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Practice Free 512-50 EC-Council Information Security Manager (E|ISM) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the ECCouncil 512-50 Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our EC-Council Information Security Manager (E|ISM) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free 512-50 Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

The MOST common method to get an unbiased measurement of the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS) is to

A.

assign the responsibility to the information security team.

B.

assign the responsibility to the team responsible for the management of the controls.

C.

create operational reports on the effectiveness of the controls.

D.

perform an independent audit of the security controls.

Question # 7

The exposure factor of a threat to your organization is defined by?

A.

Asset value times exposure factor

B.

Annual rate of occurrence

C.

Annual loss expectancy minus current cost of controls

D.

Percentage of loss experienced due to a realized threat event

Question # 8

A business unit within your organization intends to deploy a new technology in a manner that places it in violation of existing information security standards. What immediate action should the information security manager take?

A.

Enforce the existing security standards and do not allow the deployment of the new technology.

B.

Amend the standard to permit the deployment.

C.

If the risks associated with that technology are not already identified, perform a risk analysis to quantify the risk, and allow the business unit to proceed based on the identified risk level.

D.

Permit a 90-day window to see if an issue occurs and then amend the standard if there are no issues.

Question # 9

You have implemented the new controls. What is the next step?

A.

Document the process for the stakeholders

B.

Monitor the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Update the audit findings report

D.

Perform a risk assessment

Question # 10

Assigning the role and responsibility of Information Assurance to a dedicated and independent security group is an example of:

A.

Detective Controls

B.

Proactive Controls

C.

Preemptive Controls

D.

Organizational Controls

Question # 11

The risk found after a control has been fully implemented is called:

A.

Residual Risk

B.

Total Risk

C.

Post implementation risk

D.

Transferred risk

Question # 12

Which of the following are the MOST important factors for proactively determining system vulnerabilities?

A.

Subscribe to vendor mailing list to get notification of system vulnerabilities

B.

Deploy Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and install anti-virus on systems

C.

Configure firewall, perimeter router and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

D.

Conduct security testing, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing

Question # 13

Who in the organization determines access to information?

A.

Legal department

B.

Compliance officer

C.

Data Owner

D.

Information security officer

Question # 14

Which of the following are necessary to formulate responses to external audit findings?

A.

Internal Audit, Management, and Technical Staff

B.

Internal Audit, Budget Authority, Management

C.

Technical Staff, Budget Authority, Management

D.

Technical Staff, Internal Audit, Budget Authority

Question # 15

Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to determine if the source and object versions are the same?

A.

A substantive test of program library controls

B.

A compliance test of program library controls

C.

A compliance test of the program compiler controls

D.

A substantive test of the program compiler controls

Question # 16

Which of the following organizations is typically in charge of validating the implementation and effectiveness of security controls?

A.

Security Administrators

B.

Internal/External Audit

C.

Risk Management

D.

Security Operations

Question # 17

Which of the following set of processes is considered to be one of the cornerstone cycles of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 standard?

A.

Plan-Check-Do-Act

B.

Plan-Do-Check-Act

C.

Plan-Select-Implement-Evaluate

D.

SCORE (Security Consensus Operational Readiness Evaluation)

Question # 18

When briefing senior management on the creation of a governance process, the MOST important aspect should be:

A.

information security metrics.

B.

knowledge required to analyze each issue.

C.

baseline against which metrics are evaluated.

D.

linkage to business area objectives.

Question # 19

Which of the following provides an audit framework?

A.

Control Objectives for IT (COBIT)

B.

Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)

C.

International Organization Standard (ISO) 27002

D.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30

Question # 20

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Which of the following industry / sector neutral information security control frameworks should you recommend for implementation?

A.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53

B.

Payment Card Industry Digital Security Standard (PCI DSS)

C.

International Organization for Standardization – ISO 27001/2

D.

British Standard 7799 (BS7799)

Question # 21

Annual Loss Expectancy is derived from the function of which two factors?

A.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Asset Value

B.

Single Loss Expectancy and Exposure Factor

C.

Safeguard Value and Annual Rate of Occurrence

D.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Single Loss Expectancy

Question # 22

Acceptable levels of information security risk tolerance in an organization should be determined by?

A.

Corporate legal counsel

B.

CISO with reference to the company goals

C.

CEO and board of director

D.

