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  • Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701)
  • Last Update: Jul 8, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 688
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350-701 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Certification

Question # 6

DoS attacks are categorized as what?

A.

phishing attacks

B.

flood attacks

C.

virus attacks

D.

trojan attacks

Full Access
Question # 7

An organization wants to provide visibility and to identify active threats in its network using a VM. The

organization wants to extract metadata from network packet flow while ensuring that payloads are not retained

or transferred outside the network. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.

Cisco Umbrella Cloud

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PCM

D.

Cisco Umbrella On-Premises

Full Access
Question # 8

When a Cisco Secure Web Appliance checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

A.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

B.

It applies the advanced policy.

C.

It applies the global policy.

D.

It blocks the request.

Full Access
Question # 9

What is the term for when an endpoint is associated to a provisioning WLAN that is shared with guest

access, and the same guest portal is used as the BYOD portal?

A.

single-SSID BYOD

B.

multichannel GUI

C.

dual-SSID BYOD

D.

streamlined access

Full Access
Question # 10

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)

A.

AES is less secure than 3DES.

B.

AES is more secure than 3DES.

C.

AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.

D.

AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.

E.

AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.

Full Access
Question # 11

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

Full Access
Question # 12

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

A.

HMAC

B.

SHA-1

C.

MD5

D.

SISHA-2

Full Access
Question # 13

During a recent security audit a Cisco IOS router with a working IPSEC configuration using IKEv1 was flagged for using a wildcard mask with the crypto isakmp key command The VPN peer is a SOHO router with a dynamically assigned IP address Dynamic DNS has been configured on the SOHO router to map the dynamic IP address to the host name of vpn sohoroutercompany.com In addition to the command crypto isakmp key Cisc425007536 hostname vpn.sohoroutercompany.com what other two commands are now required on the Cisco IOS router for the VPN to continue to function after the wildcard command is removed? (Choose two)

A.

ip host vpn.sohoroutercompany.eom

B.

crypto isakmp identity hostname

C.

Add the dynamic keyword to the existing crypto map command

D.

fqdn vpn.sohoroutercompany.com

E.

ip name-server

Full Access
Question # 14

A Cisco ISE engineer configures Central Web Authentication (CWA) for wireless guest access and must have the guest endpoints redirect to the guest portal for authentication and authorization. While testing the policy, the engineer notices that the device is not redirected and instead gets full guest access. What must be done for the redirect to work?

A.

Tag the guest portal in the CWA part of the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

B.

Use the track movement option within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

C.

Create an advanced attribute setting of Cisco:cisco-gateway-id=guest within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

D.

Add the DACL name for the Airespace ACL configured on the WLC in the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

Full Access
Question # 15

Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? (Choose two)

A.

AES-BAC

B.

AES-ABC

C.

HMAC-SHA1/SHA2

D.

Triple AMC-CBC

E.

AES-CBC

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Question # 16

A network engineer is configuring NetFlow top talkers on a Cisco router Drag and drop the steps in the process from the left into the sequence on the right

350-701 question answer

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Question # 17

Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two)

A.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS

B.

Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured

C.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises

D.

Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured

E.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured

Full Access
Question # 18

Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for

endpoints? (Choose two)

A.

exploits

B.

ARP spoofing

C.

denial-of-service attacks

D.

malware

E.

eavesdropping

Full Access
Question # 19

An engineer is configuring their router to send NetfFow data to Stealthwatch which has an IP address of 1 1 11 using the flow record Stea!thwatch406397954 command Which additional command is required to complete the flow record?

A.

transport udp 2055

B.

match ipv4 ttl

C.

cache timeout active 60

D.

destination 1.1.1.1

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Question # 20

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 21

What is the function of the crypto is a kmp key cisc406397954 address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command when establishing an IPsec VPN tunnel?

A.

It defines what data is going to be encrypted via the VPN

B.

lt configures the pre-shared authentication key

C.

It prevents all IP addresses from connecting to the VPN server.

D.

It configures the local address for the VPN server.

Full Access
Question # 22

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process activity on an endpoint?

A.

Retrospective security

B.

Endpoint isolation

C.

Advanced investigation

D.

Advanced search

Full Access
Question # 23

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

A.

flow-export event-type

B.

policy-map

C.

access-list

D.

flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E.

access-group

Full Access
Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit,

350-701 question answer

which command results in these messages when attempting to troubleshoot an iPsec VPN connection?

A.

debug crypto isakmp

B.

debug crypto ipsec endpoint

C.

debug crypto Ipsec

D.

debug crypto isakmp connection

Full Access
Question # 25

An engineer is configuring web filtering for a network using Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway.

The requirement is that all traffic needs to be filtered. Using the SSL decryption feature, which type of

certificate should be presented to the end-user to accomplish this goal?

A.

third-party

B.

self-signed

C.

organization owned root

D.

SubCA

Full Access
Question # 26

A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on-premise. The

company needs to be able to protect sensitive data throughout the full environment. Which tool should be used

to accomplish this goal?

A.

Security Manager

B.

Cloudlock

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Cisco ISE

Full Access
Question # 27

350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a new Cisco ISE backend server as a RADIUS server to provide AAA for all access requests from the client to the ISE-Frontend server.

Which Cisco ISE configuration must be used?

A.

Set 10.11.1.2 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set port 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

B.

Set 10.11.1.1 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

C.

Set 10.11.1.2 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

D.

Set 10.11.1.1 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

Full Access
Question # 28

Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

A.

transparent mode

B.

routed mode

C.

inline mode

D.

active mode

E.

passive monitor-only mode

Full Access
Question # 29

Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a

private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

A.

DMVPN

B.

FlexVPN

C.

