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IIA-ACCA Practice Exam Questions with Answers ACCA CIA Challenge Exam Certification

Question # 6

According to IIA guidance, which of the following procedures would be least effective in managing the risk of payroll fraud?

A.

The employee’s name listed on organization’s payroll is compared to the personnel records.

B.

Payroll time sheets are reviewed and approved by the timekeeper before processing.

C.

Employee access to the payroll database is deactivated immediately upon termination.

D.

Changes to payroll are validated by the personnel department before being processed.

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Question # 7

Which of the following items should the chief audit executive disclose to senior management regarding the results of the internal audit activity's quality assessments?

A.

The internal audit activity's plan for resource allocation.

B.

The amount of the organization's potential loss prevented by the risk-based auditing of the internal audit activity.

C.

The number of audits from the annual internal audit plan that were completed last year.

D.

The qualifications and independence of the assessment Team.

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Question # 8

An internal auditor uses a predefined macro provided in a popular spreadsheet application to verify the present value of the organization's investments. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action regarding the auditor's use of this functionality?

A.

The auditor should accept the calculations generated by the function, as any further work or documentation would be inefficient.

B.

The auditor should perform a manual recalculation of several results to validate and document the results.

C.

The auditor should review the programming of the macro before its use to ensure that it is appropriate for the required calculations.

D.

The auditor should tabulate the results in the spreadsheet to ensure the macro has generated the correct results for all calculations.

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Question # 9

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

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Question # 10

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

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Question # 11

According to the COSO internal control framework, which of the following best describes the use of continuous auditing programs by the internal audit activity?

A.

Control environment.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Monitoring.

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Question # 12

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about working papers is false?

A.

They assist in the implementation of recommendations.

B.

They provide support for communication to third parties.

C.

They demonstrate compliance with auditing standards.

D.

They contribute to development of the internal audit staff.

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Question # 13

Which of the following IT controls includes protection for mainframe computers and workstations?

A.

Change management controls

B.

Physical and environmental controls.

C.

System software controls

D.

Organization and management controls

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Question # 14

All of the following are true with regard to the first-in, first-out inventory valuation method except:

A.

It values inventory close to current replacement cost.

B.

It generates the highest profit when prices are rising.

C.

It approximates the physical flow of goods.

D.

It minimizes current-period income taxes.

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Question # 15

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

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Question # 16

An organization's account for office supplies on hand had a balance of S9,000 at the end of year one. During year two. the organization recorded an expense of $45,000 for purchasing office supplies. At the end of year two. a physical count determined that the organization has $11,500 in office supplies on hand. Based on this information, what would be recorded in the adjusting entry at the end of year two?

A.

A debit to office supplies on hand for S2.500

B.

A debit to office supplies on hand for $11,500

C.

A debit to office supplies on hand for S20.500

D.

A debit to office supplies on hand for S42.500

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Question # 17

The cost to enter a foreign market would be highest in which of the following methods of global expansion?

A.

Joint ventures.

B.

Licensing.

C.

Exporting.

D.

Overseas production.

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Question # 18

Which of the following activities most significantly increases the risk that a bank will make poor-quality loans to its customers?

A.

Borrowers may not sign all required mortgage loan documentation.

B.

Fees paid by the borrower at the time of the loan may not be deposited in a timely manner.

C.

The bank's loan documentation may not meet the government's disclosure requirements.

D.

Loan officers may override the lending criteria established by senior management.

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Question # 19

Which of the following statements about COBIT is not true?

A.

COBIT helps management understand and manage the risks associated with information technology (IT) processes.

B.

Management needs to determine the cost-benefit ratio of adopting COBIT control objectives.

C.

COBIT control objectives are specific to various IT platforms and help determine minimum controls.

D.

COBIT provides management with the capability to conduct self-assessments against industry best practices.

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Question # 20

Which of the following is a strategy that organizations can use to stimulate innovation?

1. Source from the most advanced suppliers.

2. Establish employee programs that reward initiative.

3. Identify best practice competitors as motivators.

4. Ensure that performance targets are always achieved.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Question # 21

A former line supervisor from the Financial Services Department has completed six months of a two-year development opportunity with the internal audit activity (IAA). She is assigned to a team that will audit the organization's payroll function, which is managed by the Human Resources Department. Which of the following statements is most relevant regarding her independence and objectivity with respect to the payroll audit?

A.

She may participate, but only after she has completed one year with the IAA.

B.

She may participate, because she did not previously work in the Human Resources Department.

C.

She may participate, but she must be supervised by the auditor in charge.

D.

She may participate for training purposes, to build her knowledge of the IAA.

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Question # 22

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the organization's fraud prevention program using the COSO enterprise risk management framework. According to this framework, which of the following activities would fall under the control environment component for preventing fraud?

1. The organization uses an automated authority approval matrix to control payments.

2. The organization has a whistleblower hotline that is available to employees.

3. Annually, every manager completes a comprehensive fraud assessment of his or her department.

4. Annually, the organization reviews and communicates the code of expected behavior.

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Question # 23

An assurance mapping exercise helps an organization do which of the following?

1. Provide assurance to stakeholders that risks are managed and reported, and regulatory and legal obligations are met.

2. Fulfill best practices in the industry.

3. Identify and address any gaps in the risk management process.

4. Identify fraud.

A.

1 and 4.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Question # 24

An organization is facing a financial downturn and needs to impose major budget reductions to all departments. According to MA guidance, which of the following actions is most appropriate for the board to take to evaluate the potential impact on the internal audit activity?

A.

Ask management to determine which internal audit engagements are lower risk and could be considered for removal from the annual audit plan.

B.

Ask appropriate stakeholders for their opinion on the potential impacts of reducing the scope of the internal audit plan.

C.

Ask the chief audit executive to determine whether budgetary limitations impede the ability of the internal audit activity to execute its responsibilities.

D.

Ask The human resources department to determine how the annual compensation and salary of the audit staff could be adjusted to achieve savings.

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Question # 25

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true when an internal auditor performs consulting services that improve an organization's operations?

A.

The services must be aligned with those defined in the internal audit charter.

B.

The services must not be performed by the same internal auditor who performed assurance services, in order to maintain objectivity.

C.

The services may preclude assurance services from the consulting engagement.

