CAS-005 Practice Exam Questions with Answers CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Certification

To mitigate the issue of excessive permissions and privilege creep, the best solutions are:

Implementing a Role-Based Access Policy:

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): This policy ensures that access permissions are granted based on the user's role within the organization, aligning with the principle of least privilege. Users are only granted access necessary for their role, reducing the risk of excessive permissions.

The best solution is to provide a hash of all data made available (D). Hashing ensures the integrity of the threat intelligence data provided to customers. Clients can verify that the data received via API matches the published hash, ensuring no tampering occurred in transit or at rest. This supports customer trust and aligns with the objective of protecting data integrity while maintaining availability.

Option A (API secret keys) improves authentication and reduces attack surface but does not address integrity or compute efficiency. Option B (publishing IoCs publicly) increases attack surface and reduces control over distribution, which conflicts with security objectives. Option C (rate limiting) helps availability and cost control but does not guarantee data integrity.

By providing hashes, the company ensures customers can validate authenticity regardless of delivery method, reducing the risk of manipulated IoCs. This approach also minimizes compute spend since hashing is lightweight compared to continuous verification processes.

Therefore, the strongest alignment with all stated objectives—availability, reduced spend, reduced attack surface, and integrity—is achieved by providing hashes of all threat intelligence data.

Sinkholing, or DNS sinkholing, is a method used to redirect malicious traffic to a safe destination. This technique is often employed by security teams to prevent access to malicious domains by substituting a benign destination IP address.

In the given logs, users from the finance department are accessing www.bank.com and receiving HTTP status code 495. This status code is typically indicative of a client certificate error, which can occur if the DNS traffic is being manipulated or redirected incorrectly. The consistency in receiving the same HTTP status code across different users suggests a systematic issue rather than an isolated incident.

Recursive DNS resolution failure (A) would generally lead to inability to resolve DNS at all, not to a specific HTTP error.

DNS poisoning (B) could result in usersbeing directed to malicious sites, but again, would likely result in a different set of errors or unusual activity.

Incorrect DNS setup (D) would likely cause broader resolution issues rather than targeted errors like the one seen here.

By reviewing the provided data, it is evident that the DNS traffic for www.bank.com is being rerouted improperly, resulting in consistent HTTP 495 errors for the finance department users. Hence, the most likely cause is that the DNS traffic is being sinkholed.

OWIN23 is running Windows 7, which is a legacy operating system. Many EDR solutions no longer provide full support for outdated operating systems like Windows 7, which has reached its end of life and is no longer receiving security updates from Microsoft. This makes such systems more vulnerable to infections and attacks, including remote access Trojans (RATs).

A. OWIN23 uses a legacy version of Windows that is not supported by the EDR: This is the most probable cause because the lack of support means that the EDR solution may not fully protect or monitor this system, making it an easy target for infections.

B. LN002 was not supported by the EDR solution and propagates the RAT: While LN002 is unmanaged, it is less likely to propagate the RAT to OWIN23 directly without an established vector.

C. The EDR has an unknown vulnerability that was exploited by the attacker: This is possible but less likely than the lack of support for an outdated OS.

D. OWIN29 spreads the malware through other hosts in the network: While this could happen, the status indicates OWIN29 is in a bypass mode, which might limit its interactions but does not directly explain the infection on OWIN23.

The most appropriate technique to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the crypto-module is key stretching. Here's why:

Enhanced Security: Key stretching algorithms, such as PBKDF2, bcrypt, and scrypt, increase the computational effort required to derive the encryption key from the password, making brute-force attacks more difficult and time-consuming.

Compatibility: Key stretching can be implemented alongside existing cryptographic modules, enhancing their security without the need for a complete overhaul.

Industry Best Practices: Key stretching is a widely recommended practice for securely storing passwords, as it significantly improves resistance to password-cracking attacks.

Model poisoning occurs when an attacker manipulates the training data or the training process of an AI model so that its predictions are deliberately inaccurate or biased. In the SecurityX CAS-005 objectives, this is part of understanding emerging technology threats, specifically AI/ML vulnerabilities. This differs from:

Social engineering, which manipulates humans rather than AI models.

Output handling, which deals with how outputs are processed but doesn’t cause inaccuracy at the model level.

Prompt injections, which manipulate the model at query time, not during training.Because model poisoning directly corrupts the AI model itself, it is the clearest reason AI outputs could be inaccurate.

The data provided shows that all companies have SIEM systems, but they differ in their implementation of UEBA, DLP, ISAC membership, and TIP integration. The key metric to evaluate is the effectiveness in detecting and responding to attacks, as shown by the "Time to Detect" and "Time to Respond" columns. Company 1, which is an ISAC member, has the fastest detection (10 minutes) and response (20 minutes) times. Company 3, which is not an ISAC member, has slower detection (12 minutes) and response (24 minutes) times, despite having UEBA and TIP integration. Company 2, which lacks TIP integration but is an ISAC member, has the slowest times (20 minutes to detect, 40 minutes to respond). This suggests that ISAC membership correlates with faster detection and response, likely due to access to shared threat intelligence.

According to the CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 objectives (Domain 2: Security Operations, 2.2), Information Sharing and Analysis Centers (ISACs) are critical for enabling organizations to share real-timethreat intelligence within their industry. ISACs provide access to actionable intelligence, best practices, and coordinated response strategies, which are essential for defending against sophisticated attacks targeting critical infrastructure like the energy sector. The lack of ISAC membership (Company 3) limits access to this intelligence, hindering proactive defense and response capabilities. While UEBA, DLP, and TIP integration are valuable, they are more focused on internal monitoring, data protection,and individual threat intelligence feeds, respectively, and do not provide the same industry-wide collaboration as an ISAC.

The “cipher unavailable” message indicates that the client and server could not agree on a common cipher suite. After the OpenSSL update, the server likely dropped support for older, insecure ciphers (such as RC4 or 3DES) that legacy clients still use. The safest remediation is to update or configure the client applications to support modern, secure ciphers such as AES in Galois/Counter Mode (AES-GCM) or an equivalent strong cipher suite that is supported by the updated OpenSSL server.

Option A (SSL 3.0) is unsafe because SSL 3.0 is deprecated and vulnerable to multiple attacks (e.g., POODLE).