IPsec DVTI

D.

GET VPN

Full Access
Question # 30

What is the role of an endpoint in protecting a user from a phishing attack?

A.

Use Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco ISE Integration.

B.

Utilize 802.1X network security to ensure unauthorized access to resources.

C.

Use machine learning models to help identify anomalies and determine expected sending behavior.

D.

Ensure that antivirus and anti malware software is up to date

Full Access
Question # 31

Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?

A.

user input validation in a web page or web application

B.

Linux and Windows operating systems

C.

database

D.

web page images

Full Access
Question # 32

What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

A.

DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCPsnooping binding database.

B.

In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which areuntrusted

C.

DAI associates a trust state with each switch.

D.

DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.

Full Access
Question # 33

Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsletter to help cybersecurity professionals remain

aware of the ongoing and most prevalent threats?

A.

PSIRT

B.

Talos

C.

CSIRT

D.

DEVNET

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Question # 34

Which technology limits communication between nodes on the same network segment to individual applications?

A.

serverless infrastructure

B.

microsegmentation

C.

SaaS deployment

D.

machine-to-machine firewalling

Full Access
Question # 35

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

A.

privilege level for an authorized user to this router

B.

access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

C.

interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

D.

number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

Full Access
Question # 36

Which Cisco security solution integrates with cloud applications like Dropbox and Office 365 while protecting data from being exfiltrated?

A.

Cisco Tajos

B.

Cisco Steaithwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

Full Access
Question # 37

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two)

A.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

B.

The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

C.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

D.

The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

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Question # 38

Which Cisco platform provides an agentless solution to provide visibility across the network including encrypted traffic analytics to detect malware in encrypted traffic without the need for decryption?

A.

Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

D.

Cisco AnyConnect

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Question # 39

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to enable a separated email transfer flow from the Internet and from the LAN. Which deployment mode must be used to accomplish this goal?

A.

single interface

B.

multi-context

C.

transparent

D.

two-interface

Full Access
Question # 40

Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

A.

To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.

B.

A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.

C.

NSEL can be used without a collector configured.

D.

A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy

Full Access
Question # 41

A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the “Chat and Instant Messaging” category. Which reputation score should be selected to accomplish this goal?

A.

1

B.

3

C.

5

D.

10

Full Access
Question # 42

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 43

Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?

A.

per-interface stats

B.

SNMP trap notification

C.

Layer 2 device discovery

D.

central syslog system

Full Access
Question # 44

Why is it important to implement MFA inside of an organization?

A.

To prevent man-the-middle attacks from being successful.

B.

To prevent DoS attacks from being successful.

C.

To prevent brute force attacks from being successful.

D.

To prevent phishing attacks from being successful.

Full Access
Question # 45

What is a benefit of conducting device compliance checks?

A.

It indicates what type of operating system is connecting to the network.

B.

It validates if anti-virus software is installed.

C.

It scans endpoints to determine if malicious activity is taking place.

D.

It detects email phishing attacks.

Full Access
Question # 46

How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?

A.

It validates the sender by using DKIM.

B.

It determines which identities are perceived by the sender

C.

It utilizes sensors that send messages securely.

D.

It uses machine learning and real-time behavior analytics.

Full Access
Question # 47

An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

A.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor, .

B.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

C.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality

Full Access
Question # 48

An engineer needs to configure a Cisco Secure Email Gateway (SEG) to prompt users to enter multiple forms of identification before gaining access to the SEG. The SEG must also join a cluster using the preshared key of cisc421555367. What steps must be taken to support this?

A.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

B.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI.

C.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI

D.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

Full Access
Question # 49

Which feature enables a Cisco ISR to use the default bypass list automatically for web filtering?

A.

filters

B.

group key

C.

company key

D.

connector

Full Access
Question # 50

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)

A.

NTLMSSP

B.

Kerberos

C.

CHAP

D.

TACACS+

E.

RADIUS

Full Access
Question # 51

Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Talos?

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

analysis

D.

authoring

Full Access
Question # 52

What are two workload security models? (Choose two.)

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

off-premises

D.

on-premises

E.

IaaS

Full Access
Question # 53

When a Cisco WSA checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

A.

It blocks the request.

B.

It applies the global policy.

C.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

D.

It applies the advanced policy.

Full Access
Question # 54

An organization is using DNS services for their network and want to help improve the security of the DNS infrastructure. Which action accomplishes this task?

A.

Use DNSSEC between the endpoints and Cisco Umbrella DNS servers.

B.

Modify the Cisco Umbrella configuration to pass queries only to non-DNSSEC capable zones.

C.

Integrate Cisco Umbrella with Cisco CloudLock to ensure that DNSSEC is functional.

D.

Configure Cisco Umbrella and use DNSSEC for domain authentication to authoritative servers.

Full Access
Question # 55

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?

A.

hashing algorithm mismatch

B.

encryption algorithm mismatch

C.

authentication key mismatch

D.

interesting traffic was not applied

Full Access
Question # 56

Which technology provides the benefit of Layer 3 through Layer 7 innovative deep packet inspection,

enabling the platform to identify and output various applications within the network traffic flows?

A.

Cisco NBAR2

B.

Cisco ASAV

C.

Account on Resolution

D.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 57

What must be enabled to secure SaaS-based applications?

A.

modular policy framework

B.

two-factor authentication

C.

application security gateway

D.

end-to-end encryption

Full Access
Question # 58

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into Cisco DNA Center with the native API?

A.

GET and serialNumber

B.

userSudiSerlalNos and deviceInfo

C.

POST and name

D.

lastSyncTime and pid

Full Access
Question # 59

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What is the result of this Python script of the Cisco DNA Center API?