Corporate compliance committee

Question # 23

Scenario: You are the CISO and are required to brief the C-level executive team on your information security audit for the year. During your review of the audit findings you discover that many of the controls that were put in place the previous year to correct some of the findings are not performing as needed. You have thirty days until the briefing.

To formulate a remediation plan for the non-performing controls what other document do you need to review before adjusting the controls?

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Security roadmap

D.

Annual report to shareholders

Question # 24

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

What phase of the response provides measures to reduce the likelihood of an incident from recurring?

A.

Response

B.

Investigation

C.

Recovery

D.

Follow-up

Question # 25

Involvement of senior management is MOST important in the development of:

A.

IT security implementation plans.

B.

Standards and guidelines.

C.

IT security policies.

D.

IT security procedures.

Question # 26

Bob waits near a secured door, holding a box. He waits until an employee walks up to the secured door and

uses the special card in order to access the restricted area of the target company. Just as the employee opens

the door, Bob walks up to the employee (still holding the box) and asks the employee to hold the door open so

that he can enter. What is the best way to undermine the social engineering activity of tailgating?

A.

Post a sign that states, “no tailgating” next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

B.

Issue special cards to access secure doors at the company and provide a one-time only brief description of

use of the special card

C.

Educate and enforce physical security policies of the company to all the employees on a regular basis

D.

Setup a mock video camera next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

Question # 27

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is considered a

A.

Network based security preventative control

B.

Software segmentation control

C.

Security detective control

D.

User segmentation control

Question # 28

Michael starts a new job and discovers that he has unnecessary access to a variety of systems. Which of the

following best describes the problem he has encountered?

A.

Rights collision

B.

Excessive privileges

C.

Privilege creep

D.

Least privileges

Question # 29

A consultant is hired to do physical penetration testing at a large financial company. In the first day of his

assessment, the consultant goes to the company’s building dressed like an electrician and waits in the lobby for

an employee to pass through the main access gate, then the consultant follows the employee behind to get into

the restricted area. Which type of attack did the consultant perform?

A.

Shoulder surfing

B.

Tailgating

C.

Social engineering

D.

Mantrap

Question # 30

What is the BEST reason for having a formal request for proposal process?

A.

Creates a timeline for purchasing and budgeting

B.

Allows small companies to compete with larger companies

C.

Clearly identifies risks and benefits before funding is spent

D.

Informs suppliers a company is going to make a purchase

Question # 31

When updating the security strategic planning document what two items must be included?

A.

Alignment with the business goals and the vision of the CIO

B.

The risk tolerance of the company and the company mission statement

C.

The executive summary and vision of the board of directors

D.

The alignment with the business goals and the risk tolerance

Question # 32

Which of the following best describes the sensors designed to project and detect a light beam across an area?

A.

Smoke

B.

Thermal

C.

Air-aspirating

D.

Photo electric

Question # 33

Which of the following would negatively impact a log analysis of a multinational organization?

A.

Centralized log management

B.

Encrypted log files in transit

C.

Each node set to local time

D.

Log aggregation agent each node

Question # 34

Which of the following is true regarding expenditures?

A.

Capital expenditures are never taxable

B.

Operating expenditures are for acquiring assets, capital expenditures are for support costs of that asset

C.

Capital expenditures are used to define depreciation tables of intangible assets

D.

Capital expenditures are for acquiring assets, whereas operating expenditures are for support costs of that

asset

Question # 35

The process for management approval of the security certification process which states the risks and mitigation of such risks of a given IT system is called

A.

Security certification

B.

Security system analysis

C.

Security accreditation

D.

Alignment with business practices and goals.

Question # 36

According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-40, which of the following considerations are MOST important when creating a vulnerability management program?

A.

Susceptibility to attack, mitigation response time, and cost

B.

Attack vectors, controls cost, and investigation staffing needs

C.

Vulnerability exploitation, attack recovery, and mean time to repair

D.

Susceptibility to attack, expected duration of attack, and mitigation availability

Question # 37

When working in the Payment Card Industry (PCI), how often should security logs be review to comply with the standards?

A.

Daily

B.

Hourly

C.

Weekly

D.

Monthly

Question # 38

The implementation of anti-malware and anti-phishing controls on centralized email servers is an example of what type of security control?

A.

Organization control

B.

Procedural control

C.

