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Practice Free CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free CCSK Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

Which of the following cloud essential characteristics refers to the capability of the service to scale resources up or down quickly and efficiently based on demand?

A.

On-Demand Self-Service

B.

Broad Network Access

C.

Resource Pooling

D.

Rapid Elasticity

Question # 7

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

A.

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

Question # 8

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

A.

False

B.

True

Question # 9

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

Question # 10

When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

A.

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

B.

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

C.

Full-read access without any approval process

D.

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

Question # 11

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

Question # 12

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Question # 13

In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

A.

Management plane activity logs

B.

Network perimeter monitoring

C.

Endpoint protection status

D.

Physical hardware access

Question # 14

Why is it important to control traffic flows between networks in a cybersecurity context?

A.

To increase the speed of data transmission

B.

To reduce the blast radius of attacks

C.

To simplify network architecture

D.

To reduce the amount of data stored

Question # 15

What is a core tenant of risk management?

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are inplace, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss ofcustomers.

Question # 16

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

Question # 17

CCM: In the CCM tool, “Encryption and Key Management” is an example of which of the following?

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

Question # 18

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

Question # 19

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

Question # 20

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenanttechnologies?

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

Question # 21

Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

A.

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

B.

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

C.

It allows skipping final verification tests.

D.

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

Question # 22

Which of the following best describes the concept of Measured Service in cloud computing?

A.

Cloud systems allocate a fixed immutable set of measured services to each customer.

B.

Cloud systems offer elastic resources.

C.

Cloud systems provide usage reports upon request, based on manual reporting.

D.

Cloud systems automatically monitor resource usage and provide billing based on actual consumption.

Question # 23

Which of the following best describes an aspect of PaaS services in relation to network security controls within a cloud environment?

A.

They override the VNet/VPC's network security controls by default

B.

They do not interact with the VNet/VPC’s network security controls

C.

They require manual configuration of network security controls, separate from the VNet/VPC

D.

They often inherit the network security controls of the underlying VNet/VPC

Question # 24

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

Question # 25

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

Question # 26

Which cloud deployment model involves a cloud and a datacenter, bound together by technology to enable data and application portability?

A.

Hybrid cloud

B.

Public cloud

C.

Multi-cloud

D.

Private cloud

Question # 27

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

A.

Volume storage

B.

Platform

C.

Database

D.

Application

E.

Object storage

Question # 28

What is a potential concern of using Security-as-a-Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Lack of visibility

B.

Deployment flexibility

C.

Scaling and costs

D.

Intelligence sharing

E.

Insulation of clients

Question # 29

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

Question # 30

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

A.

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

Question # 31

In the IaaS shared responsibility model, which responsibility typically falls on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

Encrypting data at rest

B.

Ensuring physical security of data centers

C.

Managing application code

D.

Configuring firewall rules

Question # 32

Which opportunity helps reduce common application security issues?

A.

Elastic infrastructure

B.

Default deny

C.

Decreased use of micro-services

D.

Segregation by default

E.

Fewer serverless configurations

Question # 33

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Question # 34

Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity?

A.

Planned Outages

B.

Resiliency Planning

C.

Expected Engineering

D.

Chaos Engineering

E.

Organized Downtime

Question # 35

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

Question # 36

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

A.

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.

Infrastructure Security

C.

Compliance and Audit Management

D.

Information Governance

E.

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Question # 37

Which two key capabilities are required for technology to be considered cloud computing?

A.

Abstraction and orchestration

B.

Abstraction and resource pooling

C.

Multi-tenancy and isolation

D.

Virtualization and multi-tenancy

Question # 38

Which practice best helps mitigate security risks by minimizing root/core access and restricting deployment creation?

A.

Enforcing the principle of trust and eventually verily on demand'

B.

Disabling multi-factor authentication for staff and focusing on decision makers' accounts

C.

Deploying applications with full access and applying restrictions based on the need to object

D.

Enforcing the principle of least privilege

Question # 39

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

Question # 40

What technology is commonly used to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user's device and a private network over the public Internet?