A.

adds authentication to a switch

B.

adds a switch to Cisco DNA Center

C.

receives information about a switch

D.

deletes a switch from Cisco DNA Center

Full Access
Question # 60

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

Full Access
Question # 61

What is a benefit of an endpoint patch management strategy?

A.

Patches are deployed without a testing phase.

B.

Fewer staff is needed to manage the endpoints.

C.

Endpoints are resistant to vulnerabilities.

D.

Ensures adherence to regulatory and compliance standards.

Full Access
Question # 62

Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data

within a network perimeter?

A.

cloud web services

B.

network AMP

C.

private cloud

D.

public cloud

Full Access
Question # 63

A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load on their headend Cisco ASA in order to

ensure that bandwidth is available for VPN users needing access to corporate resources on the10.0.0.0/24 local HQ network. How is this accomplished without adding additional devices to the

network?

A.

Use split tunneling to tunnel traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network only.

B.

Configure VPN load balancing to distribute traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network,

C.

Configure VPN load balancing to send non-corporate traffic straight to the internet.

D.

Use split tunneling to tunnel all traffic except for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.

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Question # 64

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

350-701 question answer

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Question # 65

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

Which command was used to display this output?

A.

show dot1x all

B.

show dot1x

C.

show dot1x all summary

D.

show dot1x interface gi1/0/12

Full Access
Question # 66

Which IPS engine detects ARP spoofing?

A.

Atomic ARP Engine

B.

Service Generic Engine

C.

ARP Inspection Engine

D.

AIC Engine

Full Access
Question # 67

A network engineer must monitor user and device behavior within the on-premises network. This data must be sent to the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud analytics platform for analysis. What must be done to meet this

requirement using the Ubuntu-based VM appliance deployed in a VMware-based hypervisor?

A.

Configure a Cisco FMC to send syslogs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Deploy the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM sensor that sends data to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

C.

Deploy a Cisco FTD sensor to send network events to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Configure a Cisco FMC to send NetFlow to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Full Access
Question # 68

How does the Cisco WSA enforce bandwidth restrictions for web applications?

A.

It implements a policy route to redirect application traffic to a lower-bandwidth link.

B.

It dynamically creates a scavenger class QoS policy and applies it to each client that connects through the WSA.

C.

It sends commands to the uplink router to apply traffic policing to the application traffic.

D.

It simulates a slower link by introducing latency into application traffic.

Full Access
Question # 69

Which two Cisco ISE components must be configured for BYOD? (Choose two.)

A.

local WebAuth

B.

central WebAuth

C.

null WebAuth

D.

guest

E.

dual

Full Access
Question # 70

Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 71

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

A.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

B.

Connect to ITSM platforms

C.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

D.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

E.

Third party reporting

Full Access
Question # 72

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

A.

HTTPS file upload site

B.

Microsoft Windows network shares

C.

SQL database injections

D.

encrypted SMTP

Full Access
Question # 73

An organization wants to reduce their attach surface for cloud applications. They want to understand application communications, detect abnormal application Behavior, and detect vulnerabilities within the applications. Which action accomplishes this task?

A.

Configure Cisco Secure Workload to detect anomalies and vulnerabilities.

B.

Use Cisco ISE to provide application visibility and restrict access to them.

C.

Implement Cisco Umbrella lo control the access each application is granted.

D.

Modify the Cisco Duo configuration to restrict access between applications.

Full Access
Question # 74

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

Full Access
Question # 75

An organization recently installed a Cisco Secure Web Appliance and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application-specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

A.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

B.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor.

C.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality.

Full Access
Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What does the API key do while working with https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?

A.

displays client ID

B.

HTTP authorization

C.

Imports requests

D.

HTTP authentication

Full Access
Question # 77

An engineer must configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints so that it contains a list of files that should not be executed by users. These files must not be quarantined. Which action meets this configuration requirement?

A.

Identity the network IPs and place them in a blocked list.

B.

Modify the advanced custom detection list to include these files.

C.

Create an application control blocked applications list.

D.

Add a list for simple custom detection.

Full Access
Question # 78

An organization has a requirement to collect full metadata information about the traffic going through their AWS cloud services They want to use this information for behavior analytics and statistics Which two actions must be taken to implement this requirement? (Choose two.)

A.

Configure Cisco ACI to ingest AWS information.

B.

Configure Cisco Thousand Eyes to ingest AWS information.

C.

Send syslog from AWS to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

D.

Send VPC Flow Logs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

E.

Configure Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud to ingest AWS information

Full Access
Question # 79

What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?

A.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes

B.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol

C.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms

D.

IOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and FlexVPN

Full Access
Question # 80

A web hosting company must upgrade its older, unsupported on-premises servers. The company wants a cloud solution in which the cloud provider is responsible for:

    Server patching

    Application maintenance

    Data center security

    Disaster recovery

Which type of cloud meets the requirements?

A.

Hybrid

B.

IaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

Full Access
Question # 81

Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

A.

Sensitive data must remain onsite.

B.

Demand is unpredictable.

C.

The server team wants to outsource this service.

D.

ESA is deployed inline.

Full Access
Question # 82

Which two aspects of the cloud PaaS model are managed by the customer but not the provider? (Choose two)

A.

virtualization

B.

middleware

C.

operating systems

D.

applications

E.

data

Full Access
Question # 83

What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?

A.

It tracks flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied events.

B.

It provides stateless IP flow tracking that exports all records of a specific flow.

C.

It tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.

D.

Its events match all traffic classes in parallel.

Full Access
Question # 84

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

Full Access
Question # 85

Which VMware platform does Cisco ACI integrate with to provide enhanced visibility, provide policy integration and deployment, and implement security policies with access lists?

