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IIA-CGAP Practice Exam Questions with Answers Certified Government Auditing Professional Certification

Question # 6

Government entities generally have the authority and responsibility to issue and require adherence to their policies and regulations relating to contracts. Accounting and control considerations for contracts include the following given below please choose the correct option:

A.

Development and approval of a pre-award form to ensure unobligated funds equal to the estimated amount of the contract.

B.

Specifications or statement of work describing goods and services to be obtained (including quality standards).

C.

Settlement of any advances of money and inventories of property in a manner consistent with agency policy or contract conditions.

D.

All of the above.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 7

Circumstances that contribute to the difficulty of measuring experimental programs include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

The program can be very small.

B.

The program may not be large enough to draw useful inferences from the results.

C.

Lack of baseline data to compare program results with.

D.

Some outcomes can be hard to measure either from the lack of measurement instruments, such as changes in self-esteem, or from the logistical difficulty in measuring.

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Question # 8

All of the following are the Specific aspects of proper audit supervision EXCEPT:

A.

Ensuring that staff auditors are qualified to perform their assignments and Verifying that audit working papers adequately support audit findings, conclusions, and recommendations.

B.

Providing clear and timely instructions to staff so audit objectives are achieved.

C.

Approving the audit program and ensuring that it is followed, unless approved changes are made.

D.

Implemented adequate audit policies and procedures.

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Question # 9

The term _______refers to methods designed to describe or summarize the characteristics of a data set. The term _______refers to methods designed to allow inferences or estimates to be made about the characteristics of a data set.

A.

inferential statistics, descriptive statistics

B.

standard deviation, mean

C.

descriptive statistics, inferential statistics

D.

median, arithmetic mean

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Question # 10

Examples of standards language in contracts cover the following areas please choose the correct option:

A.

Conflict of interest disclosure.

B.

Anti-kickback or non-bribery clause.

C.

Property rights of the end product.

D.

B & C only.

E.

All of the above.

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Question # 11

_________assess the overall effect of the program and are typically conducted on a periodic or as needed basis, in contrast to performance measurement, which is performed on an ongoing basis.

A.

performance evaluation

B.

Program evaluations

C.

evaluate performance

D.

evaluate employees

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Question # 12

The purpose of the external quality control review is to determine whether the organization’s internal quality control system is in place and operating effectively to provide reasonable assurance that established policies and procedures and applicable auditing standards are being followed.

A.

Quality control, Quantity control

B.

Internal quality control system, External quality control

C.

External quality control, Internal quality control system

D.

Quantity control, Quantity control

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Question # 13

________is a concept relating to the accumulation of the audit evidence necessary for the auditor to conclude that there are no material misstatements in the financial statements taken as a whole. While the ________ is responsible for forming and expressing an opinion on the financial statements, the responsibility for preparing and presenting the financial statements is that of the management of the entity.

A.

Reasonable assurance, auditor

B.

Audit policy, controller

C.

Reasonable assurance, trainer

D.

Audit record, auditor

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Question # 14

Systems software consists of computer programs and related routines that control computer processing. Control techniques for systems software include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Securing dial-up lines for access to computer resources.

B.

Setting appropriate system parameters and security options for operating systems.

C.

Controlling procurement and maintenance of software licenses.

D.

Using the security features of security software effectively.

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Question # 15

___________ is a contract for a supply that does not procure or specify a firm quantity of supplies (other than a minimum or maximum quantity), and that provides for the issuance of orders for the delivery of supplies during the period of the contract. Where as _________ is a contract that may be used to acquire supplies and/or services when the exact times and/or exact quantities of future deliveries are not known at the time of contract award.

A.

Delivery order, indefinite quantity

B.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee is, Cost-plus-incentive-fee

C.

Cost-reimbursement, Cost sharing

D.

Cost-plus-incentive-fee, Cost sharing

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Question # 16

In testing the controls established by management, auditors should be able to identify if there are high-risk areas for integrity violations. Auditor responsibilities for detecting integrity violations include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Auditors should evaluate the evidence and determine the appropriate course of action. An investigation may be warranted if indicators strongly suggest that integrity violations occurred.

B.

When significant control weaknesses are found, the auditor should conduct sufficient tests to determine if these weaknesses resulted in integrity violations. The level of testing should increase as the number or significance of control weaknesses increases.

C.

Auditors must not have the knowledge and skills to adequately identify when violations occurred.

D.

Auditors should notify the proper legal authorities, if warranted.

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Question # 17

Which of the following factors may influence the auditors’ assessment of control risk please choose the correct option:

A.

Assignment of responsibility and delegation of authority to deal with such matters as organizational goals and objectives, operating functions, and regulatory requirements.

B.

Customer policy regarding such matters as acceptable operating practices and codes of conduct.

C.

Management’s awareness or lack of awareness of applicable laws and regulations.

D.