D.

The services impose no responsibility to communicate information other than to the engagement client.

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Question # 26

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is ultimately responsible for seeing that the internal control system of an organization's social responsibility program is effective?

A.

Senior management.

B.

Internal audit activity.

C.

All employees.

D.

Board of directors.

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Question # 27

An internal auditor was asked to review an equal equity partnership In one sampled transaction Partner A transferred equipment into the partnership with a self-declared value of $10,000 and Partner B contributed equipment with a self-declared value of $15 000 The capital accounts of each partner were subsequently credited with S12,500. Which of the following statements is true regarding this transaction?

A.

The capital accounts of the partners should be increased by the original cost of the contnbuted equipment.

B.

The capital accounts should be increased using a weighted average based on the current percentage of ownership

C.

No action is needed as the capital account of each partner was increased by the correct amount

D.

The capital accounts of the partners should be increased by the fair market value of their contribution

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Question # 28

According to COSO, which of the following is not considered one of the components of an organization's internal environment?

A.

Authority and responsibility to resolve issues.

B.

Framework to plan, execute and monitor activities.

C.

Integrated responses to multiple risks.

D.

Knowledge and skills needed to perform activities.

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Question # 29

According to IIA guidance, which of the following scenarios demonstrates an internal auditor exercising due professional care?

When auditing investments, the auditor identified instruments with which he was unfamiliar. He decided not to select that type of investment in his sample, as he did not have the knowledge needed to A. perform a proper assessment.

B. An auditor was reviewing inventory counts conducted by the warehouse staff. One truck containing an immaterial amount of inventory was off-site and wasn't verified by the auditor.

C. An auditor visited a plant that produces a significant portion of the organization's inventory. The day he arrived, the plant manager was out sick, so the auditor issued the report without interviewing the manager.

D. An auditor in charge needed to have testing completed by the end of the month, but was behind schedule. He identified a junior auditor to conduct the work for him on a complex area of the organization.

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Question # 30

What should the internal auditor's role be in assessing the organization's ethical climate?

A.

Perform ongoing surveys of the employees, customers, and partners of the organization to assess the organization's ethical climate. ^Evaluate the effectiveness of the organization's strategies and B. processes for achieving the desired level of legal and ethical compliance.

B.

Maintain a whistleblower hotline to identify inappropriate or illegal activity within the organization.

C.

Perform background checks of potential new employees before they are hired by the organization.

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Question # 31

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a rationalization as the root cause of potential fraud?

A.

Managers who have been with the organization for several decades become aware that newly hired, younger managers are being moved more quickly into senior positions.

B.

The controller at a nationwide manufacturing company recently opted to no longer require two-week mandatory vacations for accounting staff.

C.

Security cameras that monitor cash handling at the register are not functioning.

D.

The organization is slowly phasing out three mature products that produce the highest commissions for the sales staff.

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Question # 32

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding the exit conference for an internal audit engagement?

A.

A primary purpose of the exit conference is to provide for the timely communication of observations that call for immediate management action.

B.

Both the chief audit executive and the chief executive over the activity or function reviewed must attend the exit conference to validate the findings.

C.

The exit conference provides only anticipated results for inclusion in the final audit communication.

D.

During the exit conference, the performance of the internal auditors who executed the engagement is reviewed.

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Question # 33

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?

1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.

2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.

3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.

4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 34

According to the COSO enterprise risk management (ERM) framework, which of the following is not part of the new paradigm in ERM?

A.

Assessing the risk factors.

B.

Aligning risk appetite and strategy.

C.

Enhancing risk response decisions.

D.

Reducing operational surprises and losses.

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Question # 35

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department. Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

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Question # 36

Who is responsible for setting the risk appetite?

A.

External auditors.

B.

Chief risk officer.

C.

Operations management.

D.

Board of directors.

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Question # 37

Which of the following statements about slack time and milestones are true?

1. Slack time represents the amount of time a task may be delayed without delaying the entire project.

2. A milestone is a moment in time that marks the completion of the project's major deliverables.

3. Slack time allows the project manager to move resources from one task to another to ensure that the project is finished on time.

4. A milestone requires resource allocation and needs time to be completed.

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2, and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Question # 38

Which of the following professional development approaches would offer internal auditors the most opportunities to broaden their engagement experiences?

A.

Assign more experienced internal auditors to mentor the less experienced auditors.

B.

Send internal auditors to external trainings in advanced internal audit topics.

C.

Appraise internal auditors' performance and competencies at least annually and issue constructive feedback.

D.

Rotate internal auditors among different engagement assignments.

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Question # 39

According to The IIA's Code of Ethics, which of the following actions violates the principle of confidentiality?

A.

Accepting a consulting request in the IT department without possessing the requisite experience.

B.

Providing personal tax preparation services for a fee for several employees during the lunch hour.

C.

Providing a friend with the marketing strategic plan, which she will use to prepare her university thesis.

D.

Agreeing to reword an observation to avoid the client complaining directly to the auditor's supervisor.

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Question # 40

An organization has instituted a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) work environment Which of the following policies best addresses the increased risk to the organization's network incurred by this environment?

A.

Limit the use of the employee devices for personal use to mitigate the risk of exposure to organizational data.

B.

Ensure that relevant access to key applications is strictly controlled through an approval and review process

C.

Institute detection and authentication controls for all devices used for network connectivity and data storage

D.

Use management software to scan and then prompt patch reminders when devices connect to the network

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Question # 41

Which of the following is the best approach to overcome entry barriers into a new business?

A.

Offer a standard product that is targeted in the recognized market.

B.

Invest in commodity or commodity-like product businesses.

C.

Enter into a slow-growing market.

D.

Use an established distribution relationship.

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Question # 42

An organization produces two products, X and Y. The materials used for the production of both products are limited to 500 kilograms (kg) per month. All other resources are unlimited and their costs are fixed. Individual product details are as follows:

Product X

Product Y

Selling price per unit

$10

$13

Materials per unit (at $1/kg)

2 kg

6 kg

Monthly demand

100 units

120 units

In order to maximize profit, how much of product Y should the organization produce each month?

A.

50 units.

B.

60 units.

C.

100 units.

D.

120 units.

