched.

E.

Put all company users in the trusted segment of NGFW and put all servers to the DMZ segment of the Cisco NGFW. ni

Full Access
Question # 132

What does endpoint isolation in Cisco AMP for Endpoints security protect from?

A.

an infection spreading across the network E

B.

a malware spreading across the user device

C.

an infection spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

D.

a malware spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

Full Access
Question # 133

How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

A.

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and sends malware throughthat connection.

B.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.

C.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS servers in order topoison the resolutions.

D.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them to a maliciousdomain.

Full Access
Question # 134

Which Cisco ISE service checks the compliance of endpoints before allowing the endpoints to connect to

the network?

A.

posture

B.

profiler

C.

Cisco TrustSec

D.

Threat Centric NAC

Full Access
Question # 135

Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two)

A.

Enable NetFlow Version 9.

B.

Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.

C.

Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.

D.

Create a class map to match interesting traffic.

E.

Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command

Full Access
Question # 136

An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch

was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware. Which two solutions mitigate

the risk of this ransom ware infection? (Choose two)

A.

Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowingaccess on the network.

B.

Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowingaccess on the network.

C.

Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is metbefore allowing access on the network.

D.

Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicatethroughout the network.

E.

Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion.

Full Access
Question # 137

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

A.

Defang

B.

Quarantine

C.

FilterAction

D.

ScreenAction

Full Access
Question # 138

What is a characteristic of Firepower NGIPS inline deployment mode?

A.

ASA with Firepower module cannot be deployed.

B.

It cannot take actions such as blocking traffic.

C.

It is out-of-band from traffic.

D.

It must have inline interface pairs configured.

Full Access
Question # 139

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites

but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

D.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy

Full Access
Question # 140

Drag and drop the security responsibilities from the left onto the corresponding cloud service models on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 141

What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?

A.

to allow for the dynamic configuration of control plane applications

B.

to enable the controller to make changes

C.

to enable the controller to use REST

D.

to allow for the static configuration of control plane applications

Full Access
Question # 142

What do tools like Jenkins, Octopus Deploy, and Azure DevOps provide in terms of application and

infrastructure automation?

A.

continuous integration and continuous deployment

B.

cloud application security broker

C.

compile-time instrumentation

D.

container orchestration

Full Access
Question # 143

A security engineer is tasked with configuring TACACS on a Cisco ASA firewall. The engineer must be able to access the firewall command line interface remotely. The authentication must fall back to the local user database of the Cisco ASA firewall. AAA server group named TACACS-GROUP is already configured with TACACS server IP address 192.168.10.10 and key C1sc0512222832!. Which configuration must be done next to meet the requirement?

A.

aaa authentication ssh console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

B.

aaa authentication ssh console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

C.

aaa authentication serial console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

D.

aaa authentication http console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

Full Access
Question # 144

Which risk is created when using an Internet browser to access cloud-based service?

A.

misconfiguration of infrastructure, which allows unauthorized access

B.

intermittent connection to the cloud connectors

C.

vulnerabilities within protocol

D.

insecure implementation of API

Full Access
Question # 145

How does Cisco Umbrella protect clients when they operate outside of the corporate network?

A.

by modifying the registry for DNS lookups

B.

by using Active Directory group policies to enforce Cisco Umbrella DNS servers

C.

by using the Cisco Umbrella roaming client

D.

by forcing DNS queries to the corporate name servers

Full Access
Question # 146

Which problem Is solved by deploying a multicontext firewall?

A.

overlapping IP addressing plan

B.

more secure policy

C.

resilient high availability design

D.

faster inspection

Full Access
Question # 147

Due to a traffic storm on the network, two interfaces were error-disabled, and both interfaces sent SNMP traps.

Which two actions must be taken to ensure that interfaces are put back into service? (Choose two)

A.

Have Cisco Prime Infrastructure issue an SNMP set command to re-enable the ports after the preconfigured interval.

B.

Use EEM to have the ports return to service automatically in less than 300 seconds.

C.

Enter the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the interfaces.

D.