A.

VMware APIC

B.

VMwarevRealize

C.

VMware fusion

D.

VMware horizons

Full Access
Question # 86

What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?

A.

It allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just notmaliciously.

B.

It discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company’s corporate environment.

C.

It deletes any application that does not belong in the network.

D.

It sends the application information to an administrator to act on.

Full Access
Question # 87

Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

A.

Google Cloud Platform

B.

Red Hat Enterprise Visualization

C.

VMware ESXi

D.

Amazon Web Services

Full Access
Question # 88

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

A.

Cisco Catalyst Center

B.

Cisco Security Intelligence

C.

Cisco Model Driven Telemetry

D.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

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Question # 89

What is the result of the ACME-Router(config)#login block-for 100 attempts 4 within 60 command on a Cisco IOS router?

A.

lf four log in attempts fail in 100 seconds, wait for 60 seconds to next log in prompt.

B.

After four unsuccessful log in attempts, the line is blocked for 100 seconds and only permit IP addresses are permitted in ACL

C.

After four unsuccessful log in attempts, the line is blocked for 60 seconds and only permit IP addresses are permitted in ACL1

D.

If four failures occur in 60 seconds, the router goes to quiet mode for 100 seconds.

Full Access
Question # 90

What are two functionalities of northbound and southbound APIs within Cisco SDN architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

Southbound APIs are used to define how SDN controllers integrate with applications.

B.

Southbound interfaces utilize device configurations such as VLANs and IP addresses.

C.

Northbound APIs utilize RESTful API methods such as GET, POST, and DELETE.

D.

Southbound APIs utilize CLI, SNMP, and RESTCONF.

E.

Northbound interfaces utilize OpenFlow and OpFlex to integrate with network devices.

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Question # 91

A networking team must harden an organization's network from VLAN hopping attacks. The team disables Dynamic Trunking Protocol and puts any unused ports in an unused VLAN. A trunk port is used as a trunk link. What must the team configure next to harden the network against VLAN hopping attacks?

A.

disable STP on the network devices

B.

dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports

C.

DHCP snooping on all the switches

D.

enable port-based network access control

Full Access
Question # 92

Which two authentication protocols are supported by the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

WCCP

B.

NTLM

C.

TLS

D.

SSL

E.

LDAP

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Question # 93

An administrator configures new authorization policies within Cisco ISE and has difficulty profiling the devices. Attributes for the new Cisco IP phones that are profiled based on the RADIUS authentication are seen however the attributes for CDP or DHCP are not. What should the administrator do to address this issue?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the DHCP interfaces to get the information to Cisco ISE

B.

Configure the authentication port-control auto feature within Cisco ISE to identify the devices that are trying to connect

C.

Configure a service template within the switch to standardize the port configurations so that the correct information is sent to Cisco ISE

D.

Configure the device sensor feature within the switch to send the appropriate protocol information

Full Access
Question # 94

An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is configuring the

organization’s public cloud to send telemetry using the cloud provider’s mechanisms to a security device. Which

mechanism should the engineer configure to accomplish this goal?

A.

mirror port

B.

Flow

C.

NetFlow

D.

VPC flow logs

Full Access
Question # 95

Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

A.

Public Cloud

B.

Hybrid Cloud

C.

Community Cloud

D.

Private Cloud

Full Access
Question # 96

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

A.

structured threat information expression

B.

advanced persistent threat

C.

trusted automated exchange or indicator information

D.

open command and control

Full Access
Question # 97

Which statement describes a serverless application?

A.

The application delivery controller in front of the server farm designates on which server the application runs each time.

B.

The application runs from an ephemeral, event-triggered, and stateless container that is fully managed by a cloud provider.

C.

The application is installed on network equipment and not on physical servers.

D.

The application runs from a containerized environment that is managed by Kubernetes or Docker Swarm.

Full Access
Question # 98

Which Cisco platform processes behavior baselines, monitors for deviations, and reviews for malicious processes in data center traffic and servers while performing software vulnerability detection?

A.

Cisco Tetration

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco AMP for Network

D.

Cisco AnyConnect

Full Access
Question # 99

An engineer has been tasked with implementing a solution that can be leveraged for securing the cloud users,

data, and applications. There is a requirement to use the Cisco cloud native CASB and cloud cybersecurity

platform. What should be used to meet these requirements?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco NGFW

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Full Access
Question # 100

An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment. Its security model requires that all users be

authenticated and authorized. Security configuration and posture must be continuously validated before access is granted or maintained to applications and data. There is also a need to allow certain application traffic and deny all other traffic by default. Which technology must be used to implement these requirements?

A.

Virtual routing and forwarding

B.

Microsegmentation

C.

Access control policy

D.

Virtual LAN

Full Access
Question # 101

What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two)

A.

blocked ports

B.

simple custom detections

C.

command and control

D.

allowed applications

E.

URL

Full Access
Question # 102

Which license is required for Cisco Security Intelligence to work on the Cisco Next Generation Intrusion

Prevention System?

A.

control

B.

malware

C.

URL filtering

D.

protect

Full Access
Question # 103

Which attribute has the ability to change during the RADIUS CoA?

A.

NTP

B.

Authorization

C.

Accessibility

D.

Membership

Full Access
Question # 104

Why should organizations migrate to an MFA strategy for authentication?

A.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than MFA.

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for MFA due to its ability to be hacked easily.

C.

MFA methods of authentication are never compromised.

D.

MFA does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism.

Full Access
Question # 105

Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 106

What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

A.

Can track ingress and egress information

B.

Include the flow record and the flow importer

C.

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface

D.

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces

E.