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Question # 43

Which of the following best describes an objective for an audit of an environmental management system?

A.

To assess whether an annual control review is necessary.

B.

To determine conformance with requirements and agreements.

C.

To evaluate executive management oversight.

D.

To promote environmental awareness.

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Question # 44

During which phase of disaster recovery planning should an organization identify the business units, assets, and systems that are critical to continuing an acceptable level of operations?

A.

Scope and initiation phase.

B.

Business impact analysis.

C.

Plan development.

D.

Testing.

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Question # 45

If a just-in-time purchasing system is successful in reducing the total inventory costs of a manufacturing company, which of the following combinations of cost changes would be most likely to occur?

IIA-ACCA question answer

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 46

Which of the following control techniques would minimize the risk of interception during transmission in an electronic data interchange system?

1. Encryption.

2. Traffic padding.

3. Edit checks.

4. Structured data format.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, and 3 only

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Question # 47

An organization uses a database management system (DBMS) as a repository for data. The DBMS, in turn, supports a number of end-user developed applications which were created using fourth-generation programming languages. Some of the applications update the database. Which of the following is the most important control related to the integrity of the data in the database?

A.

End users have their read-only applications approved by the information systems department before accessing the database.

B.

Concurrency update controls are in place.

C.

End-user applications are developed on personal computers before being implemented on the mainframe.

D.

A hierarchical database model is adopted so that multiple users can be served at the same time.

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Question # 48

Which of the following is the first step an internal audit activity should undertake when executing a data analytics process'?

A.

Conduct a risk assessment regarding the effectiveness of the data analytics process.

B.

Analyze possible and available sources of raw data

C.

Define the purpose and the anticipated value

D.

Select data for cleaning and normalization procedures.

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Question # 49

The market price is the most appropriate transfer price to be charged by one department to another in the same organization for a service provided when:

A.

There is an external market for that service.

B.

The selling department operates at 50 percent of its capacity.

C.

The purchasing department has more negotiating power than the selling department.

D.

There is no external market for that service.

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Question # 50

Which of the following IT strategies is most effective for responding to competitive pressures created by the marketplace?

A.

Promote closer linkage between organizational strategy and information.

B.

Provide users with greater online access to information systems.

C.

Enhance the functionality of application systems.

D.

Expand the use of automated controls.

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Question # 51

Which of the following statements are true regarding the use of heat maps as risk assessment tools?

1. They focus primarily on known risks, limiting the ability to identify new risks.

2. They rely heavily on objective assessments and related risk tolerances.

3. They are too complex to provide an easily understandable view of key risks.

4. They are helpful but limited in value in a rapidly changing environment.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Question # 52

Which of the following examples demonstrates that the internal audit activity uses descriptive analytics in its engagements?

A.

An internal auditor analyzed electricity production and sales interim reports and compiled a risk assessment.

B.

An internal auditor extracted sales data to a spreadsheet and applied judgmental analysis for sampling.

C.

An internal auditor classified solar panel sales by region and discovered unsuccessful sales representatives.

D.

An internal auditor broke down a complex process into smaller pieces to make it more understandable.

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Question # 53

Which of the following best describes the concept of relevant cost?

A.

A future cost that is the same among alternatives.

B.

A future cost that differs among alternatives.

C.

A past cost that is the same among alternatives.

D.

A past cost that differs among alternatives.

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Question # 54

Which of the following statements is true regarding the capital budgeting procedure known as discounted payback period?

A.

It calculates the overall value of a project

B.

It ignores the time value of money

C.

It calculates the time a project takes to break even.

D.

It begins at time zero for the project.

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Question # 55

According to IIA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan.

B.

CAE meets privately with The CEO at least annually.

C.

CAE meets privately with The board at least annually.

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

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Question # 56

An organization is beginning to implement an enterprise risk management program. One of the first steps is to develop a common risk language. Which of the following statements about a common risk language is true?

A.

Management will be able to reduce inherent risk because they will have a better understanding of risk.

B.

Internal auditors will be able to reduce their sample sizes because controls will be more consistent.

C.

Stakeholders will have more assurance that the risks are assessed consistently.

D.

Decision makers will understand that the likelihood of missing or ineffective controls will be reduced.

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Question # 57

Which of the following types of social responsibilities is voluntary and guided purely by the organization's desire to make social contributions?

A.

The bottom of the pyramid responsibility.

B.

Innovative responsibility.

C.

Ethical responsibility.

D.

Discretionary responsibility.

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Question # 58

Which of the following is considered a violation of The IIA's Code of Ethics?

A.

An auditor conveys public information about an organization's financial condition.

B.

An auditor reports a manager's illegal activity to senior management, rather than reporting the incident to the appropriate external authority.

C.

An auditor receives allegations of fraud from a whistleblower and immediately reports the allegations to senior management.

D.

An auditor reports material deficiencies, despite the fact that management is already aware of the defects.

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Question # 59

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annua snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

A.

Residual.

B.

Net.

C.

Inherent.

D.

Accepted.

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Question # 60

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization's enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

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Question # 61

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Question # 62

While conducting an audit of a third party's Web-based payment processor, an internal auditor discovers that a programming error allows customers to create multiple accounts for a single mailing address. Management agrees to correct the program and notify customers with multiple accounts that the accounts will be consolidated. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

1. Schedule a follow-up review to verify that the program was corrected and the accounts were consolidated.

2. Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the corrective action proposed by management.

3. Amend the scope of the subsequent audit to verify that the program was corrected and that accounts were consolidated.

4. Submit management's plan of action to the external auditors for additional review.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 63

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

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Question # 64

Which of the following statements is true regarding cost-volume-profit analysis?

A.

Contribution margin is the amount remaining from sales revenue after fixed expenses have been deducted.

B.

Breakeven point is the amount of units sold to cover variable costs.

C.

Breakeven occurs when the contribution margin covers fixed costs

D.

Following breakeven, net operating income will increase by the excess of fixed costs less the variable costs per units sold

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Question # 65

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities is appropriate for the internal audit activity to perform?

A.

Determine the optimal amount of resources for the organization to invest in CSR.

B.

Align CSR program objectives with the organization's strategic plan.

C.

Integrate CSR activities into the organization's decision-making process.

D.