Enable the snmp-server enable traps command and wait 300 seconds

E.

Ensure that interfaces are configured with the error-disable detection and recovery feature

Full Access
Question # 148

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

A.

Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hostA.

B.

Enter the command with a different password on hostB.

C.

Enter the same command on hostB.

D.

Change the password on hostA to the default password.

Full Access
Question # 149

Which two actions does the Cisco identity Services Engine posture module provide that ensures endpoint security?(Choose two.)

A.

The latest antivirus updates are applied before access is allowed.

B.

Assignments to endpoint groups are made dynamically, based on endpoint attributes.

C.

Patch management remediation is performed.

D.

A centralized management solution is deployed.

E.

Endpoint supplicant configuration is deployed.

Full Access
Question # 150

Which DoS attack uses fragmented packets in an attempt to crash a target machine?

A.

teardrop

B.

smurf

C.

LAND

D.

SYN flood

Full Access
Question # 151

How does the Cisco WSA enforce bandwidth restrictions for web applications?

A.

It implements a policy route to redirect application traffic to a lower-bandwidth link.

B.

It dynamically creates a scavenger class QoS policy and applies it to each client that connects through the WSA.

C.

It sends commands to the uplink router to apply traffic policing to the application traffic.

D.

It simulates a slower link by introducing latency into application traffic.

Full Access
Question # 152

Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

A.

IP Blacklist Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

AMP Reputation Center

D.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

Full Access
Question # 153

Which policy does a Cisco Secure Web Appliance use to block or monitor URL requests based on the reputation score?

A.

Encryption

B.

Enforcement Security

C.

Cisco Data Security

D.

Outbound Malware Scanning

Full Access
Question # 154

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

A.

to register new laptops and mobile devices

B.

to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C.

to provision userless and agentless systems

D.

to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end user

Full Access
Question # 155

Which technology limits communication between nodes on the same network segment to individual applications?

A.

serverless infrastructure

B.

microsegmentation

C.

SaaS deployment

D.

machine-to-machine firewalling

Full Access
Question # 156

An engineer must configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints so that it contains a list of files that should not be executed by users. These files must not be quarantined. Which action meets this configuration requirement?

A.

Identity the network IPs and place them in a blocked list.

B.

Modify the advanced custom detection list to include these files.

C.

Create an application control blocked applications list.

D.

Add a list for simple custom detection.

Full Access
Question # 157

What are two functionalities of SDN Northbound APIs? (Choose two.)

A.

Northbound APIs provide a programmable interface for applications to dynamically configure the network.

B.

Northbound APIs form the interface between the SDN controller and business applications.

C.

OpenFlow is a standardized northbound API protocol.

D.

Northbound APIs use the NETCONF protocol to communicate with applications.

E.

Northbound APIs form the interface between the SDN controller and the network switches or routers.

Full Access
Question # 158

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?

A.

hashing algorithm mismatch

B.

encryption algorithm mismatch

C.

authentication key mismatch

D.

interesting traffic was not applied

Full Access
Question # 159

What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

A.

DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCPsnooping binding database.

B.

In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which areuntrusted

C.

DAI associates a trust state with each switch.

D.

DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What does the API do when connected to a Cisco security appliance?

A.

get the process and PID information from the computers in the network

B.

create an SNMP pull mechanism for managing AMP

C.

gather network telemetry information from AMP for endpoints

D.

gather the network interface information about the computers AMP sees

Full Access
Question # 161

Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the

deployment?

A.

NGFW

B.

AMP

C.

WSA

D.

ESA

Full Access
Question # 162

Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?

A.

It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.

B.

It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.

C.

It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.

D.

It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.

Full Access
Question # 163

Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

B.

Define security group memberships.

C.

Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

D.

Use antispyware software.

E.

Implement email filtering techniques.

Full Access
Question # 164

An engineer implements Cisco CloudLock to secure a Microsoft Office 365 application in the cloud. The engineer must configure protection for corporate files in case of any incidents. Which two actions must be taken to complete the implementation? (Choose two.)

A.

