Practice Free SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2025 Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

Safety controls are security controls that are designed to protect human life and physical assets from harm or damage. Examples of safety controls include fire alarms, sprinklers, emergency exits, backup generators, and surge protectors. Safety controls should fail open, which means that they should remain operational or allow access when a failure or error occurs. Failing open can prevent or minimize the impact of a disaster, such as a fire, flood, earthquake, or power outage, on human life and physical assets. For example, if a fire alarm fails, it should still triggerthe sprinklers and unlock the emergency exits, rather than remain silent and locked. Failing open can also ensure that essential services, such as healthcare, transportation, or communication, are available during a crisis. Remote access points, logging controls, and logical security controls are other types of security controls, but they should not fail open in a data center. Remote access points are security controls that allow users or systems to access a network or a system from a remote location, such as a VPN, a web portal, or a wireless access point. Remote access points should fail closed, which means that they should deny access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the data center’s network or systems, such as by hackers, malware, or rogue devices. Logging controls are security controls that record and monitor the activities and events that occur on a network or a system, such as user actions, system errors, security incidents, or performance metrics. Logging controls should also fail closed, which means that they should stop or suspend the activities or events when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data loss, corruption, or tampering, as well as ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Logical security controls are security controls that use software or code to protect data and systems from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or destruction, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, or firewall. Logical security controls should also fail closed, which means that they should block or restrict access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data breaches, cyberattacks, or logical flaws, as well as ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 142-143, 372-373, 376-377

A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user’s workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user’s workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.

RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.

HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .

A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References =

How to access a remote server using a jump host

Jump server

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

[What is an HSM?]

[Load balancing (computing)]

[What is Load Balancing?]

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is the most effective addition when an organization already has a firewall but continues to face repeated external attacks. Security+ SY0-701 states that an IPS operates inline and automatically blocks malicious traffic in real time based on signatures, anomaly behavior, or heuristics. Whereas a firewall filters traffic by rules, an IPS detects and prevents deeper-level threats such as exploits, malware, and command-and-control attempts.

A UTM (C) includes IPS features, but it is typically used to replace a firewall with an all-in-one appliance. The question states the organization already has a firewall, so the most efficient addition is a standalone IPS. A SIEM (A) aggregates and analyzes logs but does not block attacks. A load balancer (B) distributes traffic for performance—not security.

Thus, the best item to stop active inbound attacks is D: IPS.

 An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that govern how users can access and use a corporate network or the internet. The AUP helps companies minimize their exposure to cyber security threats and limit other risks. The AUP also serves as a notice to users about what they are not allowed to do and protects the company against misuse of their network. Users usually have to acknowledge that they understand and agree to the rules before accessing the network1.

An AUP best represents a preventive security control type, because it aims to deter or stop potential security incidents from occurring in the first place. A preventive control is proactive and anticipates possible threats and vulnerabilities, and implements measures to prevent themfrom exploiting or harming the system or the data. A preventive control can be physical, technical, or administrative in nature2.

Some examples of preventive controls are:

Locks, fences, or guards that prevent unauthorized physical access to a facility or a device

Firewalls, antivirus software, or encryption that prevent unauthorized logical access to a network or a system

Policies, procedures, or training that prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions or behaviors by users or employees

An AUP is an example of an administrative preventive control, because it defines the policies and procedures that users must follow to ensure the security and proper use of the network and the IT resources. An AUP can prevent users from engaging in activities that could compromise the security, performance, or availability of the network or the system, such as:

Downloading or installing unauthorized or malicious software

Accessing or sharing sensitive or confidential information without authorization or encryption

Using the network or the system for personal, illegal, or unethical purposes

Bypassing or disabling security controls or mechanisms

Connecting unsecured or unapproved devices to the network

By enforcing an AUP, a company can prevent or reduce the likelihood of security breaches, data loss, legal liability, or reputational damage caused by user actions or inactions3.

References = 1: How to Create an Acceptable Use Policy - CoreTech, 2: [Security Control Types: Preventive, Detective, Corrective, and Compensating], 3: Why You Need A Corporate Acceptable Use Policy - CompTIA

A honeypot is a security mechanism set up to attract and detect potential attackers by simulating vulnerable assets. By hosting a part of the infrastructure online with known vulnerabilities that appear to be company assets, the company can observe and analyze the behavior of attackersconducting reconnaissance. This approach allows the company to get alerts and gather intelligence on potential threats.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly on threat detection techniques such as honeypots??.

A version control tool, such as Git, is specifically designed to track changes in code, configuration scripts, IaC templates, and deployment files. In the context of creating new virtual servers—often built using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) or automated orchestration—version control allows teams to maintain historical records, compare changes, revert mistakes, ensure code integrity, and enable collaborative development.

Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes the use of version control in secure development practices to ensure traceability, accountability, and change visibility. It supports secure DevOps workflows by ensuring that no unauthorized or insecure code modifications are introduced into production environments.

A change management ticketing system (A) documents approval requests but does not track code-level modifications. A behavioral analyzer (B) evaluates anomalous behavior, not code changes. A collaboration platform (C) enables communication but lacks code versioning capability.

Therefore, the most appropriate tool is D: Version control tool.

An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are permitted to run on a system or a network. An application allow list can block unknown programs from executing by only allowing the execution of programs that are explicitly authorized and verified. An application allow list can prevent malware, unauthorized software, or unwanted applications from running and compromising the security of the system or the network12.

The other options are not the best ways to block unknown programs from executing:

Access control list: This is a security technique that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to a resource or an object. An access control list can control the permissions and privileges of users or groups, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing13.

Host-based firewall: This is a security device that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host or system. A host-based firewall can block or allow networkconnections based on predefined rules, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 .

DLP solution: This is a security system that detects and prevents the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data. A DLP solution can protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 .

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Application Whitelisting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.5, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.

The document described in the question is a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP). A DRP outlines the process and procedures for restoring critical systems and operations after a major disruption or outage. It includes the order in which systems should be brought back online to ensure minimal impact on business operations, prioritizing the most critical systems to recover first.

Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites, banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive information, such as log-in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website that mimicked the appearance of the real one. The employee entered the log-in information, but received a “page not found” error message. This indicates that the employee fell victim to a phishing attack, and the attacker may have captured the employee’s credentials for the payment website. References = Other Social Engineering Attacks – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.2, CompTIA Security+: Social Engineering Techniques & Other Attack … - NICCS, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

Classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity and handling requirements to data, which informs its lifecycle management, retention, and disposal methods. In regulated industries such as banking, proper data classification ensures that data subject to legal or regulatory requirements is destroyed according to those requirements at the end of its retention period. This directly guides how the data should be handled and disposed of.

Organizational risk tolerance is the primary factor determining how quickly and aggressively vulnerabilities should be remediated. Security+ SY0-701 explains that organizations have different appetites for risk depending on business needs, regulatory expectations, operational constraints, and financial impact.

A company with low risk tolerance may prioritize almost every vulnerability and remediate quickly.

A company with high risk tolerance may delay or accept some lower-impact risks.

This consideration directly influences patch prioritization, resource allocation, and mitigation timelines.

Option A—executive reporting—does not influence technical prioritization.

Option C—open-source intelligence—helps identify vulnerabilities but does not determine urgency.

Option D—the source of the reported risk—is irrelevant; what matters is severity and business impact.

Thus, B: The overall organizational risk tolerance is the key factor for prioritizing remediation.

The correct answer is $10,000 because Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) represents the expected yearly financial loss from a specific risk. According to Security+ SY0-701 risk management principles, ALE is calculated using the formula:

ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) × Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

In this scenario, the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is clearly defined as $15,000, which represents the financial impact of a single security breach. The challenge lies in determining the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). The breach is expected to occur twice over a three-year period, which means the ARO is:

ARO = 2 ÷ 3 ? 0.67 occurrences per year

Using the ALE formula:

ALE = $15,000 × 0.67 ? $10,000

This calculation aligns with standard quantitative risk assessment techniques emphasized in the SY0-701 study guide. ALE allows organizations to compare the cost of potential losses against the cost of implementing security controls, helping leadership make informed, financially sound risk management decisions.

Option A, $7,500, would be correct only if the event occurred once every two years. Option C, $15,000, reflects the SLE but does not account for frequency. Option D, $30,000, incorrectly represents the total loss over three years rather than an annualized value.

The SY0-701 objectives highlight ALE as a critical metric for prioritizing risks, justifying security investments, and communicating risk in business terms to executives. By converting risk into an annual expected cost, ALE bridges the gap between technical security concerns and organizational financial planning.

In summary, when frequency is spread across multiple years, the loss must be annualized. Doing so correctly results in an ALE of $10,000, making option B the correct answer.

The scenario describes a large number of unsolicited emails sent to multiple users. This is characteristic of phishing, which SY0-701 defines as mass-distributed fraudulent messages designed to trick recipients into clicking malicious links, downloading malware, or divulging sensitive information.

Phishing campaigns typically involve:

High volume

Non-targeted messaging

Use of spoofed addresses or fake content

Delivery through email systems

A watering-hole attack (A) compromises a legitimate website frequented by targets—not email. Typosquatting (B) relies on malicious websites with deceptive URLs. Business Email Compromise (C) involves highly targeted spear-phishing or impersonation attacks, not bulk email blasts.

Because this incident involves “hundreds of messages” delivered to “multiple users,” it clearly matches the characteristics of a phishing attack, not a sophisticated targeted attack type.

Phishing is the most common form of social engineering and is emphasized heavily in the Security+ exam due to its frequency and effectiveness.

An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user’s awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.

The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user’s knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user’s skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Endpoint Detection and Response – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.2, video at 5:30; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 163.

Salting involves adding a unique value (salt) to each password before hashing it. This means that even if two users have the same password, the added salts ensure their hash values are different. This protects against attacks that exploit identical hash values, such as rainbow table attacks.

The scenario shows MD5 hashed password values. The most likely reason the security administrator is focusing on these values is to protect against pass-the-hash attacks. In this type of attack, an attacker can use a captured hash to authenticate without needing to know the actual plaintext password. By managing and monitoring these hashes, the administrator can implement strategies to mitigate this type of threat.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations?.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management?.

Multicloud architectures use two or more IaaS providers (e.g., AWS + Azure + GCP) to distribute workloads, increase redundancy, and reduce single points of failure. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes multicloud strategies for enhancing:

Resilience

Availability

Fault tolerance

Geographic redundancy

Vendor independence

The question specifies:

Critical VMs

Hosted across different IaaS providers

Still maintained by internal application owners

This perfectly matches a multicloud deployment, where organizations maintain control over VM configuration while leveraging multiple cloud vendors for resilience.

SaaS provider diversity (B) applies to application services, not internally managed VMs.

On-prem load balancing (C) does not involve cloud providers.

Corporate-owned off-site locations (D) refer to DR sites, not multi-vendor cloud hosting.

Thus, A: Multicloud architectures is the correct answer.

 Labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs can provide several security benefits for a company. Two of these benefits are:

A. If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified. An asset inventory sticker is a label that contains a unique identifier for a laptop, such as a serial number, a barcode, or a QR code. By associating this identifier with an employee ID, the security team can easily track and locate the owner of the laptop in case of a security incident, such as a malware infection, a data breach, or a theft. This way, the security team can notify the correct employee about the incident, and provide them with the necessary instructions or actions to take,such as changing passwords, scanning for viruses, or reporting the loss. This can help to contain the incident, minimize the damage, and prevent further escalation.

F. Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization. When an employee leaves the organization, the company needs to ensure that all the company data and assets are returned or deleted from the employee’s laptop. By labeling the laptop with an asset inventory sticker and associating it with an employee ID, the company can easily identify and verify the laptop that belongs to the departing employee, and perform the appropriate data backup, wipe, or transfer procedures. This can help to protect the company data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the former employee or any other party.

The other options are not correct because they are not related to the security benefits of labeling laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. B. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device. User awareness training is a type of security education that aims to improve the knowledge and behavior of users regarding security threats and best practices. The security team can send user awareness training to the appropriate device by using the email address, username, or IP address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. C. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens. Software MFA tokens are a type of multi-factor authentication that uses a software application to generate a one-time password or a push notification for verifying the identity of a user. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens by using the device ID, phone number, or email address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. D. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops. User-based firewall policies are a type of firewall rules that apply to specific users or groups of users, regardless of the device or location they use to access the network. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops by using the username, domain, or certificate of the user, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. E. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops. Penetration testing is a type of security assessment that simulates a real-world attack on a network or system to identify and exploit vulnerabilities. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops by using the IP address, hostname, or MAC address of the laptop, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 17. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.4: Asset Management, video: Asset Inventory (6:12).

The correct answer is A because the primary distinction between a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) and a Statement of Work (SOW) lies in their legal enforceability and purpose. In the Security+ SY0-701 governance and third-party risk management context, an MOU is generally a formal but nonbinding agreement that outlines mutual expectations, responsibilities, and cooperation between parties. It establishes intent and alignment but typically does not impose enforceable obligations or penalties if terms are not met.

An SOW, on the other hand, is legally binding and serves as a contractual document that defines specific deliverables, timelines, performance metrics, and acceptance criteria. The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes that SOWs are critical in vendor and service provider relationships because they clearly define what work will be performed, how success is measured, and what happens if requirements are not met. This makes the SOW enforceable in legal and regulatory contexts, especially when dealing with sensitive systems or data.

Option B is incorrect because both MOUs and SOWs can identify engagement participants, but this is not their defining difference. Option C is incorrect because both documents typically require agreement from all involved parties, and signature requirements vary by organization and jurisdiction. Option D is incorrect because it reverses the actual level of detail: MOUs are high-level and conceptual, while SOWs are detailed and task-specific.

In security programs, MOUs are often used for cooperative arrangements, such as information sharing between organizations or government entities. SOWs are used when accountability, compliance, and measurable outcomes are required. Understanding this distinction is essential for managing third-party risk, enforcing security requirements, and maintaining compliance with Security+ SY0-701 governance objectives.

Software as a Service (SaaS) is the cloud model that best meets the goal of outsourcing the management, including patching, of firmware, operating systems, and applications to the cloud vendor. In a SaaS environment, the cloud provider is responsible for maintaining and updating the entire software stack, allowing the organization to focus on using the software rather than managing its infrastructure.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domains related to cloud security models??.

Encryption is a reversible process that transforms cleartext data into ciphertext to protect confidentiality. It uses cryptographic keys to both encrypt and decrypt data, ensuring that only authorized parties can access the original data.

Hashing, on the other hand, is a one-way function that converts data into a fixed-length hash value or checksum. Hashing is primarily used to verify data integrity by detecting changes, since any modification in the input will produce a different hash output. Unlike encryption, hashing cannot be reversed to obtain the original data.

While encryption can protect data both at rest and in transit, hashing does not protect data confidentiality but supports integrity verification. Public-key exchange is a cryptographic mechanism within asymmetric encryption but is unrelated to hashing key usage.

This distinction is thoroughly explained in the Cryptography chapter of the SY0-701 syllabus?6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

The correct answer is C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint. This combination of authentication factors satisfies the manager’s goal of implementing multifactor authentication that uses something you know, something you have, and something you are.

Something you know is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s knowledge of a secret or personal information, such as a password, a PIN, or a security question. A password is a common example of something you know that can be used to access a VPN12

Something you have is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s possession of a physical object or device, such as a smart card, a token, or a smartphone. An authentication token is a common example of something you have that can be used to generate a one-time password (OTP) or a code that can be used to access a VPN12

Something you are is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s biometric characteristics, such as a fingerprint, a face, or an iris. A thumbprint is a common example of something you are that can be used to scan and verify the user’s identity to access a VPN12

Hashing is used to verify data integrity. By comparing the hash value of the data before and after transmission, it is possible to determine if the data has been altered in transit. If the hash values match, the data has not been modified.

ARP poisoning(also known as ARP spoofing) is a basicman-in-the-middle (MITM)attack that involves sending fake ARP responses to redirect traffic. This technique isnot sophisticatedand can be easily executed using freely available tools like Cain & Abel, Ettercap, or Wireshark.

Such attacks are often attempted byunskilled attackers (script kiddies)testing their abilities, especially in environments like schools. The term“unskilled attacker”fits best here, as credential stuffing and DMARC are unrelated to ARP poisoning.

The log entries clearly show an attacker attempting to access sensitive system files by manipulating the filename parameter. The use of ../../../ is a classic indicator of a directory traversal attack, also called path traversal. This technique is used to move outside the intended web directory and access restricted locations on the server’s filesystem.

In this case, the attacker is attempting to read:

/etc/passwd — contains user account information

/etc/shadow — contains hashed password entries and is even more sensitive

The CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam describes directory traversal as an attack where unvalidated user input allows navigation to system directories, often using sequences like ../ to bypass file path restrictions. This is exactly what is shown in the logs.

File injection (A) would involve inserting malicious files or code, not reading system files.

Privilege escalation (B) requires exploiting a system to gain higher privileges, not just reading files.

Cookie forgery (D) involves manipulating session cookies and does not match the observed behavior.

Because the attacker is using path traversal patterns to access protected files, the correct answer is C. Directory traversal.

An evil twin attack involves setting up a fraudulent Wi-Fi access point that mimics a legitimate one to intercept network traffic or steal credentials. This attack exploits insecure wireless networks and is focused on network infrastructure.

Impersonation, watering hole, and pretexting are social engineering or web-based attacks, not primarily network attacks.

The evil twin attack is a well-known wireless threat discussed under Threats and Vulnerabilities in SY0-701?6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

Data classification is required before implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution because DLP policies depend on identifying and categorizing sensitive data to monitor, block, or encrypt it accordingly.

Data destruction (A) and sanitization (B) remove data, and masking (D) obscures data but classification is foundational for DLP effectiveness.

Data classification is emphasized in Security Program Management and Data Protection topics?6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the web application. Input validation can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which exploit the vulnerability of a web application to execute malicious scripts in the browser of a victim. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and its users. Input validation can be implemented on both the client-side and the server-side, but server-side validation is more reliable and secure. Input validation can use various methods, such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, escaping, encoding, and sanitizing the input data. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 70. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2

VM escape is a vulnerability where an attacker breaks out of a virtual machine guest environment to access the host hypervisor, gaining control over other guests or the host system itself.

Cross-site scripting (A) and SQL injection (B) are application-layer attacks. Race condition (C) is a timing-related vulnerability.

VM escape is a critical threat in virtualized environments discussed under Threats and Vulnerabilities in SY0-701?6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) protects individual devices by monitoring and preventing malicious activity directly on the host. It is ideal for protecting traveling employees’ devices outside the corporate network.

Isolation (A) and segmentation (B) apply to networks, and ACL (Access Control List) (C) restricts network traffic but does not provide host-level protection.

HIPS is emphasized in Security Operations for endpoint protection?6:Chapter 11†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage. Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 7, page 269. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 14.

Encrypting hard drives is a direct implementation of confidentiality, one of the three pillars of the CIA Triad emphasized in CompTIA Security+ SY0-701. Full disk encryption ensures that if a laptop, workstation, or server drive is stolen or accessed without authorization, the data remains unreadable without the decryption key.

This controls unauthorized disclosure and protects sensitive business, financial, and personal information. Drive encryption is widely required for compliance frameworks such as HIPAA, PCI-DSS, and GDPR.

Integrity (A) refers to preventing unauthorized modification of data, which encryption alone does not guarantee. Authentication (B) confirms user identity, such as passwords or biometrics, but is unrelated to data-at-rest protection. Zero Trust (C) is an architectural model requiring constant verification; it is not a control for hard drive encryption.

Since the sole purpose of encrypting storage is to ensure data confidentiality, the correct answer is D.

AnSLA (D)or Service Level Agreement is a formal contract that definesperformance standards, includingresponse times, escalation procedures, uptime guarantees, and other service-related metrics.

This is referenced inDomain 5.2: Explain the importance of managing third-party riskunder“Agreements (e.g., SLA, NDA, MOU/MOA, BPA).”

To identify the exactcommand or input usedduring a SQL injection attack, theapplication log (B)is the most relevant. It records inputs, errors, and processing activities within the application layer.

UnderDomain 2.1, CompTIA emphasizes reviewingapplication logsto detect indicators of malicious activity, includingweb application attackslike SQL injection.

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) platforms enable security teams to automate workflows, prioritize alerts, and manage remediation activities, helping to handle the volume of cloud misconfiguration alerts efficiently.

CASB (A) provides visibility and control for cloud services but is less focused on orchestration. IAM (B) manages identities and permissions, and XDR (D) is extended detection but does not provide workflow automation.

SOAR integration is critical for cloud security operations discussed in Security Operations?6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. References = Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.

When the government bans a vendor, the primary concern for the company’s general counsel is sanctions, which are legal restrictions that prohibit the purchase, use, import, or continued operation of products associated with restricted entities. Security+ SY0-701 stresses that compliance with government regulations and legal mandates is a critical oversight responsibility. Failure to comply may result in severe penalties, including fines, loss of contracting eligibility, and reputational damage.

During a hardware refresh, general counsel will ensure the organization is not violating federal trade sanctions, procurement laws, or export/import restrictions. Even if devices are already purchased, continued use may still violate the sanctions, creating legal liability.

Data sovereignty (B) relates to storage location requirements, not vendor bans. Cost of replacement (C) is an operational and financial concern, not a legal one. Loss of license (D) typically applies to software but is not the primary legal concern tied to a government-issued vendor ban.

Therefore, sanctions are the general counsel’s primary focus.

Detailed Explanation:Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is a key metric in risk management, reflecting the time required to repair a failed component, such as a generator, and restore operations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Business Continuity Metrics"??.

To limit the potential impact on the log-in database in case of a breach, the security team would most likely recommend hashing. Hashing converts passwords into fixed-length strings of characters, which cannot be easily reversed to reveal the original passwords. Even if the database is breached, attackers cannot easily retrieve the actual passwords if they are properly hashed (especially with techniques like salting).