Determine whether the organization has an appropriate policy governing its CSR activities.

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Question # 66

The most important reason to use risk assessment in audit planning is to:

A.

Identify redundant controls.

B.

Improve budgeting accuracy.

C.

Enhance assurance provided to management.

D.

Assist in developing audit programs.

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Question # 67

An organization is considering mirroring the customer data for one regional center at another center. A disadvantage of such an arrangement would be:

A.

Lack of awareness of the state of processing.

B.

Increased cost and complexity of network traffic.

C.

Interference of the mirrored data with the original source data.

D.

Confusion about where customer data are stored.

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Question # 68

Which of the following is a role of the board of directors in the governance process?

A.

Conduct periodic assessments of the organization's governance systems.

B.

Obtain assurance concerning the effectiveness of the organization's governance systems.

C.

Implement an effective system of internal controls to support the organization's governance systems.

D.

Review and approve operational goals and objectives.

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Question # 69

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

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Question # 70

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least likely to be a key financial control in an organization's accounts payable process?

A.

Require the approval of additions and changes to the vendor master listing, where the inherent risk of false vendors is high.

B.

Monitor amounts paid each period and compare them to the budget to identify potential issues.

C.

Compare employee addresses to vendor addresses to identify potential employee fraud.

D.

Monitor customer quality complaints compared to the prior period to identify vendor issues.

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Question # 71

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

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Question # 72

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 73

An internal auditor has been assigned to facilitate a risk and control self-assessment for the finance group. Which of the following is the most appropriate role that she should assume when facilitating the workshop?

A.

Express an opinion on the participants' inputs and conclusions as the assessment progresses.

B.

Provide appropriate techniques and guidelines on how the exercise should be undertaken.

C.

Evaluate and report on all issues that may be uncovered during the exercise.

D.

Screen and vet participants so that the most appropriate candidates are selected to participate in the exercise.

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Question # 74

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

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Question # 75

Which of the following describes a key characteristic related to effective organizational communication?

A.

Comprehensive supervisory and verification procedures.

B.

A well-designed system of internal controls.

C.

A culture of integrity and transparency.

D.

Unique operating environments with varying complexity.

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Question # 76

An internal auditor is reviewing the accounts receivable when she discovers account balances more than three years old. The auditor was previously supervising the area during this time, and she subsequently advises the chief audit executive (CAE) of a potential conflict.

Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take?

A.

Replace the auditor with another audit staff member.

B.

Continue with the present auditor, as more than one year has passed.

C.

Withdraw the audit team and outsource the financial audit of the division.

D.

Work with the division's management to resolve the situation.

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Question # 77

According to IIA guidance, which of the following should be included in the internal audit charter?

A.

The minimum resources and competencies needed for the internal audit activity.

B.

Identification of the organizational units where engagements are to be performed.

C.

Organizational relationships and reporting lines.

D.

Assigned responsibilities for designing and implementing controls.

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Question # 78

When auditing the award of a major contract, which of the following should an internal auditor suspect as a red flag for a bidding fraud scheme?

1. Subsequent change orders increase requirements for low-bid items.

2. Material contract requirements are different on the actual contract than on the request for bids.

3. A high percentage of employees are charged to indirect accounts.

4. Losing bidders are hired as subcontractors.

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Question # 79

An organization has implemented a software system that requires a supervisor to approve transactions that would cause treasury dealers to exceed their authorized limit. This is an example of which of the following types of controls?

A.

Preventive controls.

B.

Detective controls.

C.

Soft controls.

D.

Directive controls.

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Question # 80

An IT contractor applied for an internal audit position at a bank. The contractor worked for the bank's IT security manager two years ago. If the audit manager interviewed the contractor and wants to extend a job offer, which of the following actions should the chief audit executive pursue?

A.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and state that the individual is free to perform IT audits, including security.

B.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, as it would be a conflict of interest.

C.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, but state that the individual is not allowed to work on IT security audits for one year.

D.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and ask the individual to apply again in one year.

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Question # 81

What is the primary benefit to the internal audit activity for undertaking an internal quality assessment?

A.

To help the internal audit activity complete its annual assurance plan.

B.

To identify inefficiencies within the internal audit team.

C.

To help improve the overall quality of the internal audit activity's work.

D.

To identify key risks and areas of concern within the organization.

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Question # 82

According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes the activity that helps ensure risk responses are carried out effectively?

A.

Objective setting.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Event identification.

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Question # 83

Which of the following is most likely to enhance an internal auditor's objectivity?

A.

An auditor is appropriately able to communicate results.

B.

An auditor performs his work free from interference.

C.

An auditor is unrestricted in determination of scope.

D.

An auditor avoids conflicts of interest.

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Question # 84

To fill a critical vacancy, an internal auditor is assigned temporarily to a nonaudit role in the purchasing department, where she worked previously before joining the internal audit activity. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding these circumstances?

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) should review all work performed by the auditor during her temporary assignment to ensure no impairments.

B.

The CAE may conduct audits in the purchasing department during the auditor's temporary assignment.

C.

The auditor should obtain the CAE's approval as to the nature and scope of the duties she is permitted to perform during her temporary assignment.

D.

Any work performed by the auditor during her temporary assignment must conform to the internal audit charter.

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Question # 85

The internal audit activity is planning a procurement audit and needs to obtain a thorough understanding of the subcontracting process, which can involve multiple individuals in multiple countries.

Which of the following internal audit tools would be most effective to document the process and the key controls?

A.

Internal control checklist.

B.

Procurement employee survey.

C.

Cross-functional flow chart.

D.

Segregation of duties matrix.

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Question # 86

Forty-five percent of an organization's customer payments are submitted online. Eight percent of online payments are rejected. Executive management decides to outsource its online payment services to a contractor that will assume 75 percent of the total value of rejected payments. The organization estimates $1.25 million customer payments due during the contract period.

Which of the following represents the organization's residual risk for online customer payments due?

A.

$11, 250

B.

$25, 000

C.

$33, 750

D.

$45, 000

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Question # 87

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

A.

Segregation of duties.

B.

Exception reports.

C.

Incentive compensation plans.

D.

Automated reconciliations.

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Question # 88

Which of the following is an example of a management control technique?

A.

A budget.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The control environment.