Expire the public share URL

B.

Send Cisco Webex message to specified users when an incident is triggered

C.

Transfer ownership of the files to a specified owner and folder

D.

Remove all users as collaborators on the files

E.

Disable the ability for commenters and viewers to download and copy the files

Full Access
Question # 165

An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked from being

accessed via the firewall which requires that the administrator input the bad URL categories that the

organization wants blocked into the access policy. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

A.

Cisco ASA because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco FTDdoes not

B.

Cisco ASA because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not

C.

Cisco FTD because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco FTD because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco ASA does not

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Question # 166

An engineer must enable Outbreak Filters globally on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway to protect the network from large-scale malware attacks. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

350-701 question answer

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Question # 167

Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to

the VPN?

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Firepower

D.

NGIPS

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Question # 168

A network administrator has configured TACACS on a network device using the key Cisc0467380030 tor authentication purposes. However, users are unable to authenticate. TACACS server is reachable, but authentication is tailing. Which configuration step must the administrator complete?

A.

Implement synchronized system clock on TACACS server that matches the network device.

B.

Install a compatible operating system version on the TACACS server.

C.

Configure the TACACS key on the server to match with the network device.

D.

Apply an access control list on TACACS server to allow communication with the network device.

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Question # 169

What is a difference between a zone-based firewall and a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewall?

A.

Zone-based firewalls provide static routing based on interfaces, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls provide dynamic routing.

B.

Zone-based firewalls support virtual tunnel interfaces across different locations, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls support DMVPN.

C.

Zone-based firewalls have a default allow-all policy between interfaces in the same zone, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls have a deny-all policy.

D.

Zone-based firewalls are used in large deployments with multiple areas, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls are used in small deployments.

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Question # 170

Which technology provides a combination of endpoint protection endpoint detection, and response?

A.

Cisco AMP

B.

Cisco Talos

C.

Cisco Threat Grid

D.

Cisco Umbrella

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Question # 171

An organization wants to secure users, data, and applications in the cloud. The solution must be API-based and

operate as a cloud-native CASB. Which solution must be used for this implementation?

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall

D.

Cisco Umbrella

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Question # 172

What is a difference between a DoS attack and a DDoS attack?

A.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP and UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where multiple systems target a single system with a DoS attack

B.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP and UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood multiple servers that are distributed over a LAN

C.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP packets

D.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with UDP packets

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Question # 173

Which two aspects of the cloud PaaS model are managed by the customer but not the provider? (Choose two)

A.

virtualization

B.

middleware

C.

operating systems

D.

applications

E.

data

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Question # 174

Which command is used to log all events to a destination colector 209.165.201.107?

A.

CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10

B.

CiscoASA(config-cmap)# flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.

C.

CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.10

D.

CiscoASA(config-cmap)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10

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Question # 175

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize

applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

A.

Cisco Security Intelligence

B.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

C.

Cisco Model Driven Telemetry

D.

Cisco DNA Center

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Question # 176

In which cloud services model is the customer responsible for scanning for and mitigation of application vulnerabilities?

A.

PaaS

B.

VMaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

SaaS

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Question # 177

An email administrator is setting up a new Cisco ESA. The administrator wants to enable the blocking of greymail for the end user. Which feature must the administrator enable first?

A.

File Analysis

B.

IP Reputation Filtering

C.

Intelligent Multi-Scan

D.

Anti-Virus Filtering

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Question # 178

Which attribute has the ability to change during the RADIUS CoA?

A.

NTP

B.

Authorization

C.

Accessibility

D.

Membership

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Question # 179

Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat?

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

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Question # 180

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to deploy it in transparent mode. Which configuration component must be used to accomplish this goal?

A.

MDA on the router

B.

PBR on Cisco WSA

C.

WCCP on switch

D.

DNS resolution on Cisco WSA

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Question # 181

An administrator is configuring N I P on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A.

Specify the NTP version

B.

Configure the NTP stratum

C.

Set the authentication key

D.

Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP DNS hostname

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Question # 182

Which Cisco Secure Client module is integrated with Splunk Enterprise to provide monitoring capabilities to administrators to allow them to view endpoint application usage?

A.

Umbrella Roaming Security

B.

Network Visibility

C.

AMP Enabler

D.

ISE Posture

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Question # 183

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are

authenticating with dot1x or mab?

A.

show authentication registrations

B.

show authentication method

C.

show dot1x all

D.

show authentication sessions

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Question # 184

What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetry?

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TFTP

D.

NctFlow

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Question # 185

Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

A.

SSL VPN

B.

GET VPN

C.

FlexVPN

D.

DMVPN

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Question # 186

A web hosting company must upgrade its older, unsupported on-premises servers. The company wants a cloud solution in which the cloud provider is responsible for:

    Server patching

    Application maintenance

    Data center security

    Disaster recovery

Which type of cloud meets the requirements?

A.

Hybrid

B.

IaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

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Question # 187

What is a difference between weak passwords and missing encryption?

A.

Weak passwords allow programs to be renamed, and missing encryption hides .exe extensions.

B.

Weak passwords cause programs to crash, and missing encryption sends data to a memory location.

C.

Weak passwords consume bandwidth, and missing encryption allows user information to be hijacked.

D.

Weak passwords are guessed easily, and missing encryption allows information to be decrypted.

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Question # 188

Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Cisco TrustSec devices to force a session to be adjusted after a policy change is made? (Choose two)

A.

posture assessment

B.

aaa authorization exec default local

C.

tacacs-server host 10.1.1.250 key password

D.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

E.

CoA

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Question # 189

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the Python script?

A.

It uses the POST HTTP method to obtain a username and password to be used for authentication.

B.

It uses the POST HTTP method to obtain a token to be used for authentication.

C.

It uses the GET HTTP method to obtain a token to be used for authentication.

D.

It uses the GET HTTP method to obtain a username and password to be used for authentication

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Question # 190

An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be prevented from quickly

identifying all valid recipients. What must be done on the Cisco ESA to accomplish this goal?

A.

Configure incoming content filters

B.

Use Bounce Verification

C.

Configure Directory Harvest Attack Prevention

D.

Bypass LDAP access queries in the recipient access table

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Question # 191

What are two benefits of using Cisco Duo as an MFA solution? (Choose two.)

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device

B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users

C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments

D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints

E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations

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Question # 192

Which security product enables administrators to deploy Kubernetes clusters in air-gapped sites without needing Internet access?

A.

Cisco Content Platform

B.

Cisco Container Controller

C.

Cisco Container Platform

D.

Cisco Cloud Platform

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Question # 193

An administrator enables Cisco Threat Intelligence Director on a Cisco FMC. Which process uses STIX and allows uploads and downloads of block lists?

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

editing

D.

authoring

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Question # 194

What is a feature of an endpoint detection and response solution?

A.

Preventing attacks by identifying harmful events with machine learning and conduct-based defense

B.

Rapidly and consistently observing and examining data to mitigate threats

C.

Capturing and clarifying data on email, endpoints, and servers to mitigate threats

D.

Ensuring the security of network devices by choosing which devices are allowed to reach the network

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Question # 195

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

A.

asset inventory management

B.

allowed application management

C.

Active Directory group policy management

D.

network device management

E.

critical device management

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Question # 196

When choosing an algorithm to us, what should be considered about Diffie Hellman and RSA for key

establishment?

A.

RSA is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys

B.

RSA is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys

C.

DH is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys

D.

DH is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys

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Question # 197

Which standard is used to automate exchanging cyber threat information?

A.

TAXII

B.

MITRE

C.

IoC

D.

STIX

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Question # 198

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet. Extranet, and Internet, with a proxy configuration running in explicit mode Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

A.

Transparent mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

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Question # 199

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

The DHCP snooping database resides on router R1, and dynamic ARP inspection is configured only on switch SW2. Which ports must be configured as untrusted so that dynamic ARP inspection operates normally?

A.

P2 and P3 only

B.