Management control

D.

Technical control

Question # 39

When measuring the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System which one of the following would be MOST LIKELY used as a metric framework?

A.

ISO 27001

B.

PRINCE2

C.

ISO 27004

D.

ITILv3

Question # 40

IT control objectives are useful to IT auditors as they provide the basis for understanding the:

A.

Desired results or purpose of implementing specific control procedures.

B.

The audit control checklist.

C.

Techniques for securing information.

D.

Security policy

Question # 41

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27002 standard?

A.

To give information security management recommendations to those who are responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining security in their organization.

B.

To provide a common basis for developing organizational security standards

C.

To provide effective security management practice and to provide confidence in inter-organizational dealings

D.

To established guidelines and general principles for initiating, implementing, maintaining, and improving information security management within an organization

Question # 42

Many times a CISO may have to speak to the Board of Directors (BOD) about their cyber security posture. What would be the BEST choice of security metrics to present to the BOD?

A.

All vulnerabilities found on servers and desktops

B.

Only critical and high vulnerabilities on servers and desktops

C.

Only critical and high vulnerabilities that impact important production servers

D.

All vulnerabilities that impact important production servers

Question # 43

How often should an environment be monitored for cyber threats, risks, and exposures?

A.

Weekly

B.

Monthly

C.

Quarterly

D.

Daily

Question # 44

When a critical vulnerability has been discovered on production systems and needs to be fixed immediately, what is the BEST approach for a CISO to mitigate the vulnerability under tight budget constraints?

A.

Transfer financial resources from other critical programs

B.

Take the system off line until the budget is available

C.

Deploy countermeasures and compensating controls until the budget is available

D.

Schedule an emergency meeting and request the funding to fix the issue

Question # 45

Which of the following activities must be completed BEFORE you can calculate risk?

A.

Determining the likelihood that vulnerable systems will be attacked by specific threats

B.

Calculating the risks to which assets are exposed in their current setting

C.

Assigning a value to each information asset

D.

Assessing the relative risk facing the organization’s information assets

Question # 46

Which of the following BEST describes an international standard framework that is based on the security model Information Technology—Code of Practice for Information Security Management?

A.

International Organization for Standardization 27001

B.

National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication SP 800-12

C.

Request For Comment 2196

D.

National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication SP 800-26

Question # 47

Step-by-step procedures to regain normalcy in the event of a major earthquake is PRIMARILY covered by which of the following plans?

A.

Incident response plan

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Disaster recovery plan

D.

Damage control plan

Question # 48

An information security department is required to remediate system vulnerabilities when they are discovered. Please select the three primary remediation methods that can be used on an affected system.

A.

Install software patch, Operate system, Maintain system

B.

Discover software, Remove affected software, Apply software patch

C.

Install software patch, configuration adjustment, Software Removal

D.

Software removal, install software patch, maintain system

Question # 49

Creating a secondary authentication process for network access would be an example of?

A.

Nonlinearities in physical security performance metrics

B.

Defense in depth cost enumerated costs

C.

System hardening and patching requirements

D.

Anti-virus for mobile devices

Question # 50

A security professional has been promoted to be the CISO of an organization. The first task is to create a security policy for this organization. The CISO creates and publishes the security policy. This policy however, is ignored and not enforced consistently. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the policy shortcomings?

A.

Lack of a formal security awareness program

B.

Lack of a formal security policy governance process

C.

Lack of formal definition of roles and responsibilities

D.

Lack of a formal risk management policy

Question # 51

A security manager has created a risk program. Which of the following is a critical part of ensuring the program is successful?

A.

Providing a risk program governance structure

B.

Ensuring developers include risk control comments in code

C.

Creating risk assessment templates based on specific threats

D.

Allowing for the acceptance of risk for regulatory compliance requirements

Question # 52

When dealing with Security Incident Response procedures, which of the following steps come FIRST when reacting to an incident?

A.

Escalation

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Containment

Question # 53

A global health insurance company is concerned about protecting confidential information. Which of the following is of MOST concern to this organization?

A.

Compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) regulations.

B.

Alignment with financial reporting regulations for each country where they operate.

C.

Alignment with International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards.

D.

Compliance with patient data protection regulations for each country where they operate.

Question # 54

Regulatory requirements typically force organizations to implement

A.

Mandatory controls

B.