Option C (ECB mode) is insecure due to pattern leakage and should never be enforced.

Option D (ECC signatures) relates to key exchange and signatures, not to the “cipher unavailable” issue directly.

This approach aligns with SecurityX CAS-005 cryptographic interoperability guidance—modernize clients rather than reintroduce insecure protocols.

The correct snippet is Option A, which shows an Ansible YAML playbook designed to deploy and maintain security software on Linux servers. Ansible is a configuration management tool widely used in enterprise environments, and the ansible.builtin.apt module specifically manages package installation on Debian/Ubuntu-based Linux distributions. This ensures consistent security software deployment across multiple servers.

Option B is XML-based and does not represent a valid configuration management script. Option C incorrectly uses JSON format and references Microsoft’s store (com.microsoft.store.latest), which is irrelevant for Linux. Option D also uses JSON syntax with “AppX,” which applies to Windows applications, not Linux.

CAS-005 emphasizes infrastructure as code (IaC) and automation as best practices for secure system configuration. YAML-based playbooks in Ansible provide repeatability, auditability, and scalability, making Option A the most secure and appropriate solution.

Step by Step Explanation:

Understanding the Scenario: The question describes a proactive security measure where an organization maintains a registry of software dependencies and their corresponding hashes. This registry is used to verify the integrity of software packages.

Analyzing the Answer Choices:

A. Supply chain attack: This type of attack involves compromising the software supply chain by injecting malicious code into legitimate software packages.

The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here’s a detailed explanation:

Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.

Isolation fromProduction: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.

Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.

Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs) in Operational Technology (OT) environments commonly useLadder Logic, a graphical programming language resembling electrical relay logic diagrams. It’s the most relevant for PLCs due to its widespread use in industrial automation.

Option A:Ladder Logic is the standard for PLC programming, making it the best choice.

Option B:Rust is modern and secure but not typically used for PLCs.

Option C:C is used in some embedded systems but less common for PLCs.

Option D:Python is versatile but not native to PLC programming.

Option E:Java is rare in PLC contexts.

SecurityX CAS-005 endpoint security and network control objectives emphasize least privilege network access.

Creating a firewall rule to allow outbound traffic only via a proxy (A) ensures centralized inspection and control.

Configuring the proxy to allow only the required FQDNs for EDR management communication (C) limits exposure to necessary destinations.Options D and E allow broader access than necessary, and B would block required communications entirely. F relies on blocklists instead of allowlists, which is less secure for high-assurance environments.

Multicloud provider solutionsinvolve using services from more than one cloud provider to ensure resiliency and redundancy. In the event of a failure or SLA breach by one CSP, another provider can maintain service continuity. An on-premises backup could help, but does not address CSP-specific SLA concerns directly. Round-robin load balancing and active-active within the same tenant still depend on a single provider, thus posing risks if the CSP fails.

Malware that does not execute in a sandbox environment often contains anti-analysis techniques, such as anti-virtualization code. This code detects when the malware is running in a virtualized environment and alters its behavior to avoid detection. Checking for anti-virtualization code is a logical next step because:

It helps determine if the malware is designed to evade analysis tools.

Identifying such code can provide insights into themalware's behavior and intent.

This step can also inform further analysis methods, such as running the malware on physical hardware.

The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:

Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.

TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include

com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.

DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.

The best way to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that do not currently communicate is to configure an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets. Here's why:

Interoperability: APIs allow different systems to communicate and share data, even if they were not originally designed to work together. This enables the integration of various security appliances into a unified reporting system.

Automation: API integrations can automate the process of data collection, aggregation, and reporting, reducing manual effort and increasing efficiency.

Scalability: APIs provide a scalable solution that can easily be extended to include additional security appliances or data sources as needed.

The best way to prevent application-focused attacks for a platform-as-a-service solution with a web-based front end is to create Web Application Firewall (WAF) policies for relevant programming languages. Here's why:

Application-Focused Attack Prevention: WAFs are designed to protect web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet. They help prevent attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other application-layer attacks.

Customizable Rules: WAF policies can be tailored to the specific programming languages and frameworks used by the web application, providing targeted protection based on known vulnerabilities and attack patterns.

Real-Time Protection: WAFs provide real-time protection, blocking malicious requests before they reach the application, thereby enhancing the security posture of the platform.

The best option is Mandatory Access Control (MAC). In MAC, access decisions are centrally controlled by the system or administrators, not by individual users. This ensures that healthcare staff who enter patient information cannot grant access to others, thereby preventing accidental or malicious disclosure. MAC enforces strict policies based on data sensitivity and user clearance, which aligns with compliance requirements like HIPAA.

Option A (rule-based) defines access through specific rules but is not as rigidly enforced as MAC. Option B (attribute-based) is flexible but could still allow dynamic grants of access. Option D (discretionary) explicitly allows users to assign access rights, which is exactly what must be avoided in this scenario.

CAS-005 stresses using centralized, non-discretionary controls when protecting sensitive medical data, making MAC the correct choice for hospitals.

The best approach for managing and monitoring IoT devices, such as thermostats, is to operate them on a separate network with no access to other internal devices. This segmentation ensures that the IoT devices are isolated from the main network, reducing the risk of potential security breaches affecting other critical systems. Additionally, this setup allows for secure vendor updates without exposing the broader network to potential vulnerabilities inherent in IoT devices.

The key requirement is toinstantly eliminate data losson a lost device.

Cryptographic erasureworks by deleting encryption keys used for FDE (full disk encryption), rendering all data unrecoverable within seconds — satisfying the "mitigate within seconds" requirement.

Revoking certificates won’t wipe the data from a lost tablet.

Changing MFA credentials won’t help unless the device is secured, and app allow lists don’t apply post-loss.

FromCAS-005, Domain 3: Secure Systems Design and Deployment:

“Cryptographic erase (CE) renders data irrecoverable by deleting encryption keys used to protect data on the device.”

In a federated environment divided by region, if user identities are not synchronized across regions, authentication may be slow or fail when employees travel. CAS-005 IAM guidance states that identity synchronization ensures user attributes and credentials are consistently available in all regions, reducing latency and login issues.