P5, P6, and P7 only

C.

P1, P2, P3, and P4 only

D.

P2, P3, and P6 only

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Question # 200

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

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Question # 201

A Cisco Secure Email Gateway network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Secure Email Gateway is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

A.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold.

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold.

C.

The policy was created to disable file analysis.

D.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop.

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Question # 202

Which method of attack is used by a hacker to send malicious code through a web application to an unsuspecting user to request that the victim's web browser executes the code?

A.

buffer overflow

B.

browser WGET

C.

SQL injection

D.

cross-site scripting

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Question # 203

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

A.

HTTPS file upload site

B.

Microsoft Windows network shares

C.

SQL database injections

D.

encrypted SMTP

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Question # 204

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco CTA

D.

Cisco ASA

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Question # 205

Which feature within Cisco ISE verifies the compliance of an endpoint before providing access to the

network?

A.

Posture

B.

Profiling

C.

pxGrid

D.

MAB

Full Access
Question # 206

Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)

A.

accounting

B.

assurance

C.

automation

D.

authentication

E.

encryption

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Question # 207

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco Tetration

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Question # 208

When network telemetry is implemented, what is important to be enabled across all network infrastructure devices to correlate different sources?

A.

CDP

B.

NTP

C.

syslog

D.

DNS

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Question # 209

An organization has two systems in their DMZ that have an unencrypted link between them for communication.

The organization does not have a defined password policy and uses several default accounts on the systems.

The application used on those systems also have not gone through stringent code reviews. Which vulnerability

would help an attacker brute force their way into the systems?

A.

weak passwords

B.

lack of input validation

C.

missing encryption

D.

lack of file permission

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Question # 210

A network administrator is configuring a role in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the "Chat and instant Messaging" category. which reputation score should be selected to accomplish

this goal?

A.

3

B.

5

C.

10

D.

1

Full Access
Question # 211

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco ISE administrator adds a new switch to an 802.1X deployment and has difficulty with some endpoints gaining access.

Most PCs and IP phones can connect and authenticate using their machine certificate credentials. However printer and video cameras cannot base d on the interface configuration provided, what must be to get these devices on to the network using Cisco ISE for authentication and authorization while maintaining security controls?

A.

Change the default policy in Cisco ISE to allow all devices not using machine authentication .

B.

Enable insecure protocols within Cisco ISE in the allowed protocols configuration.

C.

Configure authentication event fail retry 2 action authorize vlan 41 on the interface

D.

Add mab to the interface configuration.

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Question # 212

Which type of attack is social engineering?

A.

trojan

B.

phishing

C.

malware

D.

MITM

Full Access
Question # 213

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

Which command was used to display this output?

A.

show dot1x all

B.

show dot1x

C.

show dot1x all summary

D.

show dot1x interface gi1/0/12

Full Access
Question # 214

A Cisco ISE engineer configures Central Web Authentication (CWA) for wireless guest access and must have the guest endpoints redirect to the guest portal for authentication and authorization. While testing the policy, the engineer notices that the device is not redirected and instead gets full guest access. What must be done for the redirect to work?

A.

Tag the guest portal in the CWA part of the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

B.

Use the track movement option within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

C.

Create an advanced attribute setting of Cisco:cisco-gateway-id=guest within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

D.

Add the DACL name for the Airespace ACL configured on the WLC in the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

Full Access
Question # 215

An engineer recently completed the system setup on a Cisco WSA Which URL information does the system send to SensorBase Network servers?

A.

Summarized server-name information and MD5-hashed path information

B.

complete URL,without obfuscating the path segments

C.

URL information collected from clients that connect to the Cisco WSA using Cisco AnyConnect

D.

none because SensorBase Network Participation is disabled by default

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Question # 216

Which cloud service offering allows customers to access a web application that is being hosted, managed, and maintained by a cloud service provider?

A.

IaC

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Full Access
Question # 217

What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two.)

A.

Public managed

B.

Service Provider managed

C.

Enterprise managed

D.

User managed

E.

Hybrid managed

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