Discretionary controls

C.

Optional controls

D.

Financial controls

Question # 55

What is the MAIN reason for conflicts between Information Technology and Information Security programs?

A.

Technology governance defines technology policies and standards while security governance does not.

B.

Security governance defines technology best practices and Information Technology governance does not.

C.

Technology Governance is focused on process risks whereas Security Governance is focused on business risk.

D.

The effective implementation of security controls can be viewed as an inhibitor to rapid Information Technology implementations.

Question # 56

With a focus on the review and approval aspects of board responsibilities, the Data Governance Council recommends that the boards provide strategic oversight regarding information and information security, include these four things:

A.

Metrics tracking security milestones, understanding criticality of information and information security, visibility into the types of information and how it is used, endorsement by the board of directors

B.

Annual security training for all employees, continual budget reviews, endorsement of the development and implementation of a security program, metrics to track the program

C.

Understanding criticality of information and information security, review investment in information security, endorse development and implementation of a security program, and require regular reports on adequacy and effectiveness

D.

Endorsement by the board of directors for security program, metrics of security program milestones, annual budget review, report on integration and acceptance of program

Question # 57

In accordance with best practices and international standards, how often is security awareness training provided to employees of an organization?

A.

High risk environments 6 months, low risk environments 12 months

B.

Every 12 months

C.

Every 18 months

D.

Every six months

Question # 58

Quantitative Risk Assessments have the following advantages over qualitative risk assessments:

A.

They are objective and can express risk / cost in real numbers

B.

They are subjective and can be completed more quickly

C.

They are objective and express risk / cost in approximates

D.

They are subjective and can express risk /cost in real numbers

Question # 59

The PRIMARY objective for information security program development should be:

A.

Reducing the impact of the risk to the business.

B.

Establishing strategic alignment with business continuity requirements

C.

Establishing incident response programs.

D.

Identifying and implementing the best security solutions.

Question # 60

What is a difference from the list below between quantitative and qualitative Risk Assessment?

A.

Quantitative risk assessments result in an exact number (in monetary terms)

B.

Qualitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)

C.

Qualitative risk assessments map to business objectives

D.

Quantitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)

Question # 61

What is the BEST way to achieve on-going compliance monitoring in an organization?

A.

Only check compliance right before the auditors are scheduled to arrive onsite.

B.

Outsource compliance to a 3rd party vendor and let them manage the program.

C.

Have Compliance and Information Security partner to correct issues as they arise.

D.

Have Compliance direct Information Security to fix issues after the auditors report.

Question # 62

An organization's Information Security Policy is of MOST importance because

A.

it communicates management’s commitment to protecting information resources

B.

it is formally acknowledged by all employees and vendors

C.

it defines a process to meet compliance requirements

D.

it establishes a framework to protect confidential information

Question # 63

You have implemented a new security control. Which of the following risk strategy options have you engaged in?

A.

Risk Avoidance

B.

Risk Acceptance

C.

Risk Transfer

D.

Risk Mitigation

Question # 64

An organization has defined a set of standard security controls. This organization has also defined the circumstances and conditions in which they must be applied. What is the NEXT logical step in applying the controls in the organization?

A.

Determine the risk tolerance

B.

Perform an asset classification

C.

Create an architecture gap analysis

D.

Analyze existing controls on systems

Question # 65

When an organization claims it is secure because it is PCI-DSS certified, what is a good first question to ask towards assessing the effectiveness of their security program?

A.

How many credit card records are stored?

B.

How many servers do you have?

C.

What is the scope of the certification?

D.

What is the value of the assets at risk?

Question # 66

A method to transfer risk is to:

A.

Implement redundancy

B.

move operations to another region

C.

purchase breach insurance

D.

Alignment with business operations

Question # 67

The Information Security Management program MUST protect:

A.

all organizational assets

B.

critical business processes and /or revenue streams

C.

intellectual property released into the public domain

D.

against distributed denial of service attacks

Question # 68

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

Question # 69

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question # 70

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question # 71

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

Question # 72

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

Question # 73

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question # 74

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question # 75

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Question # 76

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question # 77

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question # 78

An anonymity network is a series of?

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question # 79

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

Question # 80

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question # 81

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

Question # 82

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question # 83

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question # 84

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question # 85

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question # 86

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

Question # 87

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question # 88

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question # 89

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question # 90

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question # 91

Which of the following strategies provides the BEST response to a ransomware attack?