Tokenization is used to replace sensitive data with a token, but it is more common for protecting credit card data than passwords.

Obfuscation is the process of making data harder to interpret but is weaker than hashing for password protection.

Segmentation helps isolate data but doesn't directly protect the contents of the login database??.

Detailed Explanation:

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based activity where stakeholders simulate a security breach scenario to identify gaps in response plans and clarify roles and responsibilities. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Incident Response Planning and Exercises"??.

When investigating abnormal outbound traffic originating from a specific endpoint, endpoint logs are the most appropriate first data source to review. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, endpoint logs provide detailed visibility into process execution, user actions, service creation, network connections initiated by applications, and security agent detections. This context is critical for determining which process initiated the encrypted traffic and why it is using non-standard ports.

Because the traffic is encrypted, packet captures (D) would reveal limited payload information and are more resource-intensive. Endpoint logs can quickly identify suspicious executables, command-line arguments, parent-child process relationships, and persistence mechanisms that indicate malware or command-and-control activity. Modern EDR tools rely heavily on endpoint telemetry for exactly this reason.

Application logs (A) may be useful later but are limited to specific applications. Vulnerability scans (B) identify weaknesses, not active malicious behavior.

Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes starting investigations as close to the suspected source as possible. Since the activity originates from a corporate endpoint, endpoint logs provide the fastest and most relevant confirmation of whether the traffic is malicious.

A site survey is the formal process used to determine the required number, placement, and configuration of wireless access points (APs). Security+ SY0-701 states that site surveys measure RF propagation, identify dead zones, account for building materials, detect interference sources, and evaluate coverage overlap. This information allows network engineers to deploy the fewest APs necessary while still ensuring full coverage.

Although heat maps (C) are generated as a result of a site survey, they are visualization tools—not the actual survey process. A signal locator (A) is not a standardized tool in wireless planning. WPA3 (B) is a wireless security protocol and has no impact on access point planning or coverage optimization.

A full site survey ensures optimal AP placement to balance coverage, performance, and cost—exactly the concern described in the scenario.

Thus, the correct answer is D: Site survey.

Infrastructure as Code (IaC)enables automated provisioning and configuration of infrastructure, making environmentsrepeatable, consistent, and scalable. The ability tobetter manage and replicate configurations (B)ensures that security settings are not missed and reduces misconfigurations.

According to theCompTIA Security+ SY0-701exam objectives underDomain 4.1 (Explain the security implications of different architecture models),IaCprovides the ability to"automatically enforce security controls"and manageconsistent configuration states, reducing human error.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) platforms enforce security policies on mobile devices, including preventing or detecting jailbreaking, which is the act of removing manufacturer restrictions on devices. Jailbroken devices bypass security protections, allow installation of unauthorized apps, expose system files, and greatly increase risk.

Security+ SY0-701 identifies MDM as a key defense for mobile ecosystems, providing controls such as:

Jailbreak/root detection

Remote wipe

App allow/deny lists

Configuration enforcement

Encryption enforcement

TPM (A) is hardware-based protection unrelated to MDM. Buffer overflow (B) and SQL injection (D) are software coding vulnerabilities not affected by mobile device policy enforcement.

Thus, the correct answer is C: Jailbreaking.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and patch management are both examples of preventative and technical controls. MFA prevents unauthorized access by requiring multiple forms of verification, and patch management ensures that systems are protected against vulnerabilities by applying updates. Both of these controls are implemented using technical methods, and they work to prevent security incidents before they occur.

Container image hardening best practices include removing default or unnecessary applications (A) to reduce the attack surface and disabling insecure protocols like Telnet (C) to prevent exploitation. Minimizing software components reduces vulnerabilities and limits potential exploits.

Installing a Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS) (B) is a network security measure, not typically embedded in a container image. Reconfiguring DNS (D), adding an SFTP server (E), or deleting public certificates (F) are unrelated or could disrupt container functionality.

These practices are part of securing containerized environments covered under Security Architecture topics in SY0-701?6:Chapter 10†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization’s network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is specifically designed to detect and prevent unauthorized changes to critical system files, configuration files, registry entries, binaries, and logs. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, FIM creates a cryptographic baseline (usually via hashing) of protected system files. Any attempt to modify, add, or delete protected files immediately triggers an alert, enabling rapid detection of tampering—whether caused by malware, insider threats, or misconfigurations.

NIDS (A) monitors network traffic, not system-level modifications. DLP (B) prevents unauthorized data exfiltration, not system-file tampering. NAC (C) controls device access to the network but does not protect system files.

FIM is a core tool for ensuring system integrity in compliance frameworks such as PCI-DSS, which explicitly requires organizations to monitor critical system files. By preventing unauthorized changes to system-level data and alerting administrators to suspicious activity, FIM provides a strong defensive mechanism against malware, ransomware, and configuration drift.

Thus, FIM is the correct answer.

The administrator is using a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tool, which is designed to identify, monitor, and protect sensitive data. By fingerprinting specific files, DLP ensures that these files cannot be emailed or sent outside the organization without triggering an alert or blocking the action. This is a key feature of DLP systems, which prevent data exfiltration and ensure data security compliance.

SNMP traps are used for network management and monitoring, not data protection.

SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol) is a set of standards for automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, unrelated to file monitoring.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) blocks network-based attacks but does not handle file fingerprinting???.

Data classification is the process of assigning labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact. Different organizations and sectors may have different data classification schemes, but a common one is the following1:

Public: Data that can be freely disclosed to anyone without any harm or risk.

Private: Data that is intended for internal use only and may cause some harm or risk if disclosed.

Confidential: Data that is intended for authorized use only and may cause significant harm or risk if disclosed.

Restricted: Data that is intended for very limited use only and may cause severe harm or risk if disclosed.

In this scenario, the company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. This data is likely to be classified as confidential and restricted, because it is not meant for public or private use, and it may cause serious damage to national security or public safety if disclosed. The government may also have specific requirements or regulations for handling such data, such as encryption, access control, and auditing2. References: 1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17 2: Data Classification Practices: Final Project Description Released

 The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user’s password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication. Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user’s role or identity. Access management © is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References =You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1

Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2

Multi-factor Authentication – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43

TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4

CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5

Steganography is the process of hiding information within another medium, such as an image, audio, video, or text file. The hidden information is not visible or noticeable to the casual observer, and can only be extracted by using a specific technique or key. Steganography can be used for various purposes, such as concealing secret messages, watermarking, or evading detection by antivirus software12

Encryption at rest is a strategy that protects data stored on a device, such as a laptop, by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with a decryption key or password. Encryption at rest can prevent data loss on stolen laptops by preventing unauthorized access to the data, even if the device is physically compromised. Encryption at rest can also help comply with data privacy regulations and standards that require data protection. Masking, data classification, and permission restrictions are other strategies that can help protect data, but they may not be sufficient or applicable for data stored on laptops. Masking is a technique that obscures sensitive data elements, such as credit card numbers, with random characters or symbols, but it is usually used for data in transit or in use, not at rest. Data classification is a process that assigns labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact, but it does not protect the data itself. Permission restrictions are rules that define who can access, modify, or delete data, but they may not prevent unauthorized access if the laptop is stolen and the security controls are bypassed. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17-18, 372-373

You want to place these technologies to reduce attack surface and enable secure protocols for the web architecture.

Suggested placements (following typical best practices for web architectures):

First node after Internet (Inbound Traffic Point):

FirewallControls and filters incoming traffic from the internet to block unwanted access.

Next node (Internal Traffic Control):

RouterRoutes packets inside the network and can apply some filtering.

Next layer (Between router and web infrastructure):

WAF (Web Application Firewall)Protects web servers from attacks like XSS, SQL injection, CSRF, directory traversal by inspecting HTTP/HTTPS traffic.

Web Servers:

Web serverHosts the application.

PKI Certificate:

Applied on the web server or WAF to enable HTTPS and secure protocols (TLS).

Part 2:

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is designed to automate repetitive security tasks, orchestrate workflows, and reduce manual effort in identifying and containing threats. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 describes SOAR as an advanced tool that integrates with SIEM, EDR, firewalls, and ticketing systems to automate detection, enrichment, and response actions.

By using SOAR playbooks, security teams can automate:

Initial threat triage

Log correlation

Host isolation

Indicator lookups

Ticket creation and escalation

This significantly reduces the number of manual steps an analyst must perform, achieving the manager’s goal of streamlining threat-handling procedures.

A SIEM (B) centralizes logs and alerts but still requires manual investigation unless paired with SOAR. DMARC (C) protects email domains from spoofing but does not automate threat response. NIDS (D) detects threats on the network but does not automate containment.

SOAR’s ability to automate identification and response makes A the correct answer.

Many IoT devices connect to the network via wireless access points. Reviewing these logs would reveal when the IoT device first connected, as well as any suspicious or anomalous traffic patterns associated with the exploit’s initiation.

To mitigate the risk of confidential documents being left unattended in Multi-Function Printers (MFPs), implementing an authentication factor that requires in-person action before printing (such as PIN codes or badge scanning) is the most effective measure. This ensures that documents are only printed when the authorized user is present to collect them, reducing the risk of sensitive information being exposed.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of physical security and access control??.

User Behavior Analytics (UBA)is specifically designed to detectanomalous or suspicious behaviorsby users that may indicate insider threats. UBA toolsestablish a baseline of normalbehaviorfor users and alert security teams when deviations occur (e.g., accessing sensitive files at odd hours, downloading large volumes of data, etc.).

Malicious insiders often bypass perimeter defenses like firewalls or IDS/IPS systems because they arelegitimate users. UBA offersvisibility into internal behavior patterns, which is essential for detecting these threats.

Memory injection vulnerabilities allow unauthorized code or commands to be executed within a software program, leading to abnormal behavior such as generating outbound traffic over random high ports. This issue often arises from software not properly validating or encoding input, which can be exploited by attackers to inject malicious code.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

When conducting a forensic analysis after an incident, it's essential to prioritize the data collection process based on the "order of volatility." This principle dictates that more volatile data (e.g., data in memory, network connections) should be captured before less volatile data (e.g., disk drives, logs). The idea is to preserve the most transient and potentially valuable evidence first, as it is more likely to be lost or altered quickly.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations?.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Digital Forensics?.

The log entries show repeated attempts to access directories using patterns such as ../, which is a common directory traversal attack technique. Directory traversal (or path traversal) aims to access files and directories outside the web server's root directory by manipulating file paths. The ../ sequence is used to move up one directory level, which attackers exploit to try and retrieve sensitive files.

 A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts or allows access to data or resources based on the geographic location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can be implemented using various methods, such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, or geofencing. A geolocation policy can help the company’s legal department to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive documents from individuals in high-risk countries12.

The other options are not effective ways to limit access based on location:

Data masking: This is a technique of obscuring or replacing sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data. Data masking can protect the privacy and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location3.

Encryption: This is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect the integrity and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Encryption can also be bypassed by attackers who have the decryption key or method4.