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Question # 89

When developing the organization's first risk universe, which of the following would the chief audit executive be least likely to consider?

A.

The amount of risk that an organization is willing to seek or accept.

B.

The extent and degree of interdependency for identified key risks.

C.

The boundaries established to manage the amount of risk taken.

D.

The exposure to risks following management's risk responses.

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Question # 90

Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibility of the internal audit activity regarding IT governance?

1. The internal audit activity does not have any responsibility because IT governance is the responsibility of the board and senior management of the organization.

2. The internal audit activity must assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

3. The internal audit activity may assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

4. The internal audit activity may accept requests from management to perform advisory services regarding how the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

A.

1 only.

B.

4 only.

C.

2 and 4.

D.

3 and 4.

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Question # 91

Which of the following is a common type of payroll fraud?

A.

Unauthorized overtime.

B.

Fictitious employees.

C.

Unearned bonuses or commissions.

D.

Skimming.

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Question # 92

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between an individual’s average tax rate and marginal tax rate?

A.

In a regressive personal tax system, an individual's marginal tax rate is normally greater than his average tax rate.

B.

In a regressive personal tax system, an individual's marginal tax rate is normally equal to his average tax rate.

C.

In a progressive personal tax system, an individual's marginal tax rate is normally equal to his average tax rate.

D.

In a progressive personal tax system, an individual's marginal tax rate is normally greater than his average tax rate.

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Question # 93

Where complex problems need to be addressed, which of the following communication networks would be most appropriate?

A.

Chain.

B.

All-channel.

C.

Circle.

D.

Wheel.

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Question # 94

Which of the following is classified as a product cost using the variable costing method?

1. Direct labor costs

2. Insurance on a factory.

3. Manufacturing supplies.

4. Packaging and shipping costs

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 95

Which of the following factors is considered a disadvantage of vertical integration?

A.

It may reduce the flexibility to change partners.

B.

It may not reduce the bargaining power of suppliers.

C.

It may limit the organization's ability to differentiate the product.

D.

It may lead to limited control of proprietary knowledge.

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Question # 96

Which of the following is most important for an internal auditor to check with regard to the database version?

A.

Verify whether the organization uses the most recent database software version

B.

Verify whether the database software version is supported by the vendor.

C.

Verify whether the database software version has been recently upgraded

D.

Verify whether access to database version information is appropriately restricted

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Question # 97

Which of the following describes the free trade zone in an e-commerce environment?

A.

Zone that separates an organization's servers from outside forces.

B.

Area in which messages are scrutinized to determine if they are authorized.

C.

Area where communication and transactions occur between trusted parties.

D.

Zone where data is encrypted, users are authenticated, and user traffic is filtered.

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Question # 98

Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication?

A.

Filtering.

B.

Communication overload.

C.

Similar frames of reference.

D.

Lack of source credibility.

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Question # 99

A manager has difficulty motivating staff to improve productivity, despite establishing a lucrative individual reward system. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the difficulty?

A.

High degree of masculinity.

B.

Low uncertainty avoidance.

C.

High collectivism.

D.

Low long-term orientation.

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Question # 100

In mergers and acquisitions, which of the following is an example of a horizontal combination?

A.

Dairy manufacturing company taking over a large dairy farm.

B.

A movie producer acquires movie theaters.

C.

A petroleum processing company acquires an agro-processing firm.

D.

A baker taking over a competitor.

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Question # 101

Which of the following is not a potential area of concern when an internal auditor places reliance on spreadsheets developed by users?

A.

Increasing complexity over time.

B.

Interface with corporate systems.

C.

Ability to meet user needs.

D.

Hidden data columns or worksheets.

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Question # 102

What kind of strategy would be most effective for an organization to adopt in order to implement a unique advertising campaign for selling identical product lines across all of its markets?

A.

Export strategy

B.

Transnational strategy.

C.

Multi-domestic strategy

D.

Globalization strategy.

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Question # 103

Which of the following would best prevent unauthorized external changes to an organization's data?

A.

Antivirus software, firewall, data encryption.

B.

Firewall, data encryption, backup procedures.

C.

Antivirus software, firewall, backup procedures.

D.

Antivirus software, data encryption, change logs.

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Question # 104

An internal auditor is reviewing physical and environmental controls for an IT organization. Which control activity should not be part of this review?

A.

Develop and test the organization's disaster recovery plan.

B.

Install and test fire detection and suppression equipment.

C.

Restrict access to tangible IT resources.

D.

Ensure that at least one developer has access to both systems and operations.

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Question # 105

Refer to the exhibit.

IIA-ACCA question answer

Presented below are partial year-end financial statement data (000 omitted from dollar amounts) for companies A and B:

If company A has a quick ratio of 2:1, then it has an accounts receivable balance of:

A.

$100

B.

$200

C.

$300

D.

$500

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Question # 106

Division A produces a product with a variable cost of $5 per unit and an allocated fixed cost of S3 per unit The market price of the product is S15 plus 20 percent selling cost. Division B currently purchases this product from an external supplier but is going to purchase it from division A for S18 Which of the following methods of transfer pricing is being used?

A.

Market price.

B.

Negotiation-based.

C.

Full absorption cost

D.

Variable cost

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Question # 107

Which of the following COSO internal control framework components encompasses establishing structures, reporting lines, authorities, and responsibilities?

A.

Control environment.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Monitoring.

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Question # 108

Which of the following is an example of a physical security control that should be in place at an organization's data center?

A.

Backup servers in the data center are stored in an environmentally controlled location

B.

All users have a unique ID and password to access data

C.

Swipe cards are used to access the data center

D.

Firewalls and antivirus protection are in place to prevent unauthorized access to data.

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Question # 109

The decision to implement enhanced failure detection and back-up systems to improve data integrity is an example of which risk response?

A.

Risk acceptance.

B.

Risk sharing.

C.

Risk avoidance.

D.

Risk reduction.

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Question # 110

A large hospital has an existing contract with a vendor in another country to provide software support and maintenance of the hospital's patient records information system. From the hospital management's perspective, which of the following controls would be most effective to address privacy risks related to this outsourcing arrangement^

A.

Conduct periodic reviews of the privacy policy to ensure that the existing policy meets current legislation requirements in both regions.