Option A creates separate identities, which breaks single identity management.

Option C is unrelated to the login performance issue.

Option D may resolve SSO appliance sync but not cross-region identity data availability.

The code function provided in the question seems tobe designed to parse JSON formatted logs to check for an alarm state. Option A is a JSON format that matches the structure likely expected by the code. The presence of the "error_log" and "InAlarmState" keys suggests that this is the correct input format.

To create a collection of use cases for detecting known threats and include them in a centralized library for use across multiple companies withdifferent vendors, Sigma rules are the best option. Here’s why:

Vendor-Agnostic Format: Sigma rules are a generic and open standard for writing SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) rules. They can be translated to specific query languages of different SIEM systems, making them highly versatile and applicable across various platforms.

Centralized Rule Management: By using Sigma rules, the cybersecurity architect can create a centralized library of detection rules that can be easily shared and implemented across different detection and monitoring systems used by the acquired companies. This ensures consistency in threat detection capabilities.

Ease of Use and Flexibility: Sigma provides a structured and straightforward format for defining detection logic. It allows for the easy creation, modification, and sharing of rules, facilitating collaboration and standardization across the organization.

In the given scenario, the security engineer is likely examining login activities and their associated geolocations. This type of analysis is aimed at identifying unusual login patterns that might indicate an impossible travel scenario. An impossible travel scenario is when a single user account logs in from geographically distant locations in a short time, which is physically impossible. By assessing login activities using geolocation, the engineer can tune alerts to identify and respond to potential security breaches more effectively.

Creatingsecure baseline imagesensuresconsistent, repeatabledeployment aligned with hardening standards. These images can be used acrosson-premises and cloud environments, ensuring compliance and reducing misconfigurations.

Vulnerability alerts (A)are reactive, not preventive.

Building images from scratch (C)is time-consuming and unnecessary if baselines exist.

Scripts for cleanup (D)are useful but do not prevent initial insecure configurations.

The best way to address these requirements is to apply Role-Based Access Controls (RBAC) combined with geolocation policies. RBAC ensures that customers are authenticated and authorized to access only the data they are entitled to, thereby minimizing data exposure risks. At the same time, geolocation policies enforce restrictions on which regions customers can access data from, helping with compliance requirements such as GDPR or regional sovereignty laws.

Option B (replicating data in each customer environment) is inefficient, expensive, and introduces additional risks related to data sprawl. Option C (regional hosting with unique links) complicates access management and does not inherently prevent exposure or enforce strong authentication. Option D (restricting to a single region provider) removes flexibility and may conflict with customer needs for global access.

Therefore, implementing RBAC along with geolocation controls provides fine-grained access management, ensures compliance, prevents unnecessary data exposure, and is scalable for a global cloud environment.

Incident response follows a standard process (e.g., NIST 800-61): Preparation, Identification, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned. After identifying the attack (file and origin), the next step isContainment—limiting the spread or impact (e.g., isolating systems) before remediation or recovery.

Option A:Remediation (fixing the root cause) follows containment.

Option B:Correct—containment prevents further damage post-identification.

Option C:“Response” is too vague; it encompasses all steps.

Option D:Recovery (restoring systems) comes after containment and eradication.

The issue is tracing the original source of requests in a tiered architecture with a load balancer. The web server logs show internal IPs (192.168.1.10), not the external client IPs, because the load balancer forwards requests without preserving the source. Enabling theX-Forwarded-Forheader on the load balancer adds the client’s original IP to the HTTP request headers, allowing downstream servers to log it. This ensures traceability without altering the architecture significantly.

Option A:Correct—X-Forwarded-For is the standard solution for preserving client IPs through load balancers.

Option B:A Host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) detects anomalies but doesn’t address IP traceability.

Option C:A trusted CA certificate fixes the self-signed warning but is unrelated to source tracking.

Option D:Stored procedures improve database security but don’t help with IP logging.

Option E:Storing $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'] captures the loadbalancer’s IP, not the client’s, unless X-Forwarded-For is enabled.

OpenSSH vulnerabilityispublic facingand has acritical CVSS of 9.2.

Exploitable SSH services can lead to direct server compromise.

Although Apache has a higher score, it's internal.

FromCAS-005, Domain 3: Vulnerability Management:

“Prioritize external vulnerabilities with high CVSS and exposed attack surfaces.”

Building playbooks for different scenarios and performing regular table-top exercises directly addresses the issues identified in the lessons-learned review. Here's why:

Lost important information for further analysis: Playbooks outline step-by-step procedures for incident response, ensuring that team members know exactly what to document and how to preserve evidence.

Did not utilize the chain of communication: Playbooks include communication protocols, specifying who to notify and when. Regular table-top exercises reinforce these communication channels, ensuring they are followed during actual incidents.

Did not follow the right steps for a proper response: Playbooks provide a clear sequence of actions to be taken during various types of incidents, helping the team to respond in a structured and effective manner. Regular exercises allow the team to practice these steps, identifying and correcting any deviations from the plan.

Investing in better forensic tools (Option A) or requiring certifications (Option C) are also valuable, but they do not directly address the procedural and communication gaps identified. Publishing and enforcing the incident response policy (Option D) is important but not as practical and hands-on as playbooks and exercises in ensuring the team is prepared.

The goal is to optimize bandwidth, increase speed, and maintain threat visibility in a low-bandwidth satellite office.Local cachingstores frequently accessed data locally, reducing bandwidth usage by minimizing repeated requests to external or internal resources. It speeds up access and doesn’t inherently reduce security visibility if paired with monitoring tools.

Option A:Distributed connection allocation might balance traffic but doesn’t directly reduce bandwidth usage or speed up access.

Option B:Local caching is ideal—reduces bandwidth, improves performance, and maintains visibility with proper security controls.

Option C:A CDN is great for external content delivery but less relevant for internal resources and doesn’t inherently address threat visibility.

Option D:SD-WAN improves WAN performance, but "vertical heterogeneity" is vague and not a standard term; it’s less tailored to this scenario than caching.

Understanding the Security Event:

Unauthorized usersgained access from non-production to production.

IAM policies were weak, allowingbulk user creation.

Vulnerability assessments were disabled, andpatching was delayed.