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic

Full Access
Question # 107

In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

A.

hypervisor

B.

virtual machine

C.

network

D.

application

Full Access
Question # 108

Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat?

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

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Question # 109

An engineer must enable Outbreak Filters globally on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway to protect the network from large-scale malware attacks. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 110

Which configuration method provides the options to prevent physical and virtual endpoint devices that are in the same base EPG or uSeg from being able to communicate with each other with Vmware VDS or Microsoft vSwitch?

A.

inter-EPG isolation

B.

inter-VLAN security

C.

intra-EPG isolation

D.

placement in separate EPGs

Full Access
Question # 111

What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate applications and

resources?

A.

to use multifactor authentication

B.

to use strong passwords

C.

to use a wired network, not wireless

D.

to disconnect from the network when inactive

Full Access
Question # 112

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What are two indications of the Cisco Firepower Services Module configuration?

(Choose two.)

A.

The module is operating in IDS mode.

B.

Traffic is blocked if the module fails.

C.

The module fails to receive redirected traffic.

D.

The module is operating in IPS mode.

E.

Traffic continues to flow if the module fails.

Full Access
Question # 113

What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)

A.

data exfiltration

B.

command and control communication

C.

intelligent proxy

D.

snort

E.

URL categorization

Full Access
Question # 114

Which endpoint protection and detection feature performs correlation of telemetry, files, and intrusion

events that are flagged as possible active breaches?

A.

retrospective detection

B.

indication of compromise

C.

file trajectory

D.

elastic search

Full Access
Question # 115

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must ensure it reaches the Cisco update servers to retrieve new rules. The engineer must now manually configure the Outbreak Filter rules on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Only outdated rules must be replaced. Up-to-date rules must be retained. Which action must the engineer take next to complete the configuration?

A.

Select Outbreak Filters

B.

Perform a backup/restore of the database

C.

Use the outbreakconfig command in CLI

D.

Click Update Rules Now

Full Access
Question # 116

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites

but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

D.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy

Full Access
Question # 117

Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and Control?

A.

SNMP

B.

802.1X

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNORT

Full Access
Question # 118

What is a characteristic of Firepower NGIPS inline deployment mode?

A.

ASA with Firepower module cannot be deployed.

B.

It cannot take actions such as blocking traffic.

C.

It is out-of-band from traffic.

D.

It must have inline interface pairs configured.

Full Access
Question # 119

How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?

A.

by flooding the destination host with unreachable packets

B.

by sending large numbers of ICMP packets with a targeted hosts source IP address using an IP broadcast address

C.

by encrypting the payload in an ICMP packet to carry out command and control tasks on a compromised host

D.

by overwhelming a targeted host with ICMP echo-request packets

Full Access
Question # 120

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

A.

You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B.

It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C.

It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D.

It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

Full Access
Question # 121

Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.

B.

Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.

C.

Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.

D.

Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.

E.

Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

Full Access
Question # 122

What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate applications and resources?

A.

To use a wired network, not wireless

B.

To use strong passwords

C.

To use multifactor authentication

D.

To disconnect from the network when inactive

Full Access
Question # 123

Which action must be taken in the AMP for Endpoints console to detect specific MD5 signatures on endpoints and then quarantine the files?

A.

Configure an advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure an IP Block & Allow custom detection list

C.

Configure an application custom detection list

D.

Configure a simple custom detection list

Full Access
Question # 124

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch offices, and cloud?

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Secure Network Analytics

Full Access
Question # 125

What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?

A.

data loss prevention

B.

controls malicious cloud apps

C.

detects anomalies

D.

user and entity behavior analytics

Full Access
Question # 126

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

Full Access
Question # 127

Which open source tool does Cisco use to create graphical visualizations of network telemetry on Cisco IOS XE devices?

A.

InfluxDB

B.

Splunk

C.

SNMP

D.

Grafana

Full Access
Question # 128

What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

A.

Enable IP Layer enforcement.

B.

Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license

C.

Activate SSL decryption.

D.

Enable Intelligent Proxy.

Full Access
Question # 129

A Cisco FTD engineer is creating a new IKEv2 policy called s2s00123456789 for their organization to allow for additional protocols to terminate network devices with. They currently only have one policy established and need the new policy to be a backup in case some devices cannot support the stronger algorithms listed in the primary policy. What should be done in order to support this?

A.

Change the integrity algorithms to SHA* to support all SHA algorithms in the primary policy

B.

Make the priority for the new policy 5 and the primary policy 1

C.

Change the encryption to AES* to support all AES algorithms in the primary policy

D.

Make the priority for the primary policy 10 and the new policy 1

Full Access
Question # 130

Which two components do southbound APIs use to communicate with downstream devices? (Choose two.)

A.

services running over the network

B.

OpenFlow

C.

external application APIs

D.

applications running over the network

E.

OpFlex

Full Access
Question # 131

What is a prerequisite when integrating a Cisco ISE server and an AD domain?

A.

Place the Cisco ISE server and the AD server in the same subnet

B.

Configure a common administrator account

C.

Configure a common DNS server

D.

Synchronize the clocks of the Cisco ISE server and the AD server

Full Access
Question # 132

Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management

Center?

A.

quality of service

B.

time synchronization

C.

network address translations

D.

intrusion policy

Full Access
Question # 133

What is the default action before identifying the URL during HTTPS inspection in Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense software?

A.

reset

B.

buffer

C.

pass

D.

drop

Full Access
Question # 134

An engineer is configuring device-hardening on a router in order to prevent credentials from being seen

if the router configuration was compromised. Which command should be used?