B.

Include a "right to audit" clause in the contract and impose detailed security obligations on the outsourced vendor

C.

Implement mandatory privacy training for management to help with identifying privacy risks when outsourcing services

D.

Develop an incident monitoring and response plan to track breaches from internal and external sources

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Question # 111

Which of the following conditions could lead an organization to enter into a new business through internal development rather than through acquisition?

A.

It is expected that there will be slow retaliation from incumbents.

B.

The acquiring organization has information that the selling organization is weak.

C.

The number of bidders to acquire the organization for sale is low.

D.

The condition of the economy is poor.

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Question # 112

A multinational organization involved in online business has planned to set up a help desk service. Which of the following best describes the role performed by the help desk?

A.

Monitoring access to the online database.

B.

Backing up and maintaining archived data.

C.

Responding to customer inquiries.

D.

Maintaining and assuring network security.

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Question # 113

During an audit of the organization's annual financial statements, the internal auditor notes that the current cost of goods sold percentage is substantially higher than in prior years. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this increase?

A.

Cost of raw material inventory items is decreasing.

B.

Process to manufacture goods is more efficient.

C.

Labor productivity to produce goods is increasing.

D.

Write-off of inventory is increasing.

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Question # 114

Which of the following borrowing options is an unsecured loan?

A.

Second-mortgage financing from a bank.

B.

An issue of commercial paper.

C.

Pledged accounts receivable.

D.

Asset-based financing.

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Question # 115

An internal auditor performed a review of IT outsourcing and found that the service provider was failing to meet the terms of the service level agreement. Which of the following approaches is most appropriate to address this concern?

A.

The organization should review the skill requirements and ensure that the service provider is maintaining sufficient expertise and retaining skilled resources.

B.

The organization should proactively monitor the performance of the service provider, escalate concerns, and use penalty clauses in the contract where necessary.

C.

The organization should ensure that there is a clear management communication strategy and path for evaluating and reporting on all outsourced services concerns.

D.

The organization should work with the service provider to review the current agreement and expectations relating to objectives, processes, and overall performance.

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Question # 116

According to MA guidance, which of the following would indicate poor change management control?

1. Low change success rate

2. Occasional planned outages

3. Low number of emergency changes.

4. Instances of unauthorized changes

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 117

Which of the following is an example of a nonfinancial internal failure quality cost?

A.

Decreasing gross profit margins over time.

B.

Foregone contribution margin on lost sales.

C.

Defective units shipped to customers.

D.

Excessive time to convert raw materials into finished goods.

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Question # 118

In which of the following plans is an employee most likely to find guidance on action and performance standards?

A.

Operational plans.

B.

Tactical plans.

C.

Strategic plans.

D.

Mission plans.

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Question # 119

Which of the following authentication controls combines what a user knows with the unique characteristics of the user respectively?

A.

Voice recognition and token.

B.

Password and fingerprint.

C.

Fingerprint and voice recognition

D.

Password and token

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Question # 120

According to the ISO 14001 standard, which of the following is not included in the requirements for a quality management system?

A.

Key processes across the entity which impact quality must be identified and included.

B.

The quality management system must be documented in the articles of incorporation, quality manual, procedures, work instructions, and records.

C.

Management must review the quality policy, analyze data about quality management system performance, and assess opportunities for improvement and the need for change.

D.

The entity must have processes for inspections, testing, measurement, analysis, and improvement.

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Question # 121

Which of the following is true regarding an organization's relationship with external stakeholders?

A.

Specific guidance must be followed when interacting with nongovernmental organizations.

B.

Disclosure laws tend to be consistent from one jurisdiction to another.

C.

There are several internationally recognized standards for dealing with financial donors.

D.

Legal representation should be consulted before releasing internal audit information to other assurance providers.

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Question # 122

Which of the following should be included in a privacy audit engagement?

1. Assess the appropriateness of the information gathered.

2. Review the methods used to collect information.

3. Consider whether the information collected is in compliance with applicable laws.

4. Determine how the information is stored.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Question # 123

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Question # 124

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization's health and safety program?

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

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Question # 125

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the authority of the chief audit executive (CAE) to release previous audit reports to outside parties?

A.

The CAE can release prior internal audit reports with the approval of the board and senior management.

B.

The CAE can employ judgment and release prior audit results as they deem appropriate and necessary.

C.

The CAE can only release prior information outside the organization when mandated by legal or statutory requirements.

D.

The CAE can release prior information provided it is as originally published and distributed within the organization.

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Question # 126

The chief risk officer (CRO) of a large manufacturing organization decided to facilitate a workshop for process managers and staff to identify opportunities for improving productivity and reducing defects. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CRO chose the workshop approach?

A.

It minimizes the amount of time spent and cost incurred to gather the necessary information.

B.

Responses can be confidential, thus encouraging participants to be candid expressing their concerns.

C.

Workshops do not require extensive facilitation skills and are therefore ideal for nonauditors.

D.

Workshop participants have an opportunity to learn while contributing ideas toward the objectives.

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Question # 127

Which of the following activities is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud.

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

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Question # 128

A manufacturer is under contract to produce and deliver a number of aircraft to a major airline. As part of the contract, the manufacturer is also providing training to the airline's pilots. At the time of the audit, the delivery of the aircraft had fallen substantially behind schedule while the training had already been completed. If half of the aircraft under contract have been delivered, which of the following should the internal auditor expect to be accounted for in the general ledger?

A.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

B.

All completed training costs, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

C.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and 50% of contracted production costs.

D.

All completed training costs, and 50% of the contracted production costs.

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Question # 129

A draft internal audit report that cites deficient conditions generally should be reviewed with which of the following groups?

1. The client manager and her superior.

2. Anyone who may object to the report’s validity.

3. Anyone required to take action.

4. The same individuals who receive the final report.

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

1, 2, and 4

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Question # 130

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Question # 131

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Question # 132

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

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Question # 133

When forming an opinion on the adequacy of management's systems of internal control, which of the following findings would provide the most reliable assurance to the chief audit executive?

• During an audit of the hiring process in a law firm, it was discovered that potential employees' credentials were not always confirmed sufficiently. This process remained unchanged at the following audit.