All of the above

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Question # 18

If the state and local governments are not ready to meet the guidelines of GASB 34, the consequences may be serious and costly. The implications of noncompliance include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Qualified or adverse opinion on financial statements from external auditors.

B.

improves financial credibility.

C.

Possible regulatory violations and Diminished public trust.

D.

Decrease in bond rating and corresponding increase in cost of financing debt.

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Question # 19

Audit reports should state the audit objectives, scope, and methodology. If appropriate, the report should describe any performance aspects examined (e.g., outputs, outcomes). The audit scope should describe as necessary all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

The kinds and sources of evidence used.

B.

Organizational structure

C.

The depth and coverage of work performed to accomplish the audit objectives, including a description of specific controls tested.

D.

Confidential information omitted from the report.

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Question # 20

Taxation is the most common form of revenue generation for governments; however, there are other sources. All of the following are some of the common forms of revenue generation EXCEPT:

A.

Property tax — this is the mainstay of most local governments and is a tax on land and improvements such as buildings.

B.

Income taxes that are paid as a percentage of your income.

C.

Flat tax — The same tax rate is charged to all taxpayers.

D.

all the liabilities

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Question # 21

All of The following are guidelines for developing adequate performance measures EXCEPT:

A.

Use a “family” of measures to capture multiple dimensions of performance.

B.

Measures used should focus on measurable aspects of performance.

C.

Performance measures should be comprehensive enough to reach valid conclusions about the program.

D.

Renewal applications (number of applications received).

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Question # 22

The Canadian Comprehensive Auditing Foundation (CCAF) lists the following 12 attributes that management should be reporting on regarding the effectiveness of their organizations please choose the correct option:

A.

Management direction (e.g., clarity of objectives), continued relevance of a program, Appropriateness of program design and Achievement of intended results.

B.

Satisfaction of clients or stakeholders, Secondary impacts, Costs and productivity,Responsiveness to changed circumstances and financial results.

C.

Quantify effect (difference between condition and criteria).

D.

The extent to which the organization provides an appropriate work environment for its Employees, Safeguarding of assets and Monitoring and reporting of performance

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Question # 23

__________have been developed to address historical concerns regarding government employment selection and compensation. Abuses of patronage systems in which the victor of political elections hired political allies led to the introduction of merit systems:

A.

Government regulatory systems

B.

Government personnel systems

C.

private personnel systems

D.

public personnel systems

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Question # 24

Grants are used by governments to operate programs and provide services. Common types of grant classifications include the following given below please choose the correct option:

A.

Formula grants — legally mandated funding levels and restrictions on eligible grantees, with little or no discretion being exercised by the grantor.

B.

Project grants — Similar to contracts because grantors agree to pay the grantee for services, performance, or a specific project.

C.

Construction grants — Awarded only for construction of permanent facilities.

D.

All of the above.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 25

Following are the advantages of privatization listed below please choose the correct option:

A.

Increased potential for corruption and fraud as services are outsourced to multiple firms.

B.

Reduced control over services as services are outsourced to multiple firms.

C.

Limited numbers of potential vendors (increased costs).

D.

More responsiveness to service consumers and more metrics to measure performance as profit incentives are introduced.

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Question # 26

All of the following are the general steps to follow when testing a hypothesis EXCEPT:

A.

State the null and alternative hypotheses.

B.

Establish the criterion for rejecting or accepting the null hypothesis.

C.

Analyze the data. Data analysis involves collecting sampled items, estimating the parameter, and calculating the value of the sample mean.

D.

Accept the null hypothesis only.

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Question # 27

Financial management in the public sector differs significantly from its private-sector counterpart. The foundation of the public financial management system is based on the following principles EXCEPT:

A.

Democratic consent

B.

accessibility

C.

Probity and Prudence

D.

Equity and Transparency

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Question # 28

________includes objectives related to an organization’s goals, such as customer service, the safeguarding and efficient use of resources, profitability, and meeting social obligations. Where as __________includes objectives related to matters such as the maintenance of proper accounting records, the reliability of information used within the organization, and of information published for third parties.

A.

Reliability of internal and external reporting, Effectiveness and efficiency of operations.

B.

Reliability of external and external reporting, Effectiveness and efficiency of operations.

C.

Reducing operational surprises, Effectiveness and efficiency of operations.

D.

Effectiveness and efficiency of operations, Reliability of internal and external reporting.

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Question # 29

_________is defined as the ongoing monitoring and reporting of program accomplishments, particularly progress toward established goals.

A.

control measurement

B.

Performance measurement

C.

Quality measurement

D.

quantity measurement

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Question # 30

There are some compensating benefits that the public sector can offer its workforce to offset the generally higher salaries available in the private sector.62 .These can include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Benefits — Generous amount of paid days off per year as holidays, plus accrued vacation and reasonable health insurance.

B.

Training and development — Generally at par with the private sector.

C.

Incentives — Cash awards given to employees with significant cost effective suggestions.

D.

None of the above.