A.

service password-encryption

B.

username privilege 15 password

C.

service password-recovery

D.

username < username> password

Full Access
Question # 135

Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

350-701 question answer

Full Access
Question # 136

Which two capabilities does an MDM provide? (Choose two.)

A.

delivery of network malware reports to an inbox in a schedule

B.

unified management of mobile devices, Macs, and PCs from a centralized dashboard

C.

enforcement of device security policies from a centralized dashboard

D.

manual identification and classification of client devices

E.

unified management of Android and Apple devices from a centralized dashboard

Full Access
Question # 137

With which components does a southbound API within a software-defined network architecture communicate?

A.

controllers within the network

B.

applications

C.

appliances

D.

devices such as routers and switches

Full Access
Question # 138

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure a Cisco router to send traps using SNMPv3. The engineer configures a remote user to receive traps and sets the security level to use authentication without privacy. Which command completes the configuration?

A.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthno remoteuser config

B.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthnoPriv remoteuser config

C.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1

D.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1 priv access des56

Full Access
Question # 139

What is a difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?

A.

DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, FlexVPN only uses IKEv1

B.

DMVPN uses only IKEv1 FlexVPN uses only IKEv2

C.

FlexVPN uses IKEv2, DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2

D.

FlexVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, DMVPN uses only IKEv2

Full Access
Question # 140

An engineer must modify an existing remote access VPN using a Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility client solution and a Cisco Secure Firewall. Currently, all the traffic generate by the user Is sent to the VPN tunnel and the engineer must now exclude some servers and access them directly instead. Which element must be modified to achieve this goat?

A.

NAT exemption

B.

encryption domain

C.

routing table

D.

group policy

Full Access
Question # 141

Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?

A.

Monthly

B.

Yearly

C.

Contractor

D.

Full-Time

Full Access
Question # 142

Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to

network resources?

A.

BYOD on boarding

B.

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

C.

Client provisioning

D.

MAC authentication bypass

Full Access
Question # 143

What are two recommended approaches to stop DNS tunneling for data exfiltration and command and control call backs? (Choose two.)

A.

Use intrusion prevention system.

B.

Block all TXT DNS records.

C.

Enforce security over port 53.

D.

Use next generation firewalls.

E.

Use Cisco Umbrella.

Full Access
Question # 144

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

Full Access
Question # 145

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

What is a result of the configuration?

A.

Traffic from the DMZ network is redirected

B.

Traffic from the inside network is redirected

C.

All TCP traffic is redirected

D.

Traffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected

Full Access
Question # 146

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two ASAs for high availability. What is the connection status in both cases?

A.

need to be reestablished with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover

B.

preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover

C.

preserved with both stateful and stateless failover

D.

need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover

Full Access
Question # 147

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

A.

webadvancedconfig

B.

websecurity advancedconfig

C.

outbreakconfig

D.

websecurity config

Full Access
Question # 148

Which Cisco security solution secures public, private, hybrid, and community clouds?

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco ASAv

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco pxGrid

Full Access
Question # 149

What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)

A.

They allow the user to configure flow information to perform customized traffic identification

B.

They provide attack prevention by dropping the traffic

C.

They provide accounting and billing enhancements

D.

They converge multiple accounting technologies into one accounting mechanism

E.

They provide monitoring of a wider range of IP packet information from Layer 2 to 4

Full Access
Question # 150

What is a feature of container orchestration?

A.

ability to deploy Amazon ECS clusters by using the Cisco Container Platform data plane

B.

ability to deploy Amazon EKS clusters by using the Cisco Container Platform data plane

C.

ability to deploy Kubernetes clusters in air-gapped sites

D.

automated daily updates

Full Access
Question # 151

What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?

A.

Traffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level withinthe interval.

B.

Traffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.

C.

Traffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval.

D.

Traffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the packet isunicast or broadcast.

Full Access
Question # 152

Client workstations are experiencing extremely poor response time. An engineer suspects that an attacker is eavesdropping and making independent connections while relaying messages between victims to make them think they are talking to each other over a private connection. Which feature must be enabled and configured to provide relief from this type of attack?

A.

Link Aggregation

B.

Reverse ARP

C.

private VLANs

D.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

Full Access
Question # 153

An organization wants to implement a cloud-delivered and SaaS-based solution to provide visibility and threat detection across the AWS network. The solution must be deployed without software agents and rely on AWS VPC flow logs instead. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

NetFlow collectors

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Full Access
Question # 154

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

A.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.

B.

It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.

C.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.

D.

It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.

Full Access
Question # 155

An engineer is trying to decide between using L2TP or GRE over IPsec for their site-to-site VPN implementation. What must be un solution?

A.

L2TP is an IP packet encapsulation protocol, and GRE over IPsec is a tunneling protocol.

B.

L2TP uses TCP port 47 and GRE over IPsec uses UDP port 1701.

C.

GRE over IPsec adds its own header, and L2TP does not.

D.

GRE over IPsec cannot be used as a standalone protocol, and L2TP can.

Full Access
Question # 156

An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing. Which outbreak

control method is used to accomplish this task?

A.

device flow correlation

B.

simple detections

C.

application blocking list

D.

advanced custom detections

Full Access
Question # 157

How is a cross-site scripting attack executed?

A.

Force a currently authenticated end user to execute unwanted actions on a web app

B.

Execute malicious client-side scripts injected to a client via a web app

C.

Inject a database query via the input data from the client to a web app

D.

Intercept communications between a client and a web server

Full Access
Question # 158

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to deploy it in transparent mode. Which configuration component must be used to accomplish this goal?

A.

MDA on the router

B.

PBR on Cisco WSA

C.

WCCP on switch

D.

DNS resolution on Cisco WSA

Full Access
Question # 159

Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat intelligence in a machine-digestible format?