• During an audit of the accounts payable department, auditors calculated that two percent of accounts were paid past due. This condition persisted at a follow up audit.

• During an audit of the vehicle fleet of a rental agency, it was determined that at any given time, eight percent of the vehicles were not operational. During the next audit, this figure had increased.

• During an audit of the cash handling process in a casino, internal audit discovered control deficiencies in the transfer process between the slot machines and the cash counting area. It was corrected immediately.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Question # 134

Which of the following statements is false regarding audit criteria?

A.

Audit criteria should be consistent across audit assignments.

B.

Audit criteria should represent reasonable standards against which to assess existing conditions.

C.

Audit criteria should provide flexibility but allow identification of nonadherence.

D.

Audit criteria should equate to good or acceptable management practices.

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Question # 135

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

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Question # 136

Which of the following is a justifiable reason for omitting advance client notice when planning an audit engagement?

A.

Advance notice may result in management making corrections to reduce the number of potential deficiencies.

B.

Previous management action plans addressing prior internal audit recommendations remain incomplete.

C.

The engagement includes audit assurance procedures such as sensitive or restricted asset verifications.

D.

The audit engagement has already been communicated and approved through the annual audit plan.

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Question # 137

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 138

A chief audit executive is preparing interview questions for the upcoming recruitment of a senior internal auditor. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes shows a candidate's ability to probe further when reviewing incidents that have the appearance of misbehavior?

A.

Integrity.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Initiative.

D.

Curiosity.

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Question # 139

Due to price risk from the foreign currency purchase of aviation fuel, an airliner has purchased forward contracts to hedge against fluctuations in the exchange rate. When recalculating the exchange losses from individual purchases of jet fuel, which of the following details does the internal auditor need to validate?

1. The hedge documentation designating the hedge.

2. The spot exchange rate on the transaction date.

3. The terms of the forward contract.

4. The amount of fuel purchased.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 140

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

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Question # 141

An auditor identifies three errors in the sample of 25 entries selected for review (a 12 percent error rate). Based on this result, the auditor assumes that approximately 59 of the total population of 492 entries are incorrect. To reach this assumption, the auditor has used a technique known as which of the following?

A.

Variability tolerance.

B.

Ratio estimation.

C.

Stratification.

D.

Acceptance sampling.

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Question # 142

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an area in which the internal auditor should be proficient?

A.

Management principles.

B.

Computerized information systems.

C.

Internal audit standards, procedures, and techniques.

D.

Fundamentals of accounting, economics, and finance.

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Question # 143

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is not a responsibility of the chief audit executive pertaining to documenting information to support internal audit engagement results and conclusions?

A.

Rating each engagement record to assess its relevance and accessibility for the organization's board.

B.

Controlling access to engagement records, including access by senior management.

C.

Developing retention requirements for engagement records that are consistent with organizational guidelines.

D.

Forming policies governing the custody and retention of consulting engagement records before their release to other parties.

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Question # 144

A furniture manufacturer has installed a new fire sprinkler system at its central warehouse and canceled the existing fire insurance policy on that property. What change of risk response strategy does this course of action most likely reflect?

A.

From sharing to reduction.

B.

From acceptance to reduction.

C.

From sharing to avoidance.

D.

From acceptance to avoidance.

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Question # 145

An internal audit team is performing an audit of workplace accident claims.

Which of the following actions by the audit team best demonstrates due professional care?

A.

Having an occupational health officer on the engagement team.

B.

Determining that the claims have been classified properly.

C.

Placing reliance on medical reports from the injured worker's doctor.

D.

Reviewing claims to ensure all accidents actually occurred in the workplace.

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Question # 146

Faced with a complex, highly technical construction audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) considered complementing the current internal audit resources by engaging the services of a civil engineer.

Which of the following should the CAE consider in determining whether the engineer possesses the necessary skills to perform the engagement?

1. Professional certification, license, or other recognition of the engineer's competence in the relevant discipline.

2. Experience of the engineer in the type of work being considered.

3. Compensation or other incentives that the engineer may receive.

4. The extent of other ongoing services that the engineer may be performing for the organization.

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, and 4 only

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Question # 147

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a formal risk management framework?

1. It facilitates a methodical approach to risk mitigation.

2. It defines and standardizes the terminology used in risk communication.

3. It establishes the risk tolerance levels to be accommodated in the strategy.

4. It facilitates the alignment of risk mitigation strategies with management priorities.

A.

1.2, and 3.

B.

1,2, and 4.

C.

1.3, and 4.

D.

2. 3, and 4.

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Question # 148

Which of the following control methods is effective in reducing the risk of purchasing-scheme fraud?

1. Periodically reviewing the vendor list for unusual vendors and addresses.

2. Segregating duties for amount purchasing, receiving, shipping, and accounting.

3. Validating sequential integrity of purchase orders.

4. Verifying the validity of invoices with post office box addresses.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Question # 149

An auditor in charge was reviewing the workpapers submitted by a newly hired internal auditor. She noted that the new auditor's analytical work did not include any rating or quantification of the risk assessment results, and she returned the workpapers for correction. Which section of the workpapers will the new auditor need to modify?

A.

Condition section.

B.

Criteria section.

C.

Effect section.

D.

Cause section.

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Question # 150

Which of the following controls could an internal auditor reasonably conclude is effective by observing the physical controls of a large server room?

A.

Adequate signs are in place to assist in locating safety equipment.

B.

Servers are secured individually to their racks by locks.

C.

Foam fire extinguishers are operable to protect against electrical fires.

D.

Swipe card access is required to gain access to the server room.

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Question # 151

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

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Question # 152

While preparing for an audit of senior management expenses, the chief audit executive (CAE) learns that management is unable to locate a number of original expense claims to support the related disbursements. She decides to defer the engagement until they can be located. Which of the following principles likely guided the CAE's decision?

A.

Objectivity.

B.

Proficiency.

C.

Independence.

D.

Due professional care.

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Question # 153

Which of the following control activities is the most effective to ensure users' levels of access are appropriate for their current roles?

A.

The human resources department generates a monthly list of terminated and transferred employees and requests IT to update the user access as required.

B.

Standardized user access profiles are developed and the appropriate access profiles are automatically assigned to new or transferred employees.

C.