Logs were unavailable, making incident response difficult.

Why Options A, D, and E areCorrect:

A (Disable bulk user creation by IAM team)? Prevents unauthorized mass user account creation, which could beexploited by attackers.

D (Routine updates for endpoints & network devices)? Patch management ensuresvulnerabilities are not left open for attackers.

E (Ensure all security/network devices send logs to SIEM)? Helps withreal-time monitoring and detection of unauthorized activities.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B (180-day log retention)? While log retention is good,real-time monitoring is the priority.

C (Review application allow list daily)? Reviewing itdaily is impractical. Regular audits are better.

F (Restrict production-to-non-production traffic)? The issue isunauthorized access, not traffic routing.

The best way is to perform a Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM) assessment. SAMM provides a structured framework to evaluate current software security maturity across people, process, and technology. The assessment highlights gaps and generates a roadmap tailored to the organization’s development environment.

Option B (threat modeling) only applies to specific applications, not the entire SDLC process. Option C risks misalignment with technical practices by relying only on CISO goals. Option D (OWASP secure coding manual) is useful but provides guidelines, not a maturity-based roadmap.

CAS-005 stresses leveraging maturity models for structured, measurable improvements. SAMM directly addresses this by producing a customized, actionable roadmap for secure coding practices.

The most critical considerations are trust boundaries (C) and supply chain access (E). Trust boundaries define where sensitive data crosses between systems or organizations, requiring strict cryptographic protections—especially important in government and commercial environments subject to crypto-export controls.

Supply chain access is also critical because hardware and software are sourced from external vendors. If suppliers are compromised, attackers could introduce malicious code, backdoors, or tampered firmware, endangering customers worldwide.

Option A (contractual obligations) and B (legal hold) are compliance-related but not direct security threats. Option D (cloud services enumeration) is irrelevant unless the storage is cloud-based. Option F (homomorphic encryption) is an advanced technology but not required for base threat modeling.

CAS-005 highlights modeling adversary capabilities at trust boundaries and accounting for supply chain risks, making C and E the most important.

The Center for Internet Security (CIS) Controls provide prescriptive best practices for validating and securing perimeter firewalls. These controls are specifically designed to offer detailed, actionable steps that organizations can follow to ensure firewall rules are configured properly, access is restricted to least privilege, and unnecessary services are disabled. CIS benchmarks also provide specific configuration guidance for different vendors, making them highly practical for real-world implementation and validation.

MITRE ATT&CK (B) is a framework for adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures, valuable for threat modeling but not a direct standard for firewall validation. NIST CSF (C) provides a high-level framework for cybersecurity risk management but lacks specific configuration guidance for firewalls. ISO 27001 (D) defines an information security management system (ISMS) framework, focusing on governance and certification rather than hands-on configuration best practices.

Therefore, the CIS Controls and Benchmarks represent the most direct and practical resource for validating firewall configurations in line with recognized industry best practices.

A proxy-based Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is chosen primarily for its ability to block unapproved applications and services. Here’s why:

Application and Service Control: Proxy-based CASBs can monitor and control the use of applications and services by inspecting traffic as it passes through the proxy. This allows the organization to enforce policies that block unapproved applications and services, ensuring compliance with security policies.

Visibility and Monitoring: By routing traffic through the proxy, the CASB can provide detailed visibility into user activities and data flows, enabling better monitoring and threat detection.

Real-Time Protection: Proxy-based CASBs can provide real-time protection against threats by analyzing and controlling traffic before it reaches the end user, thus preventing the use of risky applications and services.

The question focuses oninternet-facing hosts, implying external exposure. CVSS scores, remote executability, and exploitavailability guide prioritization. Server2 (205.1.3.5, CVSS 6.5, Bind Server) has a public IP, suggesting it’s internet-facing, unlike Server1 and Server4 (192.168.x.x, private IPs). Server3 (207.1.5.7, CVSS 5.5) is also public but has a lower score and risk compared to Server2’s proof-of-concept (POC) exploit. Server2’s Bind Server (DNS) role is critical and commonly targeted, making it the priority.

Option A:Server1 (CVSS 7.5) is private, not internet-facing.

Option B:Server2 (CVSS 6.5) is internet-facing with an exploit POC, warranting immediate patching.

Option C:Server3 (CVSS 5.5) is internet-facing but less severe.

Option D:Server4 (CVSS 9.8) is critical but private, not internet-facing.

The scenario involves replacing an on-premises VPN solution, which has a zero-day vulnerability, with cloud-hosted resources while ensuring trusted connectivity. Trusted connectivity in a cloud environment implies secure, scalable, and modern access control that goes beyond traditional VPNs. Let’s analyze the options:

A. Container orchestration: This refers to managing and automating containerized workloads (e.g., Kubernetes). While useful for application deployment, it doesn’t directly address secure connectivity to cloud resources.

B. Microsegmentation: This involves creating fine-grained security policies within a network to limit lateral movement. It’s valuable for internal security but isn’t a complete solution for trusted connectivity to cloud-hosted resources.

C. Conditional access: This ensures access based on conditions (e.g., user identity, device health). It’s relevant for identity management but lacks the broader networking and security scope needed here.

Attack surface reductionfocuses on minimizingunnecessary services, open ports, and vulnerabilities, reducing the exposure to potential adversaries. This aligns withzero trust and least privilege principles.

Secure Boot (A)helps ensure system integrity but does not minimize exposed services.

Disabling third-party integrations (C)may help, but broader attack surface reduction is the best first step.

Limiting access (D)is important but does not directly reduce exposed services.

The log shows an AXFR (zone transfer) query, which exposed internal DNS records, aiding lateral movement. Let’s evaluate:

A. Disabling DNS zone transfers:AXFR allows full DNS zone data to be transferred. Disabling it externally prevents attackers from mapping internal networks, directly mitigating this issue per CAS-005’s security operations focus.

B. Restricting to UDP/53:AXFR uses TCP/53, so this wouldn’t stop it.

C. DNSmasking:Obscures records but isn’t a standard term for this fix.

Advancements in quantum computing pose a significant threat to current encryption systems, especially those based on the difficulty of factoring large prime numbers, such as RSA. Quantum computers have the potential to solve these problems exponentially faster than classical computers, making current cryptographic systems vulnerable.