A.

OpenC2

B.

OpenlOC

C.

CybOX

D.

STIX

Full Access
Question # 160

Which two functions does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution perform in trying to protect from phishing attacks? (Choose two.)

A.

blocks malicious websites and adds them to a block list

B.

does a real-time user web browsing behavior analysis

C.

provides a defense for on-premises email deployments

D.

uses a static algorithm to determine malicious

E.

determines if the email messages are malicious

Full Access
Question # 161

What is a benefit of using GET VPN over FlexVPN within a VPN deployment?

A.

GET VPN supports Remote Access VPNs

B.

GET VPN natively supports MPLS and private IP networks

C.

GET VPN uses multiple security associations for connections

D.

GET VPN interoperates with non-Cisco devices

Full Access
Question # 162

Which solution detects threats across a private network, public clouds, and encrypted traffic?

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco CTA

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Full Access
Question # 163

When network telemetry is implemented, what is important to be enabled across all network infrastructure devices to correlate different sources?

A.

CDP

B.

NTP

C.

syslog

D.

DNS

Full Access
Question # 164

When configuring ISAKMP for IKEv1 Phase1 on a Cisco IOS router, an administrator needs to input the

command crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0. The administrator is not sure what the IP addressing in this command issued for. What would be the effect of changing the IP address from 0.0.0.0 to 1.2.3.4?

A.

The key server that is managing the keys for the connection will be at 1.2.3.4

B.

The remote connection will only be allowed from 1.2.3.4

C.

The address that will be used as the crypto validation authority

D.

All IP addresses other than 1.2.3.4 will be allowed

Full Access
Question # 165

Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the

deployment?

A.

NGFW

B.

AMP

C.

WSA

D.

ESA

Full Access
Question # 166

An engineer is configuring Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance security by preventing the execution of certain files by users. The engineer needs to ensure that the specific executable file name Cisco_Software_0505446151.exe is blocked from running while never being quarantined. What must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

A.

Create advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure application control blocked applications list.

C.

Implement simple custom detection list.

D.

Enable scheduled scans to detect and block the executable files.

Full Access
Question # 167

An engineer is deploying Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints and wants to create a policy that prevents users from executing file named abc424952615.exe without quarantining that file What type of Outbreak Control list must the SHA.-256 hash value for the file be added to in order to accomplish this?

A.

Advanced Custom Detection

B.

Blocked Application

C.

Isolation

D.

Simple Custom Detection

Full Access
Question # 168

An engineer configures new features within the Cisco Umbrella dashboard and wants to identify and proxy traffic that is categorized as risky domains and may contain safe and malicious content. Which action accomplishes these objectives?

A.

Configure URL filtering within Cisco Umbrella to track the URLs and proxy the requests for those categories and below.

B.

Configure intelligent proxy within Cisco Umbrella to intercept and proxy the requests for only those categories.

C.

Upload the threat intelligence database to Cisco Umbrella for the most current information on reputations and to have the destination lists block them.

D.

Create a new site within Cisco Umbrella to block requests from those categories so they can be sent to the proxy device.

Full Access
Question # 169

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 question answer

An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their network and wants to manage it with Cisco FMC.

The Cisco FTD is not behind a NAT device. Which command is needed to enable this on the Cisco FTD?

A.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE kregistration key>

B.

configure manager add 16

C.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE FTD123

D.

configure manager add

Full Access
Question # 170

An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and would like to customize the action assigned for

violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a message added to flag it as a

DLP violation. Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?

A.

deliver and send copies to other recipients

B.

quarantine and send a DLP violation notification

C.

quarantine and alter the subject header with a DLP violation

D.

deliver and add disclaimer text

Full Access
Question # 171

What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetry?

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TFTP

D.

NctFlow

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Question # 172

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

A.

to register new laptops and mobile devices

B.

to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C.

to provision userless and agentless systems

D.

to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end user

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Question # 173

What is the purpose of the Cisco Endpoint loC feature?

A.

It provides stealth threat prevention.

B.

lt is a signature-based engine.

C.

lt is an incident response tool

D.

It provides precompromise detection.

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Question # 174

Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN communications?

A.

3DES

B.

AES 256

C.

AES 128

D.

DES

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Question # 175

An engineer is configuring guest WLAN access using Cisco ISE and the Cisco WLC. Which action temporarily gives guest endpoints access dynamically while maintaining visibility into who or what is connecting?

A.

Modify the WLC configuration to require local WLC logins for the authentication prompts.

B.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a self-registered portal.

C.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a hotspot portal.

D.

Modify the WLC configuration to allow any endpoint to access an internet-only VLAN.

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Question # 176

What is a function of the Layer 4 Traffic Monitor on a Cisco WSA?

A.

blocks traffic from URL categories that are known to contain malicious content

B.

decrypts SSL traffic to monitor for malicious content

C.

monitors suspicious traffic across all the TCP/UDP ports

D.

prevents data exfiltration by searching all the network traffic for specified sensitive information

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Question # 177

What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?

A.

access point

B.

WSA

C.

ASA

D.

ESA

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Question # 178

A large organization wants to deploy a security appliance in the public cloud to form a site-to-site VPN

and link the public cloud environment to the private cloud in the headquarters data center. Which Cisco

security appliance meets these requirements?

A.

Cisco Cloud Orchestrator

B.

Cisco ASAV

C.

Cisco WSAV

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

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Question # 179

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

A.

asset inventory management

B.

allowed application management

C.

Active Directory group policy management

D.

network device management

E.

critical device management

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Question # 180

What is a feature of Cisco NetFlow Secure Event Logging for Cisco ASAs?

A.

