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  • Exam Name: Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®)
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IIA-CCSA Practice Exam Questions with Answers Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Certification

Question # 6

Procedures and information related to the achievement of organizational objectives and the operational efficiency and effectiveness of the organizations refers to:

A.

Administrative controls

B.

Accounting controls

C.

Procedural controls

D.

Financial records

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Question # 7

The process of monitoring the external and internal environment of an organization is commonly referred to as:

A.

Inspecting environment

B.

Monitoring environment

C.

Environmental inspection

D.

Environmental scanning

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Question # 8

Which of the following is NOT the step involved in strategic planning process?

A.

Develop strategic plan

B.

Develop specific plan

C.

Communicate the plan

D.

Monitor the plan

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Question # 9

Who are the people who benefit from the organization, use its products or services or who are otherwise associated?

A.

Managers

B.

Employees

C.

Stakeholders

D.

Team workers

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Question # 10

A technically sophisticated tool and approach to study a process variation for the purpose of improving the economic effectiveness of the process, is called:

A.

Process mapping

B.

Improve productivity

C.

Effectiveness of control

D.

Team mobilization

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Question # 11

An organization-wide commitment to quality is called Quality control.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 12

What is commonly used to produce a quick answer to a specific question or concern about a particular process, activity or procedure?

A.

Rapid flow analysis

B.

Immediate respondents

C.

Management-produces analysis

D.

Supervision board

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Question # 13

To disclose all material facts known to internal auditors that if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review, this one of the rules of:

A.

Objectivity

B.

Integrity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Expert judgment

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Question # 14

Which of the following is Correct?

A.

People are one of the weakest links in control processes.

B.

Processes are one of the weakest links in control processes.

C.

Products are one of the weakest links in control processes.

D.

Inadequate Planning is one of the weakest links in control processes.

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Question # 15

Proficiency at cultivating and maintaining a web of relationships means to establish a:

A.

Aptitude association

B.

Competence union

C.

Connection

D.

Building bond

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Question # 16

In traditional approach, evaluating risks and controls were done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 17

Which activities are designed and implemented to reduce, or otherwise manage, risk at levels that were determined to be acceptable to the management and board?

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Mitigation

C.

Risk Measurement

D.

Risk Prioritization

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Question # 18

The risk remaining after management takes action to reduce the impact and likelihood of an adverse event is called residual risk.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 19

Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.

A.

Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality

B.

Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency

C.

Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency

D.

Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise

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Question # 20

Flowcharting is a common method used to document major processes in order to identify them within the program.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 21

Segregation of the accounts payable, disbursement and accounting functions would define a:

A.

Control point

B.

Accountability

C.

Expense level

D.

None of the above

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Question # 22

Risks are accessed on both an inherent and a residual basis and the assessment considers both risk likelihood impact.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 23

What has the ability to combine both qualitative and quantitative data in imaginative ways?

A.

Facts

B.

Impacts

C.

Scenarios

D.

Figures

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Question # 24

Unrestricted access to subsidiary ledgers and general ledger is a fraud warning sign of:

A.

Accounts payable

B.

Cash receipt

C.

Inventory

D.

Accounts receivable

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Question # 25

The aim of the workshop is to evaluate, update, validate, improve and streamline the whole process and its component activities in:

A.

Procedure-based format

B.

Process-based format

C.

Activity-based format

D.

Process-based format

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Question # 26

Failure to effectively correct inappropriate behavior could result in a breakdown in the group dynamic and the entire CSA process.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 27

A document that outlines in visual and narrative format the processes and control points within the process is called:

A.

Flowchart

B.

Visual aids

C.

Visual illustration

D.

None of the above

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Question # 28

Programmed procedures designed to prevent, detect and correct errors or irregularities that could adversely impact the organization’s business activities are called:

A.

Manual controls

B.

Error controls

C.

Internal controls

D.

Automated controls

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Question # 29

The identification and analysis of relevant risks associated with achieving objectives the forming a basis for determining how risks should be managed and controlled is called:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk audits

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Question # 30

What flow from and are linked with the organization’s entity wide objectives and strategic plans?

A.

Entity wide plans

B.

Activity-level objectives

C.

General applications

D.

Risk control activities

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Question # 31

To articulate performance objectives and provide a means of evaluating whether the objectives have been achieved, this is the goal of:

A.

Performance plan

B.

Performance resources

C.

Performance outcomes

D.

Performance management

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Question # 32

Internal audit reports characteristic of the internal auditor’s paradigm has internal control as its old paradigm and addressing process risks as its old paradigm.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 33

What involves comparing the program’s performance with other similar programs that are effective?

A.

Trend analysis

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Comparing efficiency

D.

None of the above

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Question # 34

Use of observations and interviews to study how people learn, interact with others or make decisions refers to:

A.

Open-ended discussion

B.

Focus groups

C.

Ethnographic analysis

D.

None of the above

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Question # 35

Management thinks in terms of risk (implicitly and explicitly), and management rarely thinks in terms of control.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 36

Which of the following is Correct?