Why Large Prime Numbers are Vulnerable:

Shor's Algorithm: Quantum computers can use Shor's algorithm to factorize large integers efficiently, which undermines the security of RSA encryption.

Cryptographic Breakthrough: The ability to quickly factor large prime numbers means that encrypted data, which relies on the hardness of thismathematical problem, can be decrypted.

Other options, while relevant, do not capture the primary reason for the shift towards new encryption algorithms:

B. Zero Trust security architectures: While important, the shift to homomorphic encryption is not the main driver for new encryption algorithms.

C. Perfect forward secrecy: It enhances security but is not the main reason for new encryption algorithms.

D. Real-time IP traffic capture: Quantum computers pose a more significant threat to the underlying cryptographic algorithms than to the real-time capture of traffic.

In the context of improving incident response and reducing dwell time, the security analyst needs to focus on proactive measures that can quickly detect and alert on potential security breaches. Here’s a detailed analysis of the options provided:

A. Adjusting the SIEM to alert on attempts to visit phishing sites: While this is a useful measure to prevent phishing attacks, it primarily addresses external threats and doesn’t directly impact dwell time reduction, which focuses on the time a threat remains undetected within a network.

B. Allowing TRACE method traffic to enable better log correlation: The TRACE method in HTTP is used for debugging purposes, but enabling it can introduce security vulnerabilities. It’s not typically recommended for enhancing security monitoring or incident response.

C. Enabling alerting on all suspicious administrator behavior: This option directly targets the potential misuse of administrator accounts, which are often high-value targets for attackers. By monitoring and alerting on suspicious activities from admin accounts, the organization can quickly identify and respond to potential breaches, thereby reducing dwell time significantly. Suspicious behavior could include unusual login times, access to sensitive data not usually accessed by the admin, or any deviation from normal behavior patterns. This proactive monitoring is crucial for quick detection and response, aligning well with best practices in incident response.

D. Utilizing allow lists on the WAF for all users using GET methods: This measure is aimed at restricting access based on allowed lists, which can be effective in preventing unauthorized access but doesn’t specifically address the need for quick detection and response to internal threats.

Forward secrecy (FS) ensures that past encrypted data remains secure even if encryption keys are compromised in the future. Itgenerates ephemeral session keys that are not reused.

Other options:

A (Tokenization) replaces sensitive data with tokens but does not prevent key compromise.

B (Key stretching) makes brute-force attacks harder but does not ensure secrecy after compromise.

D (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals – SAE) is used in WPA3 but is not related to past communication security.

On-path decryption attacks, such as BEAST (Browser Exploit Against SSL/TLS) and other related vulnerabilities, often exploit weaknesses in the implementation of CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) mode. To mitigate these attacks, the following actions are recommended:

B. Removing support for CBC-based key exchange and signing algorithms: CBC mode is vulnerable to certain attacks like BEAST. By removing support for CBC-based ciphers, you can eliminate one of the primary vectors for these attacks. Instead, use modern cipher modes like GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) which offer better security properties.

C. Adding TLS_ECDHE_ECDSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA256: This cipher suite uses Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) for key exchange, which provides perfect forward secrecy. It also uses AES in GCM mode, which is not susceptible to the same attacks as CBC. SHA-256 is a strong hash function that ensures data integrity.

To prevent emails from being marked as spam, several DNS records related to email authentication need to be properly configured and updated when there are changes to the email server'scertificates:

A. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance): DMARC records help email servers determine how to handle messages that fail SPF or DKIM checks, improving email deliverability and reducing the likelihood of emails being marked as spam.

B. SPF (Sender Policy Framework): SPF records specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of your domain. Updating the SPF record ensures that the new email server is recognized as an authorized sender.

C. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail): DKIM adds a digital signature to email headers, allowing the receiving server to verify that the email has not been tampered with and is from an authorized sender. Updating DKIM records ensures that emails are properly signed and authenticated.

D. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions): DNSSEC adds security to DNS by enabling DNS responses to be verified. While important for DNS security, it does not directly address the issue of emails being marked as spam.

E. SASC: This is not a relevant standard for this scenario.

F. SAN (Subject Alternative Name): SAN is used in SSL/TLS certificates for securing multiple domain names, not for email delivery issues.

G. SOA (Start of Authority): SOA records are used for DNS zone administration and do not directly impact email deliverability.

H. MX (Mail Exchange): MX records specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email on behalf of a domain. While important, the primary issue here is the authentication of outgoing emails, which is handled by SPF, DKIM, and DMARC.

In the context of establishing a Security Operations Center (SOC) with a threat-modeling function, it's crucial to understand how data flows within the organization's systems. Network and data flow diagrams provide a visual representation of the system's architecture, illustrating how data moves between components, which is essential for identifying potential security weaknesses and antipatterns. Antipatterns are common responses to recurring problems that are ineffective and risk-inducing. By analyzing these diagrams, the consultant can pinpoint areas where security controls may be lacking or misconfigured, thereby facilitating the development of effective threat models.?

While other options like unpatchable IoT devices (Option B) and inventories of cloud resources (Option E) are important for comprehensive security assessments, they are more pertinent during later stages, such as vulnerability management and asset inventory. The initial phase of threat modeling focuses on understanding the system's structure and data flows to identify potential threats, making network and data flow diagrams the most critical information at this stage.?

The most likely driver for approving additional network security budget is that the audit revealed that the existing architecture contained security controls that could be easily bypassed. This indicates fundamental weaknesses in defense-in-depth and suggests that attackers could gain access to sensitive systems or data despite the presence of controls.

Option A (unused budgets) is not a strategic reason for approving security investment. Option B (compliance reports requested by customers) may influence investment in compliance initiatives, but it does not explain the need for an in-depth defense architecture. Option D (PCI DSS low score) is a compliance-specific issue but would not, on its own, drive a broad architectural budget approval unless PCI was the only focus.

Security audits often uncover systemic flaws—such as flat networks, insufficient segmentation, or single points of failure—that create the conditions for bypassing controls. Addressing these issues requires rearchitecting the environment, introducing layered defenses, and strengthening monitoring capabilities, all of which demand significant budget. Thus, option C aligns with the decision to invest in robust defense-in-depth strategies.