System administrator rights are assigned to one user in each department who can update user access of terminated or transferred employees immediately.

D.

Department managers are required to perform periodic user access reviews of relevant systems and applications.

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Question # 154

An internal auditor who is carrying out an engagement to review controls related to corporate tax reporting must possess which of the following competencies?

1. Proficiency in analyzing key IT risks and controls.

2. The ability to recognize significant deviations from good business practices.

3. Knowledge of key indicators of fraud in tax reporting.

4. The ability to recognize the existence of problems related to tax accounting.

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

3 and 4 only.

C.

2, 3, and 4 only.

D.

1,2, 3, and 4.

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Question # 155

The manager for an organization's accounts payable department resigned her post in that capacity. Three months later, she was recruited to the internal audit activity and has been working with the audit team for the last eight months. Which of the following assignments would the newly hired internal auditor be able to execute without any impairments to independence or objectivity?

A.

An operations audit of the accounts payable department.

B.

A consulting engagement related to a new accounts payable optimization initiative.

C.

A review of the employees' sports club finances, which are overseen by the chief audit executive.

D.

An assurance review for a sales program on which she previously provided consultation.

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Question # 156

Which of the following responsibilities would fall under the role of the chief audit executive, rather than internal audit staff or the audit manager?

A.

Manage and support a quality assurance and improvement program.

B.

Maintain industry-specific knowledge appropriate to the audit engagements

C.

Set clear performance standards for internal auditors and the internal audit activity.

D.

Apply problem-solving techniques for routine situations.

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Question # 157

Which of the following offers the best evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization's system of internal controls to be adequate and effective.

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO.

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives.

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Question # 158

According to The MA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework, which of the following areas of training would best assist the internal audit activity in improving its use of tools and techniques?

A.

Negotiation and conflict resolution.

B.

Project management.

C.

Financial accounting.

D.

Ethics and fraud.

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Question # 159

An internal auditor wants to sample data to test an audit theory in a cost-effective way. Which of the following sampling strategies should she use?

A.

Statistical sampling only

B.

Nonstatistical sampling only

C.

A combination of both statistical and nonstatistical sampling.

D.

Neither approach to testing the audit theory would be cost effective.

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Question # 160

An internal auditor is conducting a financial audit. Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate when existing internal controls are weak?

A.

Analytical procedures.

B.

Detail testing.

C.

Test of design.

D.

Test of control.

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Question # 161

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

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Question # 162

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 163

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Question # 164

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

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Question # 165

An internal auditor is assessing the organization's risk management framework. Which of the following formulas should he use to calculate the residual risk?

A) IIA-ACCA question answer

B)IIA-ACCA question answer

C) IIA-ACCA question answer

D) IIA-ACCA question answer

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 166

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

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Question # 167

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client's business objectives.

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Question # 168

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

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Question # 169

A large investment organization hired a chief risk officer (CRO) to be responsible for the organization's risk management processes. Which of the following people should prioritize risks to be used for the audit plan?

A.

Operational management, because they are responsible for the day-to-day management of the operational risks.

B.

The CRO, because he is responsible for coordinating and project managing risk activities based on his specialized skills and knowledge.

C.

The chief audit executive, although he is not accountable for risk management in the organization.

D.

The CEO, because he has ultimate responsibility for ensuring that risks are managed within the agreed tolerance limits set by the board.

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Question # 170

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization's board?

1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 171

An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the cash receipts process?

A.

Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.

B.

Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.

C.

Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.

D.

Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.

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Question # 172

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

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Question # 173

Which of the following recommendations made by the internal audit activity (IAA) is most likely to help prevent fraud?

A.

A review of password policy compliance found that employees frequently use the same password more than once during a year. The IAA recommends that the access control software reject any password used more than once during a 12-month period.

B.

A review of internal service-level agreement compliance in financial services found that requests for information frequently are fulfilled up to two weeks late. The IAA recommends that the financial services unit be eliminated for its ineffectiveness.

C.

A vacation policy compliance review found that employees frequently leave on vacation before their leave applications are signed by their manager. The IAA recommends that the manager attend to the leave applications in a more timely fashion.

D.

A review of customer service-level agreements found that orders to several customers are frequently delivered late. The IAA recommends that the organization extend the expected delivery time advertised on its website.

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Question # 174

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate actions for the chief audit executive regarding management's response to audit recommendations?

A.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

B.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

C.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

D.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

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Question # 175

The final internal audit report should be distributed to which of the following individuals?

A.

Audit client management only

B.

Executive management only

C.

Audit client management, executive management, and others approved by the chief audit executive.

D.

Audit client management, executive management, and any those who request a copy.

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Question # 176

A large retail organization, which sells most of its products online, experiences a computer hacking incident. The chief IT officer immediately investigates the incident and concludes that the attempt was not successful. The chief audit executive (CAE) learns of the attack in a casual conversation with an IT auditor. Which of the following actions should the CAE take?

1. Meet with the chief IT officer to discuss the report and control improvements that will be implemented as a result of the security breach, if any.

2. Immediately inform the chair of the audit committee of the security breach, because thus far only the chief IT officer is aware of the incident.

3. Meet with the IT auditor to develop an appropriate audit program to review the organization's Internet-based sales process and key controls.

4. Include the incident in the next quarterly report to the audit committee.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 177

According to IIA guidance, organizations have the most influence on which element of fraud?

A.

Opportunity.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Incentives.

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Question # 178

The newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a large multinational corporation, with seasoned internal audit departments located around the world, is reviewing responsibilities for engagement reports. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true?

A.

The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign every engagement report.

B.

The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign all regulatory compliance engagement reports only

C.

The CAE may delegate responsibility for reviewing, approving and signing engagement reports, but should review the reports after they are issued.

D.

The internal audit charter must identify authorized signers of engagement reports.

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Question # 179

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

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Question # 180

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

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Question # 181

The internal audit activity (IAA) wants to measure its performance related to the quality of audit recommendations. Which of the following client survey questions would best help the IAA meet this objective?

A.

Were audit findings relevant and useful to management?

B.

Does the audit report format present issues clearly and concisely?

C.

Does the IAA work with a high degree of professionalism and objectivity?

D.

Were the findings reported in a timely manner?

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