A.

Real-time off-site replication

B.

Daily incremental backup

C.

Daily full backup

D.

Daily differential backup

Question # 92

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question # 93

What oversight should the information security team have in the change management process for application security?

A.

Information security should be informed of changes to applications only

B.

Development team should tell the information security team about any application security flaws

C.

Information security should be aware of any significant application security changes and work with developer to test for vulnerabilities before changes are deployed in production

D.

Information security should be aware of all application changes and work with developers before changes are deployed in production

Question # 94

A person in your security team calls you at night and informs you that one of your web applications is potentially under attack from a cross-site scripting vulnerability. What do you do?

A.

tell him to shut down the server

B.

tell him to call the police

C.

tell him to invoke the incident response process

D.

tell him to analyze the problem, preserve the evidence and provide a full analysis and report

Question # 95

Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

A.

Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B.

Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C.

Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D.

Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

Question # 96

A stakeholder is a person or group:

A.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative regardless of budget implications.

B.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative and is tied to the project budget.

C.

That has budget authority.

D.

That will ultimately use the system.

Question # 97

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

Question # 98

When is an application security development project complete?

A.

When the application is retired.

B.

When the application turned over to production.

C.

When the application reaches the maintenance phase.

D.

After one year.

Question # 99

You are the CISO of a commercial social media organization. The leadership wants to rapidly create new methods of sharing customer data through creative linkages with mobile devices. You have voiced concern about privacy regulations but the velocity of the business is given priority. Which of the following BEST describes this organization?

A.

Risk averse

B.

Risk tolerant

C.

Risk conditional

D.

Risk minimal

Question # 100

Risk appetite is typically determined by which of the following organizational functions?

A.

Security

B.

Business units

C.

Board of Directors

D.

Audit and compliance

Question # 101

You currently cannot provide for 24/7 coverage of your security monitoring and incident response duties and your company is resistant to the idea of adding more full-time employees to the payroll. Which combination of solutions would help to provide the coverage needed without the addition of more dedicated staff? (choose the best answer):

A.

Deploy a SEIM solution and have current staff review incidents first thing in the morning

B.

Contract with a managed security provider and have current staff on recall for incident response

C.

Configure your syslog to send SMS messages to current staff when target events are triggered

D.

Employ an assumption of breach protocol and defend only essential information resources

Question # 102

The Security Operations Center (SOC) just purchased a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) that needs to be deployed in-line for best defense. The IT group is concerned about putting the new IPS in-line because it might negatively impact network availability. What would be the BEST approach for the CISO to reassure the IT group?

A.

Work with the IT group and tell them to put IPS in-line and say it won’t cause any network impact

B.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS won’t cause any network impact because it will fail open

C.

Explain to the IT group that this is a business need and the IPS will fail open however, if there is a network failure the CISO will accept responsibility

D.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS will fail open once in-line however it will be deployed in monitor mode for a set period of time to ensure that it doesn’t block any legitimate traffic

Question # 103

A severe security threat has been detected on your corporate network. As CISO you quickly assemble key members of the Information Technology team and business operations to determine a modification to security controls in response to the threat. This is an example of:

A.

Change management

B.

Business continuity planning

C.

Security Incident Response

D.

Thought leadership

Question # 104

An international organization is planning a project to implement encryption technologies to protect company confidential information. This organization has data centers on three continents. Which of the following would be considered a MAJOR constraint for the project?

A.

Time zone differences

B.

Compliance to local hiring laws

C.

Encryption import/export regulations

D.

Local customer privacy laws

Question # 105

Which of the following represents the BEST method for obtaining business unit acceptance of security controls within an organization?

A.

Allow the business units to decide which controls apply to their systems, such as the encryption of sensitive data

B.

Create separate controls for the business units based on the types of business and functions they perform

C.

Ensure business units are involved in the creation of controls and defining conditions under which they must be applied

D.

Provide the business units with control mandates and schedules of audits for compliance validation

Question # 106

Which of the following methods are used to define contractual obligations that force a vendor to meet customer expectations?

A.

Terms and Conditions

B.

Service Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Statement of Work

D.

Key Performance Indicators (KPI)

Question # 107

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful project?