To provide secure access tointernal and external cloud resources, eliminate split-tunnel traffic flows, and enable identity and access management capabilities, the most appropriate solutions are CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) and SASE (Secure Access Service Edge).

Why CASB and SASE?

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker):

Secure Access: CASB solutions provide secure access to cloud resources by enforcing security policies and monitoring user activities.

Identity and Access Management: CASBs integrate with identity and access management (IAM) systems to ensure that only authorized users can access cloud resources.

Visibility and Control: They offer visibility into cloud application usage and control over data sharing and access.

SASE (Secure Access Service Edge):

Eliminate Split-Tunnel Traffic: SASE integrates network security functions with WAN capabilities to ensure secure access without the need for split-tunnel configurations.

Comprehensive Security: SASE provides a holistic security approach, including secure web gateways, firewalls, and zero trust network access (ZTNA).

Identity-Based Access: SASE leverages IAM to enforce access controls based on user identity and context.

Other options, while useful, do not comprehensively address all the requirements:

A. Federation: Useful for identity management but does not eliminate split-tunnel traffic or provide comprehensive security.

B. Microsegmentation: Enhances security within the network but does not directly address secure access to cloud resources or split-tunnel traffic.

D. PAM (Privileged Access Management): Focuses on managing privileged accounts and does not provide comprehensive access control for internal and external resources.

E. SD-WAN: Enhances WAN performance but does not inherently provide the identity and access management capabilities or eliminate split-tunnel traffic.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is crucial for identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities during the software development life cycle (SDLC). Ensuring that DAST scans are routinely scheduled helps in maintaining a secure development process.

Why Routine DAST Scans?

Continuous Security Assessment: Regular DAST scans help in identifying vulnerabilities in real-time, ensuring they are addressed promptly.

Compliance: Routine scans ensure that the development process complies with security standards and regulations.

Proactive Threat Mitigation: Regular scans help in early detection and mitigation of potential security threats, reducing the risk of breaches.

Integration into SDLC: Ensures security is embedded within the development process, promoting a security-first approach.

Other options, while relevant, do not directly address the continuous assessment and proactive identification of threats:

A. If developers are unable to promote to production: This is more of an operational issue than a security assessment.

B. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository: This concerns code management rather than security testing frequency.

D. If role-based training is deployed: While important, training alone does not ensure continuous security assessment.

The most likely explanation for the issues encountered with the captive portal is that the TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal are deprecated. Here’s why:

TLS Cipher Suites: Modern browsers are continuously updated to support the latest security standards and often drop support for deprecated and insecure cipher suites. If the captive portal uses outdated TLS ciphers, newer browsers may refuse to connect, causing security errors.

HSTS and Browser Security: Browsers with HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) enabled will not allow connections to sites with weak security configurations. Deprecated TLS ciphers would cause these browsers to block the connection.

The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.

Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:

Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.

Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.

Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.

Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:

A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.

B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.

C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.

E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.

SecurityX CAS-005 emphasizes automation with validation in security operations. Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platforms can integrate with Threat Intelligence Platforms (TIPs) to verify threat indicators before triggering automated endpoint isolation through EDR APIs. This approach reduces the spread of malware while minimizing the chance of isolating clean systems due to false positives.

Isolating endpoints on any alert (B) is high-risk and can disrupt business operations.

Manual review (C) is too slow for fast-moving threats.

Suppressing alerts (D) risks missing critical events entirely.

The best approach is to use Terraform scripts while creating golden images (A). Terraform is an Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tool that allows organizations to automate infrastructure deployment consistently across environments. A golden image is a pre-configured, patched, and hardened system image used as a standard baseline. By creating golden images via Terraform scripts, the company ensures that every microservice instance is deployed on an already-updated and secure OS. This eliminates the need for repeatedly patching the base OS before code deployment.

Option B (cron job with apt-update) applies patches but introduces delays (every 30 days) and lacks consistency across new deployments. Option C (snapshots) saves deployment states but risks replicating outdated or unpatched images. Option D (centralized update server) is useful but still requires updates post-deployment, which slows the rollout of microservices.

By automating golden image creation through Terraform, the company gains efficiency, repeatability, and security assurance, aligning with DevSecOps principles and CAS-005 cloud-native best practices.

ChaCha20-Poly1305is a cipher suite specifically designed for efficiency on systems with limited hardware resources. It offers high security with lower memory and CPU consumption compared to AES on certain platforms, especially mobile devices. TLS 1.3 supports ChaCha20-Poly1305 natively. CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) modes like IDEA-CBC and Camellia-CBC are less efficient and not recommended under TLS 1.3, and AES-GCM, while secure, can be less efficient than ChaCha20 on devices without AES hardware acceleration.

The technique that best addresses the issue of insider threats from employees who have individual access to encrypted material is key splitting. Here’s why:

Key Splitting: Key splitting involves dividing a cryptographic key into multiple parts anddistributing these parts among different individuals or systems. This ensures that no single individual has complete access to the key, thereby mitigating the risk of insider threats.

Increased Security: By requiring multiple parties to combine their key parts to access encrypted material, key splitting provides an additional layer of security. This approach is particularly useful in environments where sensitive data needs to be protected from unauthorized access by insiders.

Compliance and Best Practices: Key splitting aligns with best practices and regulatory requirements for handling sensitive information, ensuring that access is tightly controlled and monitored.

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets therequirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore,it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is thedefault and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

A black and white screen with white text Description automatically generated

Integrating IDS, firewall, and DLP to reduce response time requires orchestration and automation. Let’s evaluate:

A. SOAR(Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response):SOAR integrates security tools, automates workflows, and speeds up incident response. It’s the best fit for this scenario, as CAS-005 highlights SOAR for operational efficiency.

B. CWPP (CloudWorkload Protection Platform):Focused on securing cloud workloads, not integrating on-premises tools.

C. XCCDF (Extensible Configuration Checklist Description Format):A standard for compliance checklists, not a tool for integration or response.

In reviewing email headers and determining actions to mitigate phishing attempts, the security analyst should focus on patterns of suspicious behavior and the reputation of the sending domains. Here’s the analysis of the options provided:

A. Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain: Blocking a domain solely because it is not recognized can lead to legitimate emails being missed. Recognition alone should not be the criterion for blocking.

B. Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator: While rerouting suspicious messages can be a good practice, it is not specific to the domain sending repeated suspicious messages.

C. Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header: Quarantining messages based on the presence of a specific domain in the email header can be too broad and may capture legitimate emails.

D. Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages: This option is the most appropriate because it targets a domain that has shown a pattern of sending suspicious messages. Blocking a domain that repeatedly sends phishing attempts without previous communications helps in preventing future attempts from the same source and aligns with the goal of mitigating phishing risks.

The best way for a SOC to rapidly identify whether deployed applications contain specific libraries is through the use of a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM). An SBOM is a formal, machine-readable inventory of all components, including third-party and open-source libraries, used in a software product. When a new vulnerability is disclosed (such as Log4Shell in Log4j), organizations with a comprehensive SBOM can immediately search across their application landscape to determine which systems are impacted.

Other options are less effective. Maintaining SAST/DAST reports (A) only provides snapshots of vulnerabilities at the time of scanning, but does not dynamically track components across all software in production. Vendor attestations (B) improve supply chain governance but do not provide immediate visibility into internal or custom software. A GRC tool (D) helps track vendors and policies but does not show technical dependencies inside applications.

Requiring suppliers and internal developers to provide and maintain SBOMs ensures continuous visibility into dependencies. This allows the SOC to quickly query and respond to emerging vulnerabilities, reducing risk exposure and accelerating remediation timelines.

Based on the log provided, the most concerning event that should be investigated further is the presence of a text file containing passwords that were leaked. Here's why:

Sensitive Information Exposure: A text file containing passwords represents a significant security risk, as it indicates that sensitive credentials have been exposed in plain text, potentially leading to unauthorized access.

Immediate Threat: Password leaks can lead to immediate exploitation by attackers, compromising user accounts and sensitive data. This requires urgent investi

To ensure the most secure way of keeping a legacy system (COL) operating until a new solution is available, isolating the system and enforcing strict firewall rules is the best approach. This method minimizes the attack surface by restricting access to only the necessary endpoints, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential security breaches. Isolating the system ensures that it is not exposed to the broader network, while firewall rules control the traffic that can reach the system, providing a secure environment until a replacement is implemented.

Step-by-Step Explanation:

Option A: Deny list

Deny lists block specific applications or processes identified as malicious.

This approach is reactive and mayinadvertently block the non-standard applications that are currently in use without proper ownership.

Option B: Allow list

Allow lists permit only pre-approved applications to run.

While secure, this approach requires defining all non-standard applications, which may disrupt operations in an environment where ownership is unclear.

Option C: Audit mode

Correct Answer.

Audit mode allows monitoring and logging of applications without enforcing restrictions.

This is ideal in environments with non-standard applications and undefined ownership because it enables the engineer to observe the environment and gradually implement control without interruption.

Audit mode provides critical visibility into the software landscape, ensuring that necessary applications remain functional.

Option D: MAC list

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) lists restrict access based on classification and clearance levels.

This does not align with application control objectives in this context.

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide - Chapters on Endpoint Security and Application Control.

CASP+ Objective 2.4: Implement appropriate security controls for enterprise endpoints.

Disabling unneeded servicesreduces the attack surface by closing open ports.Patchingensures that endpoint protection software and operating systems are up-to-date, reducing vulnerability exposure.Removing unused accountseliminates access paths for malicious users exploiting dormant accounts. Secure boot, BIOS passwords, and drive encryption are important, but they address different layers of security than the vulnerabilities listed.

The best way to reduce liability and secure customer environments is to require that all employee-owned laptops have a corporate-licensed and managed Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solution installed. This ensures that devices accessing sensitive customer infrastructure are monitored for malware, unauthorized processes, and suspicious behaviors. EDR provides visibility into endpoint security posture and enforces corporate security baselines, which unmanaged personal devices typically lack.

Option A (MDM with attestation) works well for corporate-owned devices but is difficult to enforce reliably across personally owned laptops. Option C (VPN with certificate authentication) ensures encrypted access but does not validate whether the device is secure. Option D (host checking to jump boxes) reduces exposure but still allows unmanaged endpoints to connect indirectly.

CAS-005 emphasizes endpoint controls and assurance mechanisms for environments with third-party or bring-your-own-device (BYOD) risk. Deploying managed EDR ensures visibility, consistent policies, and rapid response across all devices, making this the most secure and practical option.

The correct answer is Playbooks (A). In incident response, playbooks are structured workflows that define step-by-step actions for specific incident types (e.g., ransomware, phishing, insider threats). They allow SOC analysts to standardize responses across multiple platforms and tools, ensuring consistency and faster mitigation. By leveraging playbooks, organizations integrate existing incident response tools into automated or semi-automated processes, improving efficiency and reducing human error.

Option B (event collectors) consolidate logs but do not directly improve response processes. Option C (centralized logging) enhances visibility but does not provide a framework for action. Option D (endpoint detection) expands detection capabilities but does not enhance the process effectiveness of incident response.

CAS-005 emphasizes structured response through automation and orchestration. Playbooks, often implemented via SOAR platforms, allow integration of detection, triage, and remediation steps, making them the most effective way to increase incident response maturity.

The user-agent string can providevaluable information to distinguish between legitimate and bot-related traffic. It contains details about the browser, device, and sometimes the operating system of the client making the request.

Why Use User-Agent String?

Identify Patterns: User-agent strings can help identify patterns that are typical of bots or legitimate users.

Block Malicious Bots: Many bots use known user-agent strings, and identifying these can help block malicious requests.

Anomalies Detection: Anomalous user-agent strings can indicate spoofing attempts or malicious activity.

Other options provide useful information but may not be as effective for initial determination of the nature of the request:

B. Byte length of the request: This can indicate anomalies but does not provide detailed information about the client.

C. Web application headers: While useful, they may not provide enough distinction between legitimate and bot traffic.

D. HTML encoding field: This is not typically used for identifying the nature of the request.

RACI matrix(Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) is used for role mapping across the project lifecycle.

CMDB is a configuration inventory; ITIL is a framework. Recall trees are for disaster recovery/business continuity.

