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  • Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0)
  • Last Update: Oct 30, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 326
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CCSK Practice Exam Questions with Answers Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Certification

Question # 6

What of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of cloud computing?

A.

Broad Network Access

B.

Measured Service

C.

Third Party Service

D.

Rapid Elasticity

E.

Resource Pooling

Full Access
Question # 7

When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

A.

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

B.

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

C.

Full-read access without any approval process

D.

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

Full Access
Question # 8

What is true of a workload?

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

Full Access
Question # 9

What is a primary benefit of consolidating traffic through a central bastion/transit network in a hybrid cloud environment?

A.

It minimizes hybrid cloud sprawl and consolidates security.

B.

It reduces the need for physical network hardware.

C.

It increases network redundancy and fault tolerance.

D.

It decreases the latency of data transfers across the cloud network.

Full Access
Question # 10

For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?

A.

Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment

B.

Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts

C.

Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use

D.

Service-level agreements between all parties

E.

Full API access to all required services

Full Access
Question # 11

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

Full Access
Question # 12

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

Full Access
Question # 13

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

A.

False

B.

True

Full Access
Question # 14

Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Nation-state boundaries

C.

Measured service

D.

Unlimited bandwidth

E.

Hybrid clouds

Full Access
Question # 15

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

Full Access
Question # 16

How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

A.

Single key for all data owners

B.

One key per data owner

C.

Multiple keys per data owner

D.

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

E.

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

Full Access
Question # 17

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

Full Access
Question # 18

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Question # 19

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

A.

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

Full Access
Question # 20

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

A.

It reduces hardware costs

B.

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

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Question # 21

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

Full Access
Question # 22

Why is it important to plan and coordinate response activities for incidents affecting the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

It eliminates the need for monitoring systems

B.

It ensures a systematic approach, minimizing damage and recovery time

C.

It guarantees that no incidents will occur in the future

D.

It reduces the frequency of security audits required

Full Access
Question # 23

In the context of IaaS, what are the primary components included in infrastructure?

A.

Network configuration tools, storage encryption, and virtualization platforms

B.

Compute, network, and storage resource pools

C.

User authentication systems, application deployment services, and database management

D.

Load balancers, firewalls, and backup solutions

Full Access
Question # 24

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 25

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

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Question # 26

Why is it important to capture and centralize workload logs promptly in a cybersecurity environment?

A.

To simplify application debugging processesB Primarily to reduce data storage costs

B.

Logs may be lost during a scaling event

C.

To comply with data privacy regulations

Full Access
Question # 27

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

Full Access
Question # 28

Which approach is commonly used by organizations to manage identities in the cloud due to the complexity of scaling across providers?

A.

Decentralization

B.

Centralization

C.

Federation

D.

Outsourcing

Full Access
Question # 29

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

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Question # 30

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

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Question # 31

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of image factories in the context of virtual machine (VM) management?

A.

Automating the VM image creation processes

B.

Managing network configurations for VMs

C.

Providing backup solutions for VM images

D.

Enhancing security of VM images

Full Access
Question # 32

In the context of incident response, which phase involves alerts validation to reduce false positives and estimates the incident's scope?

A.

Preparation

B.

Post-Incident Analysis

C.

Detection & Analysis

D.

Containment, Eradication, & Recovery

Full Access
Question # 33

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

Full Access
Question # 34

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

Full Access
Question # 35

What are the encryption options available for SaaS consumers?

A.

Any encryption option that is available for volume storage, object storage, or PaaS

B.

Provider-managed and (sometimes) proxy encryption

C.

Client/application and file/folder encryption

D.

Object encryption Volume storage encryption

Full Access
Question # 36

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

Full Access
Question # 37

What is a core tenant of risk management?

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are inplace, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss ofcustomers.

Full Access
Question # 38

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

Full Access
Question # 39

How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?

A.

Use strong multi-factor authentication

B.

Secure backup processes for key management systems

C.

Segregate keys from the provider hosting data

D.

Stipulate encryption in contract language

E.

Select cloud providers within the same country as customer

Full Access
Question # 40

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

Full Access
Question # 41

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.

A.

False

B.

True

Full Access
Question # 42

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

Full Access
Question # 43

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

Full Access
Question # 44

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

Full Access
Question # 45

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

Full Access
Question # 46

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

A.