A.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

Question # 41

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Question # 42

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?

A.

Virtualization

B.

Applistructure

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Metastructure

E.

Orchestration

Question # 43

What is an important step in conducting forensics on containerized and serverless environments?

A.

Implementing endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions

B.

Isolating network traffic and analyzing network packets frequently

C.

Regularly updating antivirus and anti-malware software

D.

Capturing container logs and snapshots, and leveraging serverless execution logs

Question # 44

What are the encryption options available for SaaS consumers?

A.

Any encryption option that is available for volume storage, object storage, or PaaS

B.

Provider-managed and (sometimes) proxy encryption

C.

Client/application and file/folder encryption

D.

Object encryption Volume storage encryption

Question # 45

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

Question # 46

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

Question # 47

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

Question # 48

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

Question # 49

Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

A.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Question # 50

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

Question # 51

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

Question # 52

What type of information is contained in the Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix?

A.

Network traffic rules for cloud environments

B.

A number of requirements to be implemented, based upon numerous standards and regulatory requirements

C.

Federal legal business requirements for all cloud operators

D.

A list of cloud configurations including traffic logic and efficient routes

E.

The command and control management hierarchy of typical cloud company

Question # 53

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

Question # 54

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

Question # 55

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

Question # 56

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

A.

False

B.

True

Question # 57

In FaaS, what is the primary security concern with using third-party services/APIs?

A.

Direct control over server management

B.

Simplified IAM and permissions management

C.

Increased attack surface via unauthorized access

D.

Stateless nature of executions reducing risk

Question # 58

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

Question # 59

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

Question # 60

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

Question # 61

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

Question # 62

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

Question # 63

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

Question # 64

What is a primary benefit of implementing Zero Trust (ZT) architecture in cloud environments?

A.

Reduced attack surface and simplified user experience.

B.

Eliminating the need for multi-factor authentication.

C.

Increased attack surface and complexity.

D.

Enhanced privileged access for all users.

Question # 65

What is a commonly used method by which hybrid cloud integrates data centers with public cloud?

A.

Using VPN or dedicated links

B.

Using peer-to-peer networks

C.

Using local area network (LAN)

D.

Using satellite connections

Question # 66

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

Question # 67

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Question # 68

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

A.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

Question # 69

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.

Containers

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

Question # 70

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

Question # 71

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

Question # 72

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

Question # 73

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

Question # 74

What is true of a workload?

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

Question # 75

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Question # 76

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

A.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit

B.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload

D.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology

Question # 77

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

Question # 78

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

Question # 79

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

Question # 80

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

Question # 81

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

Question # 82

What is the primary function of Privileged Identity Management (PIM) and Privileged Access Management (PAM)?

A.

Encrypt data transmitted over the network

B.

Manage the risk of elevated permissions

C.

Monitor network traffic and detect intrusions

D.

Ensure system uptime and reliability

Question # 83

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

Question # 84

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

A.

False

B.

True

Question # 85

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

A.

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

Question # 86

What is the primary purpose of volume storage encryption in a cloud environment?

A.

To simplify data backup procedures

B.

To secure data on virtual disks

C.

To improve virtual disk performance

D.

To reduce storage costs

Question # 87

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

Question # 88

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

Question # 89

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

Question # 90

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

Question # 91

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

Question # 92

Which strategic approach is most appropriate for managing a multi-cloud environment that includes multiple IaaS and PaaS providers?

A.

Allow each department to manage their own cloud services independently.

B.

Use a single security tool for all providers.

C.

Rely on each provider's native security features with limited additional oversight.

D.

Implement strict governance and monitoring procedures across all platforms.

Question # 93

When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

A.

The CSP server facility

B.

The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud

C.

The network components controlled by the CSP

D.

The CSP office spaces

E.

Their own virtual instances in the cloud

Question # 94

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

Question # 95

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Deploying cloud services

C.

Governing access to cloud resources

D.

Managing software licensing

Question # 96

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

Question # 97

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question # 98

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

Question # 99

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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