Data sovereignty regulation: This is a set of laws or rules that govern the storage, processing, and transfer of data within a specific jurisdiction or country. Data sovereignty regulation can affect the availability and compliance of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Data sovereignty regulation can also vary depending on the country or region.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Account Policies – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.7, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1004: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 101. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 102.

Active reconnaissance is a type of reconnaissance that involves sending packets or requests to a target and analyzing the responses. Active reconnaissance can reveal information such as open ports, services, operating systems, and vulnerabilities. However, active reconnaissance is also more likely to be detected by the target or its security devices, such as firewalls or intrusion detection systems. Port and service scans are examples of active reconnaissance techniques, as they involve probing the target for specific information. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1: Given a scenario, conduct reconnaissance using appropriate techniques and tools. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Reconnaissance and Intelligence Gathering, page 47. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 1.

AnAPI (B)or Application Programming Interface is the best option when you want toautomate data exchangebetween systems. APIs provide structured, secure, and efficient ways for systems to communicate and are widely used in automation and orchestration tasks.

SOAR (A)is used for broader security orchestration and may use APIs under the hood but is more complex.

SFTP (C)is for manual/automated file transfers.

RDP (D)is for remote desktop access, not data automation.

This is referenced inDomain 1.5: Explain the importance of automation and orchestration in cybersecurityunder“Application programming interfaces (APIs).”

 A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to organizational security. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 4.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

End-of-life (EOL) systems no longer receive security patches, vendor support, or vulnerability updates. Because of this, they are highly susceptible to exploitation, especially if attackers can reach them over a network. When the system is business-critical and cannot be decommissioned, the most effective strategy is isolation, also known as network segmentation, air-gapping, or restrictive network zoning. Isolation removes direct exposure to external and internal threats by limiting communication paths to only essential systems and users.

According to the Security+ SY0-701 guidance, isolating legacy systems helps reduce the attack surface when patching is no longer possible. Monitoring (A) is useful for detection but does not prevent exploitation. Decommissioning (C) would be ideal but is not possible for business-critical systems, as stated in the question. Encryption (D) protects data confidentiality but does not stop an attacker from exploiting vulnerabilities in an unpatched OS or application.

Isolation is a recommended compensating control for legacy and unsupported systems in SY0-701’s Security Architecture & Resilience domain, which emphasizes micro-segmentation, firewalls, and restricted access to minimize risk when systems cannot be replaced or patched.

 Password spraying is a type of brute force attack that tries common passwords across several accounts to find a match. It is a mass trial-and-error approach that can bypass account lockout protocols. It can give hackers access to personal or business accounts and information. It is not a targeted attack, but a high-volume attack tactic that uses a dictionary or a list of popular or weak passwords12.

The logs show that the attacker is using the same password ("password123") to attempt to log in to different accounts ("admin", "user1", "user2", etc.) on the same web server. This is a typical pattern of password spraying, as the attacker is hoping that at least one of the accounts has a weak password that matches the one they are trying. The attacker is also using a tool called Hydra, which is one of the most popular brute force tools, often used in cracking passwords for network authentication3.

Account forgery is not the correct answer, because it involves creating fake accounts or credentials to impersonate legitimate users or entities. There is no evidence of account forgery in the logs, as the attacker is not creating any new accounts or using forged credentials.

Pass-the-hash is not the correct answer, because it involves stealing a hashed user credential and using it to create a new authenticated session on the same network. Pass-the-hash does not require the attacker to know or crack the password, as they use the stored version of the password to initiate a new session4. The logs show that the attacker is using plain text passwords, not hashes, to try to log in to the web server.

Brute-force is not the correct answer, because it is a broader term that encompasses different types of attacks that involve trying different variations of symbols or words until the correct password is found. Password spraying is a specific type of brute force attack that uses a single common password against multiple accounts5. The logs show that the attacker is using password spraying, not brute force in general, to try to gain access to the web server. References = 1: Password spraying: An overview of password spraying attacks … - Norton, 2: Security: Credential Stuffing vs. Password Spraying - Baeldung, 3: Brute ForceAttack: A definition + 6 types to know | Norton, 4: What is a Pass-the-Hash Attack? - CrowdStrike, 5: What is a Brute Force Attack? | Definition, Types & How It Works - Fortinet

Detailed Explanation:

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive surrogate values that retain the necessary format but are meaningless without access to the original data. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Data Masking and Tokenization"??.

Cryptojacking is the likely cause in this scenario. It involves malware that hijacks the resources of infected computers to mine cryptocurrency, usually without the user's knowledge. This type of attack doesn't typically degrade performance significantly or result in obvious system failures, which matches the situation described, where the machines showed no signs of degraded performance or excessive failed logins.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Cryptojacking is covered under types of malware attacks, highlighting its stealthy nature and impact on infected systems??.

A vulnerability scan is the most effective method for identifying legacy systems within an environment. Vulnerability scanners assess hosts for outdated operating systems, unsupported software versions, missing patches, deprecated services, and known Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs). CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights vulnerability scanning as a foundational security operation used to gain visibility into system age, patch status, and configuration weaknesses.

Legacy systems often stand out in scan results because they run end-of-life operating systems, use deprecated protocols, or lack current security updates. These indicators allow security teams to quickly flag systems that require isolation, compensating controls, or replacement.

Bug bounty programs (A) rely on external researchers and are not designed to inventory internal assets. Package monitoring (C) tracks software behavior and changes but does not identify system age or support status. Dynamic analysis (D) evaluates running applications for vulnerabilities, not infrastructure lifecycle status.

Because vulnerability scans provide broad visibility into system versions and supportability, the correct answer is B: Vulnerability scan.

The most important security concern when using legacy systems is the lack of vendor support. Without support from the vendor, systems may not receive critical security patches and updates, leaving them vulnerable to exploitation. This lack of support can result in increased risk of security breaches, as vulnerabilities discovered in the software may never be addressed.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the context of risk management and the challenges posed by legacy systems??.

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) enables organizations to automate the provisioning, configuration, and deployment of servers through machine-readable scripts rather than manual processes. SY0-701 emphasizes IaC as a key component of DevOps and secure deployment pipelines. By using IaC, server builds become repeatable, standardized, version-controlled, and much faster.

This directly addresses the company's goals:

Better control: IaC ensures predictable, consistent configuration across all servers.

Standardization: Scripts eliminate drift by applying identical configurations.

Lower build time: Automation significantly accelerates server creation and eliminates manual intervention.

IoT (A) refers to Internet-connected smart devices and is unrelated to server deployment. PaaS (C) offers development platforms but does not automate infrastructure builds. ICS (D) refers to industrial control systems, not IT server architecture.

Therefore, the only correct architecture that meets all objectives is IaC, a foundational technology for modern automated infrastructure.

The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is a technology designed to check the revocation status of digital certificates in real-time without requiring the client to download entire revocation lists. Unlike Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are periodically updated and can be large, OCSP queries an OCSP responder to receive the status of a specific certificate.

OCSP is considered passive verification because it allows clients to check a certificate's current validity status on-demand without maintaining local copies of revocation data. The OCSP responder returns whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or expired.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is hardware for secure key storage, and Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request for certificate issuance; neither is used for verifying certificate expiration status.

The differences and roles of OCSP and CRLs are thoroughly covered in the Cryptography and PKI chapter of the SY0-701, where OCSP is highlighted as the more efficient and real-time method to verify certificate status passively?6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

A responsibility matrix clarifies the division of responsibilities between the cloud service provider (CSP) and the customer, ensuring that each party understands and implements their respective security controls.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content?.

Attempting to enter an unauthorized area using an access badge during a penetration test is an example of a physical test. This type of test evaluates the effectiveness of physical security controls, such as access badges, security guards, and locks, in preventing unauthorized access to restricted areas.

Defensive and offensive testing typically refer to digital or network-based penetration testing strategies.

Passive testing involves observing or monitoring but not interacting with the environment??.

Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability, scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud infrastructure. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 3491

Because the organization plans to deploy high-powered wireless access points, the next critical step is to create a heat map of the building perimeter. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights wireless heat maps as an essential design tool for identifying signal bleed, coverage overlap, dead zones, and areas where wireless signals extend beyond intended boundaries.

Stronger access points increase the risk of signal leakage outside the building, which could allow unauthorized users to attempt connections from parking lots or nearby buildings. A heat map enables the security team to visualize RF propagation and adjust power levels, antenna placement, and access point locations to minimize external exposure while maintaining internal coverage.

Deploying IPSec tunnels (B) is unnecessary for standard WLAN architectures. Enabling WPA2-PSK (C) weakens security compared to WPA3. Disabling SSH administration (D) is a hardening step but does not address wireless coverage risks.

Therefore, the correct next step in secure Wi-Fi design is A: Create a heat map of the building perimeter.

A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. A DRP typically includes the following elements:

A risk assessment that identifies the potential threats and impacts to the organization’s critical assets and processes.

A business impact analysis that prioritizes the recovery of the most essential functions and data.

A recovery strategy that defines the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team, the resources and tools needed, and the steps to follow to restore the system.

A testing and maintenance plan that ensures the DRP is updated and validated regularly. A DRP is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure, as it provides a clear and structured framework for recovering from a disaster and minimizing the downtime and data loss. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325.

Side loading is the process of installing applications from unofficial sources, often bypassing standard app stores. This increases the risk of installing malicious software, such as a rootkit, which is a type of malware designed to provide persistent privileged access while hiding its presence.

Deploying a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution allows for efficient log aggregation, correlation, and analysis across an organization’s infrastructure, providing real-time security insights.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content?, Security+ SY0-601 Book?.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Operating system (OS) vulnerabilitiescan allow attackers to exploit system functions that affect multiple applications, leading towidespread compromise.

B (patch cycle concerns)is valid but not the primary concern—many OS vendors provide regular patches.

C (user trust in OS features)is a risk, but the more significant issue is thatOS vulnerabilities often affect multiple system components.

D (ease of exploitation)is not always true, as application and human-related vulnerabilities can be equally exploitable.

Thus,the main concern is that an OS exploit can impact multiple system functions, leading to broader security risks.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. EDR can help to detect and prevent malicious software, such as viruses, malware, and Trojans, from infecting the endpoints and spreading across the network. EDR can also provide visibility and response capabilities to contain and remediate threats. EDR is different from IDS, which is a network-based technology that monitors and alerts on network traffic anomalies. EDR is also different from ACL, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources. EDR is also different from NAC, which is a technology that enforces policies on the network access of devices based on their identity and compliance status. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 2561

Detailed Explanation:Proper data sanitization ensures that sensitive data is securely erased from storage devices, preventing unauthorized access or recovery when the devices are disposed of or reused. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Data Sanitization and Disposal Methods"??.

Tokenization replaces sensitive financial data—such as credit card numbers, account numbers, or customer identifiers—with harmless tokens that retain usability but reveal nothing if leaked. This is widely used in the financial industry, particularly in PCI-DSS-regulated systems.

Hashing (B) is one-way and not reversible, making it unsuitable for financial transactions that need original data retrieved. Salting (C) is used to protect hashed passwords, not to mask financial data. Steganography (D) hides data inside media files but is not used for payment processing.