FromCAS-005, Domain 1: Security Governance and Compliance:

“The RACI matrix is essential in role assignment and accountability for software development and operational processes.”

Select the Action Items for the Appropriate Locations:

Authorization Server:

Action Item: Grant access

The authorization server's role is to authenticate the user and then issue an authorization code or token that the client application can use to access resources. Granting access involves the server authenticating the resource owner and providing the necessary tokens for the client application.

Resource Server:

Action Item: Access issued tokens

The resource server is responsible for serving the resources requested by the client application. It must verify the issued tokens from the authorization server to ensure the client has the right permissions to access the requested data.

B2B Client Application:

Action Item: Authorize access to other applications

The B2B client application must handle the OAuth flow to authorize access on behalf of the user without requiring direct knowledge of the user's credentials. This includes obtaining authorization tokens from the authorization server and using them to request access to the resource server.

Detailed Explanation:

OAuth 2.0 is designed to provide specific authorization flows for web applications, desktopapplications, mobile phones, and living room devices. The integration involves multiple steps and components, including:

Resource Owner (User):

The user owns the data and resources that are being accessed.

Client Application (B2B Client Application):

Requests access to the resources controlled by the resource owner but does not directly handle the user's credentials. Instead, it uses tokens obtained through the OAuth flow.

Authorization Server:

Handles the authentication of the resource owner and issues the access tokens to the client application upon successful authentication.

Resource Server:

Hosts the resources that the client application wants to access. It verifies the access tokens issued by the authorization server before granting access to the resources.

OAuth Workflow:

The resource owner accesses the client application.

The client application redirects the resource owner to the authorization server for authentication.

The authorization server authenticates the resource owner and asks for consent to grant access to the client application.

Upon consent, the authorization server issues an authorization code or token to the client application.

The client application uses the authorization code or token to request access to the resources from the resource server.

The resource server verifies the token with the authorization server and, if valid, grants access to the requested resources.

To mitigate the identified vulnerabilities, the followingsolutions are most appropriate:

A. Implementing data loss prevention (DLP): DLP solutions help prevent the unauthorized transfer of data outside the organization. This directly addresses the exfiltration of intellectual property by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data transfers.

E. Enabling modern authentication that supports Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA): This significantly enhances security by requiring additional verification methods beyond just passwords. It addresses the issue of weak user passwords by making it much harder for unauthorized users to gain access, even if they obtain the password.

Other options, while useful in specific contexts, do not address all the vulnerabilities mentioned:

B. Deploying file integrity monitoring helps detect changes to files but does not prevent data exfiltration or address weak passwords.

C. Restricting access to critical file services improves security but is not comprehensive enough to mitigate all identified vulnerabilities.

D. Deploying directory-based group policies can enforce security policies but might not directly prevent data exfiltration or ensure strong authentication.

F. Implementing a version control system helps manage changes to files but is not a security measure for preventing the identified vulnerabilities.

G. Implementing a CMDB platform (Configuration Management Database) helps manage IT assets but does not address the specific security issues mentioned.

To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.

Forward secrecy (also known as perfect forward secrecy, PFS) ensures that session keys used in a VPN tunnel are ephemeral, meaning that even if an attacker compromises a long-term private key, past sessions cannot be decrypted. According to the CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 study guide (Domain 3: Cybersecurity Technology, 3.1), enabling forward secrecy on VPN tunnels reduces the risk of cryptanalysis by ensuring that each session’s encryption key is unique and not derived from a single compromised key. This directly mitigates the impact of attacks like key theft or future decryption attempts.

Option A:Forward secrecy is not required for hardware-accelerated cryptography, which depends on processor capabilities, not key management.

Option C:While confidentiality is important, this is too vague and does not specifically explain why forward secrecy is chosen.

Option D:Modern protocols (e.g., TLS 1.3, IPsec with ECDHE) support forward secrecy but donot mandate it as a prerequisite for use.

Option B:This is the most precise, as forward secrecy directly reduces the success of cryptanalysis by limiting the scope of key compromise.

Anacceptable use policy (AUP)defines what is considered appropriate use of corporate email and prevents unnecessary emails to personal accounts. This helps in reducing false DLP alerts while maintaining compliance.

Quarantining emails (A)is unnecessary since the content was not flagged as sensitive.

Encryption (C)secures emails but does not address overuse.

Phishing awareness training (D)is unrelated to policy enforcement for outgoing emails.

When differentiating between valid and invalid findings from vulnerability scans, the systemsadministrator should verify that the scanning credentials are properly configured. Valid credentials ensure that the scanner can authenticate and access the systems being evaluated, providing accurate and comprehensive results. Without proper credentials, scans may miss vulnerabilities or generate false positives, making it difficult to prioritize and address the findings effectively.

Useruser-cis showinganomalous behavior across multiple machines, attempting to run administrative tools such as cmd.exe and appwiz.CPL, which are commonly used by attackers for system modification. The activity pattern suggests a lateral movement attempt, potentially indicating a compromised account.

user-a (A)anduser-b (B)attempted to run applications but only on one machine, suggesting less likelihood of compromise.

user-d (D)was blocked running cmd.com, but user-c’s pattern is more consistent with an attack technique.

The incident highlights gaps in visibility, monitoring, and log management that allowed unauthorized access to persist undetected. The most critical corrective actions are to extend log retention for all devices (B) and to ensure all devices are forwarding relevant logs to the SIEM (E). Together, these steps strengthen monitoring and incident detection capabilities by ensuring that sufficient telemetry is collected, stored, and available for correlation and investigation.

Disabling bulk user creation (A) may reduce misuse but does not directly address monitoring gaps. Daily review of the application allow list (C) is operationally impractical and does not provide the breadth of monitoring needed. Routine patching (D) is essential for security hygiene but is separate from monitoring improvements. Configuring firewall rules (F) may reduce traffic flows but does not ensure detection or visibility of unauthorized activity.

By prioritizing comprehensive log collection and ensuring adequate retention, the SOC can correlate anomalies across systems, detect malicious behavior earlier, and conduct forensic investigations effectively. This aligns with CAS-005 best practices for security operations and continuous monitoring in hybrid environments.