A.

Managers are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

B.

Internal auditors are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

C.

Team workers are often involved in CSA because of their experience in business of the organization.

D.

External auditors are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

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Question # 37

Under the Securities and Exchange Commission’s final rules, management’s annual internal control report must avoid:

A.

Identify the framework used by management to evaluate effectiveness of internal control.

B.

Shun around the internal control over financial reporting for the company.

C.

Management’s assessment of the effectiveness of the internal control.

D.

A statement that auditor has to issue an attention report on management’s assessment.

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Question # 38

The employee theft risk has safeguard supply inventory as a control objective and uses which technique to control risk?

A.

Develop recovery technique

B.

Install detection devices

C.

Develop quality control structure

D.

install security camera

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Question # 39

____________ refers the assessment of risks and opportunities affecting the achievement of the organization’s goals and objectives.

A.

Organizational risk management

B.

Operational risk assessment

C.

Business risk management

D.

Business risk assessment

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Question # 40

What generally includes estimating the risk’s significance, assessing the likelihood of its occurrence and deciding how to manage the risk and what actions should be taken?

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Risk management

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Question # 41

A process to identify events potentially affecting the entity and manage risk within its risk appetite is known as:

A.

Enterprise Risk Management

B.

Stricter Risk Disclosure

C.

Overlapping Risk Classification

D.

Risk Management Strategy

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Question # 42

Performance results can be measured in terms of:

A.

Quality, time, performance

B.

Quality, quantity, time

C.

Data, quantity, time

D.

Quality, quantity, resources

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Question # 43

Tall organization structures have a large number of levels between the top of the organization and the bottom.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 44

__________ can be used in control self-assessment workshops in conjunction with other interactive programs such as OptionFinder to allow participants to anonymously express their opinions on the information presented.

A.

Presentation devices

B.

Seminar software

C.

Occupational software

D.

Presentation software

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Question # 45

Work group participants may be suspicious and even hostile, seeing CSA as a management ploy to find out more about them, when:

A.

auditor implements several critical points with respect to use of CSA

B.

auditor doesn’t able to recognize several critical points with respect to use of CSA

C.

auditor reports several critical points with respect to use of CSA

D.

auditor recognizes several critical points with respect to use of CSA

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Question # 46

The ability to manage yourself and your responsibilities is called:

A.

Management awareness

B.

Achievement Orientation

C.

Conscientiousness

D.

Adaptability

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Question # 47

Operations control is related to the:

A.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s cost.

B.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s space.

C.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s time.

D.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s resources.

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Question # 48

____________ is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve an organization’s operations.

A.

Audit-committee approval

B.

Cross-enterprise

C.

Internal auditing

D.

External auditing

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Question # 49

Which auditors provide varying degrees of assurance about the state of effectiveness of the risk management and control processes of the organization?

A.

Senior management

B.

Operating managers

C.

Internal & External

D.

Organizational

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Question # 50

Remedy of the circumstances that allowed the unauthorized activity or return conditions to what they were before the violation, is called:

A.

Access control

B.

Solution

C.

Corrective controls

D.

None of the above

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Question # 51

Which of the following is correct?

A.

Employees should rarely monitor the effect of changes in the entity’s internal environment and modify the strategic initiatives as necessary.

B.

Management should constantly monitor the effect of changes in the entity’s external environment and modify the strategic initiatives as necessary.

C.

Stakeholders should monitor the effect of changes in the entity’s external environment and modify the operational initiatives as necessary.

D.

Organization should monitor the effect of changes in the entity’s external environment and modify the employee orientation as necessary.

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Question # 52

Determination that the evidence has a logical relationship to the findings is known as:

A.

Competency

B.

Feasibility

C.

Relevancy

D.

Testimonial

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Question # 53

Which of the following is correct?

A.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and limits internal controls to external controls over financial reporting.

B.

Integrated framework defines external control broadly and does not limit external controls to external controls over financial reporting.

C.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and limits internal controls to accounting controls over financial reporting.

D.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and does not limit internal controls to accounting controls over financial reporting.

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Question # 54

The risks including exposure to equipment, machinery and work processes are referred to as:

A.

Expertise risks

B.

Safety risks

C.

Strategic risks

D.

Environmental risks

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Question # 55

In traditional approach, objectives used were of management’s and in control selfassessment approach it is of work teams’.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 56

Non-discretionary controls are:

A.

subject to human choice or judgment

B.

customary controls with which all auditors are familiar.

C.

automatically provided by the system and cannot be bypassed, ignored or overridden based on human judgment.

D.

addresses intangibles such as competence, values, openness and leadership and more difficult to grasp.

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Question # 57

Which of the following is NOT the factor involved that influence the state of an organization’s control environment?

A.

History of control weakness

B.

Strong code of conduct

C.

Strong ethics policy

D.

Improve productivity

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Question # 58

Which of the following is Correct?

A.