Security+ SY0-701 identifies tokenization as the preferred method for protecting structured sensitive data while maintaining operational functionality.

Thus, the correct answer is A: Tokenization.

The most appropriate method is to use aGroup Policy Object (GPO) with time-of-day restrictions (A). This is a native capability in Windows environments that allows administrators to controlwhen users are allowed to log into domain-joined systems.

This aligns withDomain 3.1: Given a scenario, apply identity and access management (IAM) concepts, especially under“Access controls (e.g., time-based restrictions, GPOs, least privilege).”

Port security is the best solution to prevent unauthorized devices, like a visitor's laptop, from connecting to the company’s network. Port security can limit the number of devices that can connect to a network switch port and block unauthorized MAC addresses, effectively stopping unauthorized access attempts.

Web application firewall (WAF) protects against web-based attacks, not unauthorized network access.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) ensures encrypted communication but does not manage physical network access.

Virtual Private Network (VPN) secures remote connections but does not control access through physical network ports???.

Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.

Validating the code signature is the best way to verify software authenticity, as it ensures that the software has not been tampered with and that it comes from a verified source. Code signatures are digital signatures applied by the software vendor, and validating them confirms the software's integrity and origin.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems commonly manage industrial equipment, including PLCs (Programmable Logic Controllers). Historically, SCADA environments often lack encryption for management traffic due to legacy equipment and protocols. This makes SCADA the most likely environment where unencrypted PLC management traffic can be observed.

A diagram of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Step 1: Understand Requirements & Security Principles

Requirements:

Customer-facing payment application (PCI DSS compliance applies)

Hosted on third-party cloud (e.g., AWS)

Must segment public-facing and internal resources

Needs to be scalable and resilient

Must have strong security controls

Step 2: Design the High-Level Network Layout

Core Components:

VPC (Virtual Private Cloud): Isolates your environment from other tenants in the cloud.

Subnets:

Public subnet: For resources that must communicate with the internet.

Private subnet: For internal resources, NOT directly exposed to the internet.

Step 3: Place Resources in Appropriate Subnets

Public Subnet:

Internet-facing Load Balancer (LB): Distributes traffic to application servers.

Web Application Firewall (WAF): Protects against web exploits.

Autoscaling Instances: EC2 (or VM) servers running your web front-end, automatically scaling as traffic grows.

Private Subnet:

Application servers: Back-end logic, not exposed to internet directly.

Database: Sensitive data storage, only accessible by application servers.

Internal Load Balancer: Manages traffic among app servers.

WAF: Can be used internally as well for defense-in-depth.

Step 4: Add Connectivity and Security Controls

Internet Gateway: Allows resources in public subnet to communicate with the internet.

NAT Gateway: Allows outbound internet traffic from private subnet without exposing private IPs.

Security Groups: Firewalls at the instance level; allow only necessary traffic (e.g., LB to web server, web server to DB).

Network ACLs: Subnet-level firewalls for additional control.

Step 5: Network Diagram Explanation (Based on Your Images)

Public Subnet (Top Layer)

Load Balancer

Accepts HTTPS traffic from customers.

Sends only necessary HTTP/HTTPS to web servers in public subnet.

WAF (Web Application Firewall)

Sits in front of Load Balancer.

Filters malicious requests (SQLi, XSS, etc.).

Autoscaling Group

Multiple web servers for redundancy and scalability.

Placed in public subnet to respond to traffic spikes.

Private Subnet (Bottom Layer)

Application Servers

Receive requests from public subnet’s load balancer.

Not directly exposed to the internet.

Database

Only accessible from application servers, never public.

Security groups restrict all inbound traffic except from app servers.

Internal Load Balancer

Balances requests to application servers.

Step 6: Flow of Data (Step-by-Step)

Client -> Internet Gateway -> WAF -> Load Balancer (Public Subnet):Customers initiate connections to your app over the internet.

Load Balancer -> Autoscaling Web Servers (Public Subnet):Load balancer routes requests to available web servers.

Web Servers -> Application Logic (Private Subnet):Web servers pass necessary requests to the internal application servers.

App Servers -> Database (Private Subnet):Application servers query/update customer payment data in the database.

Outbound (NAT Gateway):App servers may need to access updates or external APIs—use NAT Gateway for secure outbound connections.

Step 7: Security Best Practices

Security Groups: Only allow necessary ports (e.g., 443 for HTTPS to LB, 3306 for MySQL between app server and DB).

Network ACLs: Add another layer of subnet-level restrictions.

Encryption: Use HTTPS for all external connections, encrypt data at rest and in transit (TLS, disk encryption).

IAM Roles/Policies: Principle of least privilege for accessing resources.

Monitoring/Logging: Enable VPC flow logs, cloud service logs, and application logging.

Patch Management: Automate patching for OS and applications.

Backups: Regular, secure backups of critical data.

Step 8: Compliance Considerations

For payment applications (PCI DSS):

Isolate cardholder data environment (CDE).

Strong access controls (multi-factor authentication, role separation).

Regular vulnerability assessments and penetration testing.

Retain logs for auditing.

Step 9: Draw the Architecture (Summary)

Internet Gateway: Allows inbound/outbound internet access.

Public Subnet: WAF, Load Balancer, Autoscaling group.

Private Subnet: App servers, DB, internal LB.

NAT Gateway: Outbound access for private resources.

Security Groups/ACLs: Control all traffic flows.

Monitoring/Logging: Enabled at all levels.

Bonus: Sample Security Group Rules

Web Server (Public Subnet):

Inbound: 443 (HTTPS) from Internet

Outbound: 80/443 to App Servers

App Server (Private Subnet):

Inbound: 80/443 from Web Servers

Outbound: 3306 (MySQL) to Database

Database (Private Subnet):

Inbound: 3306 from App Servers

Outbound: None (unless replication required)

References to Security+ Domains

1.0 General Security Concepts: Principle of least privilege, defense in depth.

2.0 Threats, Vulnerabilities, Mitigations: WAF, segmentation, patching.

3.0 Security Architecture: Network segmentation, secure design.

4.0 Security Operations: Monitoring, logging, response.

5.0 Security Program Management: Compliance, policy.

After listing authorized email servers in DNS using SPF, the next protocol the company should apply is DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). DKIM provides cryptographic assurance that email messages have not been altered in transit and that they were legitimately sent by the domain owner. Security+ SY0-701 explains that DKIM works by digitally signing outgoing emails using a private key, which recipient servers verify using a public key stored in DNS.

SPF validates where an email is sent from, but it does not protect message integrity. DKIM complements SPF by ensuring the message content is authentic, which significantly improves email reputation and reduces spam filtering issues.

DMARC (A) builds on SPF and DKIM but requires both to be in place first. DLP (B) prevents data leakage and is unrelated to email reputation. SPF (D) was already applied, as stated in the question.

Thus, the correct next step is C: DKIM.

Before applying any updates or patches to a production VM, especially one with a 99% uptime SLA, it is crucial to first take a snapshot of the VM. This snapshot serves as a backup that can be quickly restored in case the update causes any issues, ensuring that the system can be returned to its previous state without violating the SLA. This step mitigates risk and is a standard best practice in change management for critical systems.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, focusing on change management and backup strategies??.

A false positive is an alert that incorrectly identifies benign activity as malicious. Over time, if an alerting system generates too many false positives, security teams are likely to ignore these alerts, resulting in "alert fatigue." This increases the risk of missing genuine threats.

True positives and true negatives are accurate and should be acted upon.

False negatives are more dangerous because they fail to identify real threats, but they are not "ignored" since they do not trigger alerts??.

Risk identificationis the first step in the risk management process, where potential threats and vulnerabilities are analyzed to understand their impact on an organization. This includesidentifying assets, evaluating threats, and assessing potential vulnerabilities.

Risk mitigation: Reducing risk by implementing controls.

Risk treatment: Determining how to handle identified risks.

Risk monitoring and review: Ongoing evaluation of risk controls.

Detailed Explanation:COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled) devices allow companies to manage and harden company-owned devices while still enabling limited personal use, reducing security risks while maintaining compatibility with corporate resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Mobile Device Deployment Models"??.

Upgrading end-of-support operating systemsisone of the most effective ways to reduce the attack surface. Unsupported OS versionsno longer receive security patches, making them prime targets for attackers.Removing outdated softwareensures that known vulnerabilities cannot be exploited.

A (honeynet)is used for threat analysis, not reducing the attack surface.

B (Group Policy)helps enforce security policies butdoes not address outdated vulnerabilities.

C (High availability)focuses on uptime, not security risk reduction.

The file left by the external vendor, containing detailed architecture information and code snippets, is best described as proprietary data. Proprietary data is information that is owned by a company and is essential to its competitive advantage. It includes sensitive business information such as trade secrets, intellectual property, and confidential data that should be protected from unauthorized access.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of data classification and protection??.

Hashing is the correct mechanism for ensuring that a software release has not been modified prior to reaching the end user. Hashing provides integrity verification by generating a fixed-length digest (such as SHA-256) from the original software package. When users download the software, they can compute the hash locally and compare it to the hash value published by the vendor. If the values match, the software has not been altered; if they differ, tampering or corruption has occurred.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes hashing as a core cryptographic control used to verify integrity for files, updates, patches, and software distributions. Hashing is extremely sensitive to change—altering even a single bit in the file results in a completely different hash value.

Encryption (B) protects confidentiality, not integrity. Tokenization (A) replaces sensitive data with tokens and is unrelated to software integrity. Obfuscation (D) makes code harder to read but does not guarantee it has not been modified.

Therefore, hashing is the most appropriate and reliable method to ensure software integrity before release.

The best first step is to reviewpatching (A). Outdated OS versions often contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited by malware. Ensuring systems are up-to-date is a foundational cybersecurity practice.

This is highlighted inDomain 2.1: Given a scenario, analyze indicators of malicious activityandDomain 2.2, emphasizing the importance of“Patching” as part of system hardening and mitigation strategy.

The right to be forgotten refers to an individual’s legal right, under regulations such as GDPR, to request the deletion of all personal data held about them by an organization. This gives individuals control over their digital footprint and privacy.

An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage. However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware, or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 9: Network Security, page 449 1

Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non-repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Availability is the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373

End-of-life operating systems are those that are no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, meaning they do not receive any security updates or patches. This makes them vulnerable to exploits and attacks that take advantage of known or unknown flaws in the software. Patch availability is the security implication of using end-of-life operating systems, as it affects the ability to fix or prevent security issues. Other factors, such as product software compatibility, ease of recovery, or cost of replacement, are not directly related to security, but rather to functionality, availability, or budget. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 29 1

Detailed Explanation:A simulated failover tests the disaster recovery site's ability to handle a full transition of services. This ensures all systems can function as expected during an actual disaster. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Planning"??.

The correct answer is Wired because Network Access Control (NAC) platforms are primarily designed to control and secure access to an organization’s wired and wireless network infrastructure, with a strong emphasis on enforcing policies at the point where devices connect to the network. In the context of the Security+ SY0-701 objectives, NAC is a key architectural control used to reduce attack surface by preventing unauthorized, unmanaged, or noncompliant devices from gaining network access.