Multiple NetFlow collectors are supported

B.

Advanced NetFlow v9 templates and legacy v5 formatting are supported

C.

Secure NetFlow connections are optimized for Cisco Prime Infrastructure

D.

Flow-create events are delayed

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Question # 181

An engineer must modify a policy to block specific addresses using Cisco Umbrella. The policy is created already and is actively u: of the default policy elements. What else must be done to accomplish this task?

A.

Add the specified addresses to the identities list and create a block action.

B.

Create a destination list for addresses to be allowed or blocked.

C.

Use content categories to block or allow specific addresses.

D.

Modify the application settings to allow only applications to connect to required addresses.

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Question # 182

An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the

endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE. Which CoA type achieves this goal?

A.

Port Bounce

B.

CoA Terminate

C.

CoA Reauth

D.

CoA Session Query

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Question # 183

Which Secure Email Gateway implementation method segregates inbound and outbound email?

A.

Pair of logical listeners on a single physical interface with two unique logical IPv4 addresses and one IPv6 address

B.

One listener on one logical IPv4 address on a single logical interface

C.

Pair of logical IPv4 listeners and a pair of IPv6 listeners on two physically separate interfaces

D.

One listener on a single physical interface

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Question # 184

Which two products are used to forecast capacity needs accurately in real time? (Choose two.)

A.

Cisco Secure Workload

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Workload Optimization Manager

D.

Cisco AppDynamics

E.

Cisco Cloudlock

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Question # 185

Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

A.

EIDDOS

B.

virus

C.

DDOS

D.

TCP flood

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Question # 186

Which standard is used to automate exchanging cyber threat information?

A.

TAXII

B.

MITRE

C.

IoC

D.

STIX

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Question # 187

Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

A.

SSL VPN

B.

GET VPN

C.

FlexVPN

D.

DMVPN

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Question # 188

A network administrator is configuring a switch to use Cisco ISE for 802.1X. An endpoint is failing

authentication and is unable to access the network. Where should the administrator begin troubleshooting to verify the authentication details?

A.

Adaptive Network Control Policy List

B.

Context Visibility

C.

Accounting Reports

D.

RADIUS Live Logs

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Question # 189

Which attack gives unauthorized access to files on the web server?

A.

Distributed DoS

B.

Broadcast storm

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

Path traversal

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Question # 190

Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

A.

AES-GCM

B.

SHA-96

C.

AES-256

D.

SHA-384

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Question # 191

v350-701 question answer

Refer to the exhibit When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZjnside zone once the configuration is deployed?

A.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not

C.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection

D.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted

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Question # 192

What provides the ability to program and monitor networks from somewhere other than the DNAC GUI?

A.

NetFlow

B.

desktop client

C.

ASDM

D.

API

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Question # 193

What are two characteristics of Cisco Catalyst Center APIs? (Choose two.)

A.

Postman is required to utilize Cisco Catalyst Center API calls.

B.

They are Cisco proprietary.

C.

They do not support Python scripts.

D.

They view the overall health of the network.

E.

They quickly provision new devices.

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Question # 194

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco Secure Email Gateway?

A.

outbreakconfig

B.

websecurityconfig

C.

webadvancedconfig

D.

websecurityadvancedconfig

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Question # 195

When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two)

A.

authentication server: Cisco Identity Service Engine

B.

supplicant: Cisco AnyConnect ISE Posture module

C.

authenticator: Cisco Catalyst switch

D.

authenticator: Cisco Identity Services Engine

E.

authentication server: Cisco Prime Infrastructure

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Question # 196

What is the purpose of joining Cisco WSAs to an appliance group?

A.

All WSAs in the group can view file analysis results.

B.

The group supports improved redundancy

C.

It supports cluster operations to expedite the malware analysis process.

D.

It simplifies the task of patching multiple appliances.

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Question # 197

Which Cisco ASA Platform mode disables the threat detection features except for Advanced Threat Statistics?

A.

cluster

B.

transparent

C.

routed

D.

multiple context

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Question # 198

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco Tetration

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Question # 199

Which key feature of Cisco ZFW is unique among other Cisco IOS firewall solutions?

A.

Security levels

B.

Stateless inspection

C.

Security zones

D.

SSL inspection

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Question # 200

An administrator is configuring a DHCP server to better secure their environment. They need to be able to ratelimit the traffic and ensure that legitimate requests are not dropped. How would this be accomplished?

A.

Set a trusted interface for the DHCP server

B.

Set the DHCP snooping bit to 1

C.

Add entries in the DHCP snooping database

D.

Enable ARP inspection for the required VLAN

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Question # 201

Which industry standard is used to integrate Cisco ISE and pxGrid to each other and with other

interoperable security platforms?

A.

IEEE

B.

IETF

C.

NIST

D.

ANSI

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Question # 202

How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise owned storage?

A.

by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs

B.

by sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server

C.

by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal

D.

by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket

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Question # 203

Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA uses it to decrypt application traffic? (Choose two.)

A.

It must include the current date.

B.

It must reside in the trusted store of the WSA.

C.

It must reside in the trusted store of the endpoint.

D.

It must have been signed by an internal CA.

E.

it must contain a SAN.

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Question # 204

Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Cisco TrustSec devices to force a session to be adjusted after a policy change is made? (Choose two)

A.

posture assessment

B.

aaa authorization exec default local

C.

tacacs-server host 10.1.1.250 key password

D.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

E.

CoA

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Question # 205

On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed

devices?

A.

health policy

B.

system policy

C.

correlation policy

D.

access control policy

E.

health awareness policy

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Question # 206

Drag and drop the posture assessment flow actions from the left into a sequence on the right.

350-701 question answer

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