In traditional approach, reporting was done by work teams and in control selfassessment approach it is done by auditors.

B.

In traditional approach, reporting was done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.

C.

In traditional approach, setting business objectives were done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach it is done by management.

D.

In traditional approach, accessing risks were done by auditors and in control selfassessment approach it is also done by auditors.

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Question # 59

The ongoing monitoring and reporting of the accomplishments of an organization and its progress towards achieving established objectives is called:

A.

Progression

B.

Change effectiveness

C.

Efficiency

D.

Performance measurement

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Question # 60

No proper documentation of adds, changes or deletions to vendor master file is a fraud warning sign of:

A.

Personality characteristics

B.

Organizational characteristics

C.

Accounts payable

D.

Accounts receivable

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Question # 61

The measures are generally quantitative in that they measure the quantities of products or services delivered by an organization are referred to as:

A.

Output measures

B.

Extensive measures

C.

Experimental measures

D.

Operational measures

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Question # 62

A process for gathering information, without detailed verification, on the activity being examined is called:

A.

Examination

B.

Analysis

C.

Investigation

D.

Survey

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Question # 63

The CSA process that results in identification of fraud indicators as well as actual fraudulent activities is called:

A.

Fraudulent statements

B.

Reduced risk of fraud

C.

Accountability and control

D.

Natural reluctance to change

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Question # 64

When organizations delegate authority and make decisions by using managers from more then one subarea, these refer to:

A.

Template organization

B.

Complex structure

C.

Matrix organization

D.

Multilevel hierarchical structure

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Question # 65

Evaluators determine how individuals react to written or verbal communication through;

A.

Gesture exposures

B.

Focus groups

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Forms analysis

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Question # 66

Which of the following is correct?

A.

Individual decisions are reached through deviation building

B.

Individual decisions are reached through consensus building

C.

Group decisions are reached through deviation building

D.

Group decisions are reached through consensus building

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Question # 67

The process of helping management and/or work teams assess the likelihood of meeting business objectives is called:

A.

CSA facilitation

B.

CSA process

C.

CSA goal

D.

CSA function

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Question # 68

Which of the following is Correct?

A.

Checklist, a document similar to questionnaire that contains more narrative and less Yes/No questions.

B.

Memorandum, a document similar to questionnaire that contains less narrative and more Yes/No questions.

C.

Checklist, a document similar to questionnaire that contains less narrative and more Yes/No questions.

D.

Memorandum, a document similar to questionnaire that contains more narrative and less Yes/No questions.

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Question # 69

To relate high-level goals, aligned with and supporting the entity’s mission/vision is called:

A.

Strategic act

B.

Operational law

C.

Objective setting

D.

Event identification

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Question # 70

Which of the following is NOT the type of organizational structures?

A.

Flat vs. tall organizational structures

B.

Centralized vs. decentralized organizations

C.

Productive vs. unproductive structures

D.

Mechanistic vs. organic structures

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Question # 71

Which of the following is correct?

A.

External control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more dispersed categories.

B.

Internal control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more separate but overlapping categories.

C.

External control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more separate but overlapping categories.

D.

Internal control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more dispersed categories.

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Question # 72

In organizational with decentralized structures where employees within highly trained specialties are granted decision-making authority within their functional area is called:

A.

Machine bureaucracy

B.

Professional bureaucracy

C.

Functional bureaucracy

D.

Decisional bureaucracy

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Question # 73

Ratio analysis is:

A.

comparison of statistics by showing the relationship of one or more type of units to a single type of unit

B.

comparison of equivalence by showing the equivalent relationship of one type of unit to a different type of unit

C.

comparison of rationality by showing the relationship of multiple types of units to a single type of unit

D.

comparison of proportionality by showing the relationship of one type of unit to a different type of unit

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Question # 74

Management styles can be categorized in which two classifications?

A.

Practitioner management and participative management

B.

Autocratic management and participative management

C.

Arbitrary management and exclusive management

D.

Autocratic management and proactive management

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Question # 75

The ability to take charge and inspire with a compelling vision is known as:

A.

Directed vision

B.

Visionary leadership

C.

Visionary management

D.

Intended vision

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Question # 76

If control risk is although minimum, extensive substantive testing will be necessary to determine the validity of transactions and data.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 77

Description, action steps, time frames, delineated responsibilities are all factors of Objective statements.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 78

Internal audit focus characteristic of the internal auditor’s paradigm has internal control as its old paradigm and its new paradigm is:

A.

Important risks

B.

continuous monitoring

C.

Business risk

D.

Diversify risk

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Question # 79

An ethical tone has been established at the top of the organization and has been communicated throughout the organization.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 80

Which of the following is NOT the entity’s objective that is consistent with the entity’s risk appetite?

A.

Strategic

B.

Operations

C.

Reporting

D.

Internal environment

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Question # 81

What involve developing a purpose and goals statement for CSA, resource budgets and projected completion time lines?

A.

Resource planning

B.

Organizational planning

C.

Operational planning

D.

Strategic planning

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