A.

it is completed on time or early as compared to the baseline project plan

B.

it meets most of the specifications as outlined in the approved project definition

C.

it comes in at or below the expenditures planned for in the baseline budget

D.

the deliverables are accepted by the key stakeholders

Question # 108

Which of the following can the company implement in order to avoid this type of security issue in the future?

A.

Network based intrusion detection systems

B.

A security training program for developers

C.

A risk management process

D.

A audit management process

Question # 109

Which of the following functions evaluates patches used to close software vulnerabilities of new systems to assure compliance with policy when implementing an information security program?

A.

System testing

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Planning

Question # 110

The security team has investigated the theft/loss of several unencrypted laptop computers containing sensitive corporate information. To prevent the loss of any additional corporate data it is unilaterally decided by the CISO that all existing and future laptop computers will be encrypted. Soon, the help desk is flooded with complaints about the slow performance of the laptops and users are upset. What did the CISO do wrong? (choose the BEST answer):

A.

Failed to identify all stakeholders and their needs

B.

Deployed the encryption solution in an inadequate manner

C.

Used 1024 bit encryption when 256 bit would have sufficed

D.

Used hardware encryption instead of software encryption

Question # 111

Which of the following is critical in creating a security program aligned with an organization’s goals?

A.

Ensure security budgets enable technical acquisition and resource allocation based on internal compliance requirements

B.

Develop a culture in which users, managers and IT professionals all make good decisions about information risk

C.

Provide clear communication of security program support requirements and audit schedules

D.

Create security awareness programs that include clear definition of security program goals and charters

Question # 112

The ultimate goal of an IT security projects is:

A.

Increase stock value

B.

Complete security

C.

Support business requirements

D.

Implement information security policies

Question # 113

An example of professional unethical behavior is:

A.

Gaining access to an affiliated employee’s work email account as part of an officially sanctioned internal investigation

B.

Sharing copyrighted material with other members of a professional organization where all members have legitimate access to the material

C.

Copying documents from an employer’s server which you assert that you have an intellectual property claim to possess, but the company disputes

D.

Storing client lists and other sensitive corporate internal documents on a removable thumb drive

Question # 114

Which of the following represents the BEST method of ensuring security program alignment to business needs?

A.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

B.

Create security consortiums, such as strategic security planning groups, that include business unit participation

C.

Ensure security implementations include business unit testing and functional validation prior to production rollout

D.

Ensure the organization has strong executive-level security representation through clear sponsorship or the creation of a CISO role

Question # 115

When entering into a third party vendor agreement for security services, at what point in the process is it BEST to understand and validate the security posture and compliance level of the vendor?

A.

At the time the security services are being performed and the vendor needs access to the network

B.

Once the agreement has been signed and the security vendor states that they will need access to the network

C.

Once the vendor is on premise and before they perform security services

D.

Prior to signing the agreement and before any security services are being performed

Question # 116

You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

A.

Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert

B.

Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better

C.

Request additional resources to handle the workload

D.

Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts

Question # 117

To get an Information Security project back on schedule, which of the following will provide the MOST help?

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

Stakeholder support

D.

Extend work hours

Question # 118

You are just hired as the new CISO and are being briefed on all the Information Security projects that your section has on going. You discover that most projects are behind schedule and over budget.

Using the best business practices for project management you determine that the project correctly aligns with the company goals and the scope of the project is correct. What is the NEXT step?

A.

Review time schedules

B.

Verify budget

C.

Verify resources

D.

Verify constraints

Question # 119

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

From an Information Security Leadership perspective, which of the following is a MAJOR concern about the CISO’s approach to security?

A.

Lack of risk management process

B.

Lack of sponsorship from executive management

C.

IT security centric agenda

D.

Compliance centric agenda

Question # 120

The Annualized Loss Expectancy (Before) minus Annualized Loss Expectancy (After) minus Annual Safeguard Cost is the formula for determining:

A.

Safeguard Value

B.

Cost Benefit Analysis

C.

Single Loss Expectancy

D.

Life Cycle Loss Expectancy

Question # 121

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals

the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with

skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

From an Information Security Leadership perspective, which of the following is a MAJOR concern about the

CISO’s approach to security?

A.

Compliance centric agenda

B.

IT security centric agenda

C.

Lack of risk management process

D.

Lack of sponsorship from executive management

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