A NAC solution works by authenticating and evaluating devices before granting them access to network resources. This commonly includes checking device identity, credentials, patch levels, antivirus status, and compliance with security policies. For wired networks, NAC enforces controls at switch ports using technologies such as 802.1X, ensuring that only approved devices can connect to internal networks. This directly protects the wired attack surface by stopping threats like rogue devices, compromised laptops, or unauthorized systems from plugging into an Ethernet port and gaining access.

Option A, Bluetooth, is incorrect because NAC platforms do not directly manage short-range personal area network technologies. Option C, NFC, is also incorrect because NFC is typically used for proximity-based authentication or payments and is outside the scope of NAC enforcement. Option D, SCADA, refers to industrial control systems, which require specialized security controls and are not the primary target of standard enterprise NAC solutions.

The SY0-701 study guide highlights NAC as a preventive and detective control that supports zero trust principles by verifying devices before allowing access. By securing the wired network attack surface, NAC significantly reduces lateral movement opportunities and limits the impact of compromised or unauthorized endpoints following a security incident.

When multiple Wireless Access Points (WAPs) are using similar frequencies with high power settings, it can cause channel overlap, leading to interference and connectivity issues. This is likely the reason why mobile users are unable to access the internet in the lobby. Evaluating and adjusting the channel settings on the WAPs to avoid overlap is crucial to resolving the connectivity problems.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domain on Wireless and Mobile Security, which covers WLAN deployment considerations??.

Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data, such as credit card information, with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that can be used in place of the actual data. This technique is particularly useful in securely storing payment information because the token can be safely stored and transmitted without exposing the original credit card number.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture?.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Data Protection?.

The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have the appropriate permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid this issue by granting the user or process the necessary access rights for the patching activity. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 931

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a formal document between a service provider and a client that defines the expected level of service, including what resources will be provided and the agreed-upon time frames. It typically includes metrics to evaluate performance, uptime guarantees, and response times.

MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) and MOA (Memorandum of Agreement) are less formal and may not specify the exact level of service.

BPA (Business Partners Agreement) focuses more on the long-term relationship between partners??.

Acknowledgement and attestationinvolveformal confirmationthat an application is no longer in scope for compliance, auditing, or reporting requirements. This typically includes documentation signed by relevant stakeholders confirming that the software no longer processes, stores, or transmits relevant data.

Data inventory and retention (A)is related to managing data assets, not software scope confirmation.

Right to be forgotten (B)pertains toprivacy laws (e.g., GDPR), allowing individuals to request data deletion.

Due care and due diligence (C)focus on security best practices rather than software applicability.

Failure to comply with right-to-be-forgotten (data privacy) regulations can lead to significant fines imposed by regulatory authorities like GDPR enforcers. Such laws require companies to delete personal data upon user request.

Data breaches (B) are security incidents; revenue loss (C) and blackmail (D) may occur indirectly but fines are the direct legal consequence.

Regulatory compliance and consequences are critical topics in Security Program Management?6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules or signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132.

Tokenization is widely used in the financial industry to mask sensitive information such as credit card numbers, bank account details, or payment tokens. Tokenization replaces sensitive data with harmless surrogate values (tokens) that maintain format and usability but reveal nothing if intercepted.

Security+ SY0-701 highlights tokenization as a preferred method for PCI-DSS-regulated environments because:

It reduces exposure of actual sensitive data

It lowers compliance scope

Tokens can be mapped back to real data only through a secure token vault

It prevents attackers from accessing meaningful information

Hashing (B) is one-way and cannot be reversed, making it unsuitable for financial transactions that require retrieving original values. Salting (C) enhances password hashing security but does not mask data. Steganography (D) hides data inside images or media files, not used for structured data protection.

Thus, the correct answer is A: Tokenization.

Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods. Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router’s settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs). References: CCNA SEC: Router Hardening Your Router’s Security Stinks: Here’s How to Fix It

Installing a host-based content filtering solution on the endpoints ensures that web traffic is filtered locally even when the VPN connection to the on-premises proxy fails, maintaining protection for remote users.

Network access control (A) manages device network access, local gateway configuration (B) does not solve protection if VPN fails, and public NAT (C) exposes internal resources and increases risk.

Endpoint filtering complements VPN for resilient web security, covered in Security Architecture and Operations?6:Chapter 11†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

Automatically generating WAF rules when applications are deployed is a hallmark of Infrastructure as Code (IaC). IaC allows infrastructure components—including firewalls, WAF policies, and load balancers—to be defined and deployed via code templates rather than manual configuration. In DevSecOps, IaC enables security controls to be embedded into deployment pipelines, ensuring that protections such as WAF rules are created instantly and consistently whenever new application versions are released.

Security+ SY0-701 highlights IaC as a method for automating infrastructure provisioning, standardizing security controls, and reducing configuration drift. This allows development and security teams to collaborate more effectively by treating security policies as code.

IoT (B) refers to smart devices, IoC (C) refers to indicators of compromise, and IaaS (D) refers to cloud compute infrastructure—not automated security policy creation.

Thus, the correct answer is A: IaC.

A cold site is a backup facility that provides basic power, space, and environmental controls but does not include hardware or preconfigured systems. It is the organization’s responsibility to ensure the site has adequate storage, servers, and equipment staged or available for rapid procurement.

If the cold site “does not have enough storage and computers,” the cause is a failure in capacity planning (A). CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights the need for organizations to determine:

Required compute capacity

Storage needs

Network bandwidth

Expected recovery workload

Hardware replacement timelines

Load balancing (B) distributes traffic; it has nothing to do with cold-site readiness. Backups (C) store data, not physical resources. Platform diversity (D) refers to using multiple technologies to reduce systemic risk.

The issue is specifically the lack of resources, which directly reflects inadequate capacity planning. Therefore, A is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Air-gapped because this architecture deliberately isolates systems from external and internal networks to prevent any direct electronic communication. In the Security+ SY0-701 domain of Security Architecture, air-gapped environments are used to achieve the highest level of protection against network-based threats by physically or logically separating critical systems from untrusted networks such as the internet or even the organization’s internal network.

In this scenario, the CIO requires that network devices cannot connect to the public internet or the local network for firmware updates, and that updates must be performed manually using a portable device. This is a defining characteristic of an air-gapped architecture. Air-gapped systems rely on controlled, manual transfer methods—such as USB drives or other removable media—to introduce updates, ensuring that malware, remote exploits, and supply-chain-based network attacks cannot reach the isolated systems through traditional network paths.

Option A, Microservices, refers to an application design model where software is built as loosely coupled services and does not address physical or logical network isolation. Option C, Software-defined networking, focuses on centralized and programmable network control, not network disconnection. Option D, Serverless, is a cloud computing model where infrastructure management is abstracted away from developers and is incompatible with isolated, offline environments.

The SY0-701 study guide highlights air-gapped architectures as common in high-security environments such as industrial control systems, military systems, financial infrastructure, and environments requiring maximum protection against zero-day exploits and remote compromise. While air-gapping introduces operational overhead and update delays, it significantly reduces attack surface and exposure to external threats.

In summary, an architecture that requires manual updates via portable media and prevents any direct network connectivity is best described as air-gapped, making option B the correct answer.

Detailed Explanation:Avoidance involves choosing not to engage in activities or markets where certain risks are present. This is a proactive approach to risk management. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Risk Management Strategies"??.

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based simulation where incident response (IR) team members walk through hypothetical security scenarios to understand roles, responsibilities, escalation paths, and communication processes. According to Security+ SY0-701, tabletop exercises are ideal for familiarizing participants with the incident response process and improving organizational readiness without the pressure or resource demands of full-scale simulations.

These exercises highlight:

IR workflow clarity

Decision-making processes

Coordination between technical and non-technical teams

Communication procedures

Identification of gaps in policies or documentation

Option B (rules of engagement) is part of penetration testing planning, not tabletop exercises. Option C refers to real breach analysis, not simulations. Option D refers to forensic operations, not tabletop objectives.

Thus, A is correct.

Data sovereignty concerns the laws and governance that apply to data at rest outside of a country’s borders. It refers to the legal implications and regulatory controls over where data is stored geographically.

Systems that control physical industrial processes—such as pumping gas, water control, electrical grids, or manufacturing lines—fall under SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) environments. SCADA systems are part of larger OT (Operational Technology) infrastructures and manage sensors, actuators, valves, flow controls, and telemetry.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 explains that SCADA environments typically:

Use legacy protocols (e.g., Modbus, DNP3)

Require high availability

Often run outdated operating systems

Have control systems that cannot easily be patched

Require specialized segmentation and monitoring

This exactly matches the scenario describing a “specialized legacy platform controlling gas flow inside pipes.”

IaaS (A) is cloud infrastructure and unrelated to industrial control. SDN (C) relates to software-defined networking, not physical industrial controls. IoT (D) includes smart devices but is not typically used for large-scale industrial gas control.

Thus, securing SCADA is the correct answer.

The company should implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to integrate the vendor's security tool with their existing user directory. SAML is an open standard that allows identity providers (IdP) to pass authorization credentials to service providers (SP), enabling Single Sign-On (SSO). This allows the company to use its existing directory services for authentication, avoiding the need to manage a separate set of user credentials for the new tool.

Since the logs on the endpoint were deleted, the next best option for the analyst is to examine firewall logs. Firewall logs can reveal external communication, including outbound traffic to a command-and-control (C2) server. These logs would contain information about the IP addresses, ports, and protocols used, which can help in identifying suspicious connections.

IPS logs may provide information about network intrusions, but firewall logs are better for tracking communication patterns.

ACL logs (Access Control List) are useful for tracking access permissions but not for identifying C2 communication.

Windows security logs would have been ideal if they had not been deleted

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. Federation relies on a trusted third party that stores the user’s credentials and provides them to the requested resources or services without exposing them. Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create passwords that meet certain criteria, such as length, character types, and uniqueness. Password complexity can help prevent brute-force attacks, password guessing, and credential stuffing by making passwords harder to crack or guess. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 and 312-313 1

The presence of another device providing internet access that bypasses the content filtering system indicates the existence of a rogue access point. Rogue access points are unauthorized devices that can create a backdoor into the network, allowing users to bypass security controls like content filtering. This presents a significant security risk as it can expose the network to unauthorized access and potential data breaches.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Rogue access points are highlighted as a major security risk, allowing unauthorized access to the network and bypassing security measures??.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows administrators to configure, update, monitor, and push applications or features to company-provided mobile devices remotely and quickly. The requirement to restore missing features within 48 hours means IT needs centralized control and fast deployment—capabilities MDM provides.

With MDM, IT can:

Push required apps

Reconfigure devices

Enforce security policies

Restore missing features

Update OS and settings remotely

COPE (B) relates to ownership and usage policy, not configuration management. EDR (A) protects against malware but cannot restore missing productivity features. FDE (D) encrypts storage and is unrelated to application availability.

MDM is the only option allowing rapid, centralized remediation.

Thus, C is correct.