False

B.

True

Full Access
Question # 47

Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

A.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Full Access
Question # 48

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

A.

Infrastructures as a Service

B.

A Private Cloud

C.

A Community Cloud

D.

A Hybrid Cloud

E.

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

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Question # 49

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Full Access
Question # 50

What key activities are part of the preparation phase in incident response planning?

A.

Implementing encryption and access controls

B.

Establishing a response process, training, communication plans, and infrastructure evaluations

C.

Creating incident reports and post-incident reviews

D.

Developing malware analysis procedures and penetration testing

Full Access
Question # 51

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

Full Access
Question # 52

What is the purpose of the "Principle of Least Privilege" in Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

A.

To minimize the risk of unauthorized access by assigning access rights based on role requirements

B.

To streamline access across diverse systems or organizations

C.

To continuously monitor user activity for suspicious behavior

D.

To implement multiple layers of security checks for access control

Full Access
Question # 53

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.

Containers

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

Full Access
Question # 54

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

Full Access
Question # 55

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

Full Access
Question # 56

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

Full Access
Question # 57

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Full Access
Question # 58

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

Full Access
Question # 59

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

Full Access
Question # 60

Which of the following best describes the shared responsibility model in cloud security?

A.

Cloud providers handle physical infrastructure security while customers handle workload security.

B.

Cloud providers handle both infrastructure and workload security.

C.

Neither cloud providers nor customers are responsible for security.

D.

Customers handle both infrastructure and workload security.

Full Access
Question # 61

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

A.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

Full Access
Question # 62

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Full Access
Question # 63

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

Full Access
Question # 64

Which of the following represents a benefit of using serverless computing for new workload types?

A.

Requires short-term commitments and defers upfront costs

B.

Automatic scaling and reduced operational overhead

C.

Large initial configuration is not required

D.

Full control over underlying server environments

Full Access
Question # 65

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

Full Access
Question # 66

Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

A.

False

B.

True

Full Access
Question # 67

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Full Access
Question # 68

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

Full Access
Question # 69

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

Full Access
Question # 70

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

Full Access
Question # 71

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

Full Access
Question # 72

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

Full Access
Question # 73

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

Full Access
Question # 74

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

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Question # 75

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

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Question # 76

What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit

blast radius with laaS an PaaS?

A.

Configuring secondary authentication

B.

Establishing multiple accounts

C.

Maintaining tight control of the primary account holder credentials

D.

Implementing least privilege accounts

E.

Configuring role-based authentication

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Question # 77

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Full Access
Question # 78

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

Full Access
Question # 79

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

Full Access
Question # 80

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

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Question # 81

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

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Question # 82

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

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Question # 83

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 84

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

Full Access
Question # 85

ENISA: “VM hopping” is:

A.

Improper management of VM instances, causing customer VMs to be commingled with other customer systems.

B.

Looping within virtualized routing systems.

C.

Lack of vulnerability management standards.

D.

Using a compromised VM to exploit a hypervisor, used to take control of other VMs.

E.

Instability in VM patch management causing VM routing errors.

Full Access
Question # 86

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Full Access
Question # 87

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenanttechnologies?

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

Full Access
Question # 88

Which technique involves assessing potential threats through analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets?

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 89

What is a primary benefit of implementing micro-segmentation within a Zero Trust Architecture?

A.

Simplifies network design and maintenance

B.

Enhances security by isolating workloads from each other

C.

Increases the overall performance of network traffic

D.

Reduces the need for encryption across the network

Full Access
Question # 90

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

Full Access
Question # 91

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

Full Access
Question # 92

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

Full Access
Question # 93

What item below allows disparate directory services and independent security domains to be interconnected?

A.

Coalition

B.

Cloud

C.

Intersection

D.

Union

E.

Federation

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Question # 94

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 95

An organization deploys an AI application for fraud detection. Which threat is MOST likely to affect its AI model’s accuracy?

A.

Adversarial attacks

B.

DDoS attacks

C.

Third-party services

D.

Jailbreak attack

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Question # 96

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

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Question # 97

According to NIST, what is cloud computing defined as?

A.

A shared set of resources delivered over the Internet

B.

A model for more-efficient use of network-based resources

C.

A model for on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources

D.

Services that are delivered over the Internet to customers

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