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Practice Free APM-001 Associate in Project Management (APM) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the GAQM APM-001 Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Associate in Project Management (APM) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free APM-001 Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Question # 7

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question # 8

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Question # 9

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

Question # 10

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Question # 11

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

Question # 12

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Question # 13

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

Question # 14

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

Question # 15

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Question # 16

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Question # 17

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question # 18

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Question # 19

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

Question # 20

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Question # 21

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

Question # 22

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

Question # 23

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

Question # 24

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question # 25

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Question # 26

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

Question # 27

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

Question # 28

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Question # 29

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

Question # 30

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Question # 31

Typical outcomes of a project include:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

Question # 32

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

Question # 33

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

Question # 34

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Question # 35

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Question # 36

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question # 37

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

Question # 38

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

Question # 39

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Question # 40

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

A.

Project team

B.

Focus group

C.

Change control board

D.

Project stakeholders

Question # 41

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

Question # 42

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

Question # 43

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question # 44

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

Question # 45

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question # 46

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

Question # 47

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 48

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question # 49

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Question # 50

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

Question # 51

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

Question # 52

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

Question # 53

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Question # 54

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

Question # 55

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Question # 56

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

Question # 57

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question # 58

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Question # 59

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Question # 60

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Question # 61

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Question # 62

A regression line is used to estimate:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

Question # 63

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

Question # 64

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

Question # 65

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Question # 66

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question # 67

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Question # 68

Most experienced project managers know that:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOKĀ® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Question # 69

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

Question # 70

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

Question # 71

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question # 72

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.

Project Scope Management

Question # 73

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Question # 74

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Network diagrams

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Question # 75

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Question # 76

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

Question # 77

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

Question # 78

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

Question # 79

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 80

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Question # 81

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Question # 82

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Question # 83

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Question # 84

When is a project finished?

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

Question # 85

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 86

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Question # 87

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Question # 88

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Question # 89

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

A.

project staff assignments

B.

project tea m acquisition

C.

managing conflicting interests

D.

communication methods

Question # 90

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Question # 91

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

Question # 92

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

APM-001 question answer

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

Question # 93

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

Question # 94

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

Question # 95

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question # 96

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Question # 97

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

Question # 98

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

Question # 99

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Question # 100

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 101

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

APM-001 question answer

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

Question # 102

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

Question # 103

Project management processes ensure the:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

Question # 104

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Question # 105

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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