Host isolation ensures that a device cannot communicate with other systems on the network. Isolation is typically applied through EDR/XDR tools, quarantine mechanisms, or endpoint firewalls. Security+ SY0-701 identifies host isolation as a containment technique used when:

A device is suspected of compromise

Lateral movement must be prevented

Sensitive systems must be protected

A system must be completely cut off except for administrative access

Isolation enforces an immediate block on all inbound and outbound communications, effectively making the device inaccessible to any network-based resource.

Disablement of unused services (A) reduces attack surface but does not isolate the device.

A WAF (B) protects web applications, not device access.

A network IDS (D) only monitors traffic and does not block access.

Thus, C: Host isolation is the correct answer.

The scenario describes an attacker who obtained credentials from a compromised system's memory and used them without cracking to move laterally within the network. This technique is known as a "pass-the-hash" attack, where the attacker captures hashed credentials (e.g., NTLM hashes) and uses them to authenticate and gain access to other systems without needing to know the plaintext password. This is a common attack method in environments where weak security practices or outdated protocols are in use.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course discusses credential-based attacks like pass-the-hash, emphasizing their impact and the importance of protecting credential stores??.

A cryptographic vulnerability refers to weaknesses caused by the use of outdated or insecure cryptographic algorithms, protocols, or keys. These vulnerabilities make it easier for attackers to compromise encrypted data or communications. Use of deprecated ciphers or insufficient key lengths are typical examples.

A tabletop exercise is the most effective way to quickly assess a cybersecurity team’s readiness to respond to a threat scenario. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 describes tabletop exercises as discussion-based simulations where incident response team members walk through a realistic scenario to evaluate procedures, decision-making, communication, and coordination. These exercises are specifically designed to be conducted in a short timeframe while still providing meaningful insight into preparedness.

Executing a tabletop exercise allows management to observe how the team identifies threats, escalates incidents, assigns roles, and follows the incident response plan. Documenting performance results helps formalize findings, identify gaps, and improve playbooks and procedures without the complexity of a live incident or full-scale simulation.

Option A is informal and does not test real-time decision-making. Option B focuses on vulnerability discovery, not response readiness. Option D can be effective but is time-consuming and not suited for rapid assessment.

Therefore, C: Execute a tabletop exercise and document the performance results is the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

AnEndpoint Detection and Response (EDR)solution is designed tomonitor, detect, and respond to security incidents on endpoints (such as workstations and servers). Itcollects and analyzes data, detecting suspicious activity and forwarding relevant information for further investigation.

Network Access Control (NAC) (A)enforces network access policies but does not analyze security threats on hosts.

Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) (B)detect and block network threats but do not provide deep endpoint analytics.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) (C)aggregates logs and provides security analytics but lacks direct endpoint detection and response capabilities.

EDR is the best choicefor analyzing and responding to endpoint security incidents.

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based simulation in which stakeholders review and talk through their roles, responsibilities, and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. This allows participants to evaluate and improve response plans without actual disruption.

Change management is the formal process designed to control, document, approve, and track modifications to systems, internal processes, assets, and security controls. This control mechanism helps prevent unauthorized or unintended changes that could introduce vulnerabilities or disrupt operations.

Playbooks are documented procedures for responding to incidents, incident response manages security incidents, and acceptable use policies define acceptable user behavior but do not directly control changes.

By enforcing proper change management, organizations maintain the integrity and security of their infrastructure, which is a critical topic covered in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of SY0-701?6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?

A tabletop exercise is a simulation-based activity where incident response team members and relevant stakeholders walk through a hypothetical security incident in a discussion-based format. This exercise helps validate response plans, roles, and communication channels without actual system disruption.

Lessons learned (A) is a post-incident review, digital forensics (B) is evidence collection after an incident, and root cause analysis (D) investigates the underlying cause after an event.

Tabletop exercises are standard practices within the Security Operations domain to prepare teams for real incidents?6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of using code and automation to manage and provision cloud resources, such as servers, networks, storage, and applications. IaC allows for easy deployment, scalability, consistency, and repeatability of cloud environments. IaC is also a key component of DevSecOps, which integrates security into the development and operations processes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts, page 294.

An image backup, also known as a full system backup, captures the entire contents of a system, including the operating system, applications, settings, and all data. This type of backup allows for a complete recovery of the system in case of a disaster, as it includes everything needed to restore the system to its previous state. This makes it the ideal choice for a systems administrator who needs to ensure the ability to recover the entire system, including the OS.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, domain on Security Operations??.

Detailed Explanation:Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses SMS text messages to deceive recipients into taking actions such as revealing sensitive information. The urgency in the text indicates this vector. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Social Engineering Techniques"??.

RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario asRBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 133 1

Adding a random string of characters, known as a "salt," to a password before hashing it is known as salting. This technique strengthens passwords by ensuring that even if two users have the same password, their hashes will be different due to the unique salt, making it much harder for attackers to crack passwords using precomputed tables.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.

References

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671

CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512

Zero Trust architecture is based on the principle of "never trust, always verify," meaning all traffic between systems must be authenticated and authorized before communication is allowed, regardless of network location.

Policy enforcement (A) is important but broader. Authentication (B) is a component of Zero Trust, and confidentiality (D) refers to data protection, not access validation.

Zero Trust is a modern security framework emphasized in Security Architecture for securing enterprise environments?6:Chapter 3†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1.

An air gap is the practice of physically isolating a secure network from any external or unsecured networks, effectively preventing any external communication or data leakage. It is the strongest method to prevent data exfiltration in sensitive environments.

Containerization (B) and virtualization (C) are technologies for isolating applications or systems logically but do not guarantee physical separation. Decentralization (D) distributes resources but doesn’t prevent data leakage.

Air gaps are critical in highly secure environments and covered under Resilience and Physical Security in SY0-701?6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

An Access Control List (ACL) is a technical mechanism used to explicitly define permissions for files, folders, or other resources. ACLs specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects and what operations are allowed on given objects. This allows the administrator to centrally and granularly manage file permissions for a group or team.

Job rotation is a security control that involves regularly moving employees to different roles within an organization. This practice helps prevent incidents where a single employee has too much control or knowledge about a specific job function, reducing the risk of disruption when an employee leaves. It also helps in identifying any hidden issues or undocumented processes that could cause problems after an employee's departure.

To establish an encrypted connection (such as HTTPS/TLS) with an externally facing web server, the server must deploy a public key as part of its digital certificate. Clients use the server’s public key to initiate secure communication, which is validated by certificate authorities. The server holds the matching private key, but it is the public key that must be made available for encrypted connections to be established.

Hashing is the process of converting plaintext passwords into a fixed-length, irreversible string using a mathematical algorithm (hash function). This makes each password unique based on its content, and even a small change in the password will produce a different hash. The primary purpose is to ensure that the actual passwords are not stored directly and cannot be easily recovered from the hash, even if the hash is compromised.

Detailed Explanation:Privileged access management (PAM) solutions effectively mitigate pass-the-hash attacks by enforcing least privilege and session management for administrative accounts. These tools restrict how and when credentials can be accessed, thereby reducing attack surfaces. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Vulnerabilities, Section: "Mitigation Techniques"??.

SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol) is designed to automate vulnerability management, configuration assessment, and compliance checking. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, SCAP standardizes how vulnerability information is expressed, measured, and shared, allowing security tools to automatically scan systems, identify weaknesses, and assess compliance against predefined baselines.

SCAP integrates multiple standards such as CVE, CVSS, CPE, and XCCDF, enabling automated vulnerability scanning, scoring, and reporting across large environments. This makes it a core technology for continuous vulnerability management and compliance automation.

CVE (A) is a catalog of known vulnerabilities, not an automation framework. OSINT (C) provides publicly available intelligence but does not automate remediation or assessment. CVSS (D) provides severity scoring but does not automate vulnerability management.

Because SCAP enables automated identification, assessment, and reporting of vulnerabilities, the correct answer is B: SCAP.

Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 512 1

Compliance attestation (B)ensures that devices meetpredefined security policies(e.g., encryption enabled, updated antivirus, latest OS patches) before being allowed access to corporate resources. This is commonly enforced usingMobile Device Management (MDM)systems.

By using compliance checks via MDM, only secure,policy-compliantdevices are promoted from quarantine to trusted network segments.

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) defines the expectations between service providers and customers, including response times, escalation procedures, and performance metrics. It ensures accountability and measurable service quality.

BPA (Blanket Purchase Agreement) relates to purchasing terms, MOA (Memorandum of Agreement) outlines responsibilities but is less specific on performance, NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) covers confidentiality.

SLAs are key in Security Program Management for managing vendor and internal service expectations?6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

Changing the default password for the local administrator account on a VPN appliance is a basic security measure that would have most likely prevented the unexpected login to the remote management interface. Default passwords are often easy to guess or publicly available, and attackers can use them to gain unauthorized access to devices and systems. Changing the default password to a strong and unique one reduces the risk of brute-force attacks and credential theft. Using least privilege, assigning individual user IDs, and reviewing logs more frequently are also good security practices, but they are not as effective as changing the default password in preventing the unexpected login. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 116; Local Admin Accounts - Security Risks and Best Practices (Part 1)

Risk appetite refers to the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. In this scenario, the security engineer is concerned that the timeframe for implementing a new application does not allow for sufficient cybersecurity due diligence. This reflects a situation where the organization’s risk appetite might be too high if it proceeds without the necessary security checks.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of risk management and understanding organizational risk appetite??.

To determine whether the connection was successful after a user clicked on a link in a phishing email, the most relevant log source to analyze would be the network logs. These logs would provide information on outbound and inbound traffic, allowing the analyst to see if the user’s system connected to the remote server specified in the phishing link. Network logs can includedetails such as IP addresses, domains accessed, and the success or failure of connections, which are crucial for understanding the impact of the phishing attempt.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations?.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Incident Response?.

802.1X is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It supports the use of certificates for authentication, can quarantine unapproved devices, and ensures that only approved and updated devices can access network resources. This protocol best meets the requirements of securing both wired and wireless networks with internal certificates.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and authentication protocols??.

Arace conditionoccurs whentwo or more processes attempt to access and modify a shared resource simultaneously, leading to unintended behavior. In this scenario, the attacker was able to modify a temporary fieldbefore the SQL update completed, indicating atime-of-check to time-of-use (TOCTOU) vulnerability, which is a type of race condition.

Memory injection (B)refers to inserting malicious code into a running process’s memory, but that isnotwhat is happening here.

Malicious update (C)is too broad and does not specifically describe this scenario.

Side loading (D)is a technique where malicious software is loaded via a trusted application, unrelated to this case.

When the government bans a vendor, the legal concern is sanctions—laws that restrict purchasing, using, or importing products from certain companies or countries. The general counsel’s job is to ensure the organization is not violating federal restrictions, export controls, trade compliance laws, or sanctions lists such as OFAC or government procurement bans.

Security+ SY0-701 notes that legal and regulatory compliance is a critical part of risk management, especially when handling prohibited vendors or technologies. Continued use of banned devices could expose the organization to legal penalties, fines, or federal investigation.

Data sovereignty (B) refers to data storage location laws, not hardware bans. Cost of replacement (C) is an operational concern, not a legal one. Loss of license (D) typically applies to software, not network hardware.

Therefore, the general counsel’s primary concern is A: Sanctions.

Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process. Peer review and approval can also enforce coding standards, best practices, and compliance requirements. Peer review and approval can be done manually or with the help of tools, such as code analysis, code review, and code signing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 543 2

A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.

Detailed Explanation:

Retention policies dictate how long data must be stored to comply with local and international regulations. Non-compliance can result in legal and financial penalties. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Data Retention and Legal Requirements"??.

To enhance security for a system running an end-of-life operating system, placing the system in an isolated VLAN is the most effective approach. By isolating the system from the rest of the network, you can limit its exposure to potential threats while maintaining its functionality. This segmentation helps protect the rest of the network from any vulnerabilities in the outdated system.

Installing HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) can help detect intrusions but won't mitigate the risks posed by an unsupported OS.

Decommissioning may not be feasible if the system is critical.

Encrypting the system's hard drive protects data at rest but doesn't address vulnerabilities from an outdated OS???.

Memory injectionoccurs whenmalicious code is written into the memory space of a running process, allowing it to execute without writing anything to disk. This is often used infileless malware attacks, making detection harder.

A (privilege escalation)describes a race condition, not memory injection.

B (unexpected data causing execution)describes abuffer overflow attack, not memory injection.

D (overwriting an executable)is apersistence technique, but it is not an example of in-memory injection.

Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust canprovide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems are typically configured to protect sensitive data such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII) within an organization. DLP tools enforce policies that monitor, detect, and block the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data. By leveraging the organization’s existing labeling and classification system, DLP solutions can identify and protect data based on its classification, ensuring that PII is appropriately secured according to organizational policies.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture?.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and DLP?.

Placing a false (decoy) text file in a sensitive location (such as /docs/salaries) is an example of a honeytoken or deception technique. This technique is used to attract insider attackers and monitor their actions when they attempt to access the file.

The correct answer is Watering-hole because the attack involves compromising a legitimate website that is regularly visited by a specific group of targeted users—in this case, journalists—in order to indirectly infect or compromise them. The Security+ SY0-701 study guide defines watering-hole attacks as targeted attacks where adversaries identify websites frequented by their intended victims and then compromise those sites to deliver malware, steal credentials, or conduct further exploitation.

In this scenario, the attacker does not directly target the journalists’ email systems. Instead, the attacker compromises a trusted website that the journalists frequently access. When the journalists visit the site, malicious code can be delivered through drive-by downloads, malicious scripts, or credential-harvesting mechanisms. This technique is particularly effective for nation-state attackers because it leverages trust and normal user behavior, making detection more difficult.

Option A, On-path, is incorrect because on-path (man-in-the-middle) attacks involve intercepting or altering communications between two parties in transit, rather than compromising a third-party website. Option C, Typosquatting, involves registering domains with misspelled names to trick users into visiting malicious sites, which is not described here. Option D, Brand impersonation, typically refers to phishing or spoofing attacks that mimic a trusted brand to deceive users, often via email or fake websites, rather than compromising a legitimate one.

The SY0-701 objectives emphasize that watering-hole attacks are commonly associated with advanced persistent threats (APTs), including nation-state actors, because they allow precise targeting of specific industries, professions, or organizations. This attack method highlights the importance of browser security, threat intelligence, web filtering, and user awareness to reduce exposure to trusted-but-compromised resources.

In summary, compromising a frequently used website to gain access to a targeted group’s accounts is a textbook example of a watering-hole attack.

Disabling access is an automation use case that would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company. Disabling access is the process of revoking or suspending the access rights of a user account, such as login credentials, email, VPN, cloud services, etc. Disabling access can prevent unauthorized or malicious use of the account by former employees or attackers who may have compromised the account. Disabling access can also reduce the attack surface and the risk of data breaches or leaks. Disabling access can be automated by using scripts, tools, or workflows that can trigger the action based on predefined events, such as employee termination, resignation, or transfer. Automation can ensure that the access is disabled in a timely, consistent, and efficient manner, without relying on manual intervention or human error.

This scenario describes a bug bounty program, which invites external security researchers to responsibly identify and report vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 defines bug bounty programs as structured initiatives that reward researchers for discovering and disclosing security flaws before they can be exploited by malicious actors.

Bug bounty programs extend security testing beyond internal teams and provide continuous, real-world testing of public-facing assets. They are particularly effective for identifying zero-day vulnerabilities, logic flaws, and edge-case issues that automated tools may miss.

Red teaming (B) is a controlled, internal or contracted adversarial exercise, not an open invitation. Open-source intelligence (C) involves gathering publicly available information, not vulnerability reporting. Third-party information sharing (D) refers to sharing threat intelligence, not soliciting vulnerability reports.

Because the CISO is inviting the broader security community to report vulnerabilities, the correct answer is A: Bug bounty.

The correct answer is Train supervisors to identify and manage disgruntled employees because insider threat risk is strongly tied to human behavior, morale, and organizational change. In the Security+ SY0-701 framework, insider threats are not limited to technical weaknesses but are often driven by emotional, financial, or workplace stressors—such as layoffs, demotions, or job uncertainty. During workforce reductions, employees may experience resentment or fear, increasing the likelihood of malicious or negligent actions.

Security awareness programs are designed to address human-centric risks through education, observation, and early intervention. Training supervisors equips them to recognize warning signs of insider threat behavior, including sudden disengagement, policy violations, excessive access requests, or hostile workplace conduct. The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes that managers and supervisors are in the best position to observe behavioral changes and escalate concerns before they turn into security incidents.

Option A is incorrect because disabling accounts before termination can disrupt operations, violate HR procedures, and raise legal or ethical concerns. Option C, configuring DLP to monitor staff targeted for termination, may be inappropriate, legally risky, and reactive rather than preventive. Option D focuses on external threats like phishing and manipulation, not internal risks tied to layoffs.

By training supervisors, the organization strengthens administrative and operational controls that align with security governance and personnel risk management objectives in SY0-701. This proactive approach supports collaboration between HR, management, and security teams, ensuring insider threats are identified early and handled appropriately.

In summary, insider threat mitigation during layoffs is most effective when focused on people and processes. Training supervisors helps detect risk indicators early, supports employee well-being, and reduces the likelihood of intentional or accidental security incidents during periods of organizational stress.

Detailed Explanation:The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a standardized metric used to assess the severity of vulnerabilities, aiding organizations in prioritizing their response based on risk. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Vulnerabilities, Section: "Vulnerability Prioritization and Metrics"??.

When layoffs occur, disgruntled employees pose a significant insider threat risk. Training supervisors to identify signs of disgruntlement and manage employees empathetically helps reduce insider threat risks by addressing issues before they escalate. Supervisors act as the first line of defense in recognizing behavioral changes and intervening.

Immediately disabling accounts (A) may cause operational issues if done prematurely; monitoring with DLP (C) is reactive and less proactive than awareness; raising awareness about social engineering (D) targets external threats more than insider risks.

This approach is part of insider threat awareness and workforce management in Security Program Management?6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client’s network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1

Injecting malicious payloads into a hypervisor and accessing the host system is an example of VM escape, where the isolation between virtual machines and the host breaks down, allowing unauthorized control.

Cross-site scripting (B), malicious updates (C), and SQL injection (D) are unrelated to hypervisor host access.

VM escape is a critical vulnerability unique to virtualized environments described in SY0-701?6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?.

Access control lists (ACLs) are rules that specify which users or groups can access which resources on a file server. They can help restrict access to confidential data by granting or denying permissions based on the identity or role of the user. In this case, the administrator can use ACLs to quickly modify the access rights of the users and prevent them from accessing the data they are not authorized to see. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308 1

Application allow listing is the most effective technique to prevent bloatware, unauthorized software, or unnecessary applications from running on devices. Allow lists work by permitting only pre-approved, trusted applications to execute, blocking everything else by default. This is a recommended best practice in Security+ SY0-701 for reducing attack surface, preventing malware, and maintaining lean, hardened system images.

Bloatware often comes pre-installed on devices or is unintentionally installed by users. An allow list ensures only authorized applications required for business functions can run, thereby eliminating bloatware risks.

Disabling ports/protocols (A) hardens network access but does not prevent software installation. Default password changes (C) improve authentication security but are unrelated to software control. Access control permissions (D) restrict who can access what but do not prevent installation of unnecessary apps.

Thus, the correct answer is B: Application allow list.

Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to injectcommands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.

Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.

A red team is a group of security professionals who perform offensive security assessments covering penetration testing and social engineering. A red team simulates real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities of a target organization, system, or network. A red team aims to test the effectiveness of the security controls, policies, and procedures of the target, as well as the awareness and response of the staff and the blue team. A red team can be hired as an external consultant or formed internally within the organization. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 18. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.8, page 4. Security Teams – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.8

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Input validationensures that only properly formatted and expected input is accepted by an application,preventing injection attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. Properly validating and sanitizing user inputs can mitigate these types of attacks.

Authentication (A)helps verify user identity but does not prevent injection attacks.

Secure cookies (B)protect session data but do not stop injection-based exploits.

Static code analysis (C)can help identify vulnerabilities but does not activelypreventinjection attacks in real-time.

Implementingstrong input validationcanprevent malicious code from being executed, reducing the risk of injection attacks.

The most likely way a rogue device was able to connect to the network is through a MAC cloning attack. In this attack, a personal device copies the MAC address of an authorized device, bypassing the 802.1X access control that relies on known hardware addresses for network access. The matching MAC addresses in the audit report suggest that this technique was used to gain unauthorized network access.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture?.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and MAC Address Spoofing?.

Detailed Explanation:Firewall logs provide details of all network traffic, including connections to and from IoT devices. They are typically the first source of evidence for identifying the time of an exploit. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Log Analysis for Incident Response"??.

Quantitative risk analysis involves assigning numeric values to risk components, such as potential financial losses. Estimating the replacement cost of a physical server is part of calculating the potential impact and exposure during this process.

Disaster recovery tests (B) validate recovery procedures, physical security controls review (C) assesses physical protections, and threat modeling (D) identifies potential threats and attack vectors.

Quantitative analysis is a key part of risk management addressed in the SY0-701 Risk Management domain?6:Chapter 17†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide?

Internal audits are conducted within an organization to independently assess and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls, policies, and procedures. A key benefit of internal audits is the identification of control gaps or weaknesses that can then be remediated before they lead to security incidents or compliance failures.

Unlike external audits, internal audit findings are primarily for management and internal stakeholders, focusing on improving security posture and operational efficiency. Reports generated are formal and documented to ensure accountability, and internal audits do not replace the need for external audits, which provide independent verification to external parties like regulators or shareholders.

This role of internal audits in identifying deficiencies and driving remediation efforts is emphasized in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of the SY0-701 exam?7:Chapter 5†CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests?.

Detailed Explanation:

Daily vulnerability scans help identify missing patches or updates across endpoints, allowing security teams to ensure compliance with patch management policies. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Vulnerability Management"??.