E.

All of the above.

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Question # 31

Samples can be made more efficient by using either of the following methods please choose the correct option:

A.

Sequential or stop-or-go sampling and Discovery sampling

B.

Stratified sample and Probability samples

C.

Judgment samples and Probability samples

D.

Probability samples and Stratified sample

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Question # 32

The most common form of service delivery is via government employees. It is this approach that has created bureaucracies at the national, regional, and, in some cases, local level. All of the following given below are some of the disadvantages of direct delivery of services by government employees EXCEPT:

A.

Increased lead time for deployment of new programs as internal staff resources are allocated among current and proposed programs.

B.

Indirect (“hidden”) costs to program (pension, benefits, training, etc.).

110

C.

Direct (“hidden”) costs to program (pension, benefits, training, etc.).

D.

Decreased flexibility to make changes/reductions (due to constraints on hiring, layoffs, and position reclassification).

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Question # 33

Managers must measure and track performance because citizens and legislative bodies are increasingly demanding evidence of the appropriate use of public resources and the achievement of public goals. Auditors must understand performance measurement because their audit objectives may call for independent measurement of organizational performance.

A.

organizers, leaders

B.

Managers, Auditors

C.

Auditors, Managers

D.

planners, organizers

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Question # 34

Investment risk refers to the likelihood of a loss. All of the following given below are types of investment risk EXCEPT.

A.

Liquidity risk — Losses resulting because invested dollars cannot be accessed. Losses may occur from penalties for early withdrawal, for example.

B.

Economic Risks __One of the most obvious risks of investing is that the economy can go bad.

C.

Default risk — the possibility of a loss resulting from the bankruptcy of an organization in which funds were invested.

D.

Market risk — the possibility of a loss resulting from choosing a relatively poor investment from a large pool of investments.

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Question # 35

Primary customers are those individuals or groups that sponsor the audit. All of the following are examples of primary customers EXCEPT:

A.

University and research groups.

B.

Local/city governments.

C.

National governments.

D.

Regional/state governments.

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Question # 36

Elements of public accountability Include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Performance budgeting and reporting.

B.

Financial reporting and open government.

C.

Remoteness and Complexity

D.

Evaluations and Monitoring

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Question # 37

Personnel systems and central personnel offices typically provide all of the following services EXCEPT:

A.

Recruiting

B.

Selection

C.

Training

D.

planning

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Question # 38

________can be defined as Contractual agreements can end either naturally (i.e., by reaching the termination date or delivery of the final product) or by other means. Where as ______can be define as the contractor shall maintain adequate accounting records and supporting documents to verify the amounts, recipients, and uses of all payments and funds received in conjunction with the contract for a designated period of time:

A.

Anti-kickback or non-bribery clause, Right to audit

B.

Conflict of interest disclosure, Anti-kickback or non-bribery clause

C.

Contract termination, Right to audit

D.

Right to audit, Property rights of the end product

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Question # 39

All of the Following are the major categories of performance measures EXCEPT:

A.

Input measures

B.

Process measures

C.

Output measures

D.

control measures

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Question # 40

One mechanism to help ensure the proper application of audit standards is through ____________. The purpose of _______________ is to provide feedback to management on the effectiveness of the quality control policies and procedures of an organization:

A.

An external quality review process

B.

An internal quality review process

C.

Organizational review process

D.

Audit review process

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Question # 41

Consulting services are advisory in nature, and are generally performed at the specific request of an engagement client. The nature and scope of the consulting engagement are subject to agreement with the engagement client. All of the following are the parties generally involved in consulting services EXCEPT:

A.

The person or group using the assessment — the user.

B.

the person or group offering the advice — the internal auditor

C.

The person or group directly involved with the process, system, or other subject matter — the process owner.

D.

the person or group seeking and receiving the advice — the engagement client

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Question # 42

As a part of the development of the Professional Practices Framework, significant portions of the information contained in the __________ Guidelines have been converted to Practice Advisories. Omnibus Practice Advisories ___________ are based on information previously published in the ________ but have been updated to be consistent with the new Standards and the Professional Practices Framework:

A.

“Yellow Book”, 100-1 through 3600-1, “Red Book”

B.

“Red Book”, 1000-1 through 2600-1, “Red Book”

C.

“Black Book”, 2000-1 through 2600-1, “Red Book”

D.

“Blue Book”, 1000-1 through 600-1, “Red Book”

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Question # 43

Financial statements which are fairly presented meet all of the following guide lines EXCEPT:

A.

Generally accepted accounting principles are used.

B.

Financial statements classify and summarize information in a reasonable manner.

C.

Financial statements reflect underlying transactions and events in a way that facilitates the presentation of the financial position, results of operations, and cash flows.

D.

Ensuring that staff auditors are qualified to perform their assignments and Verifying that audit working papers adequately support audit findings, conclusions, and recommendations

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Question # 44

All of the following are the components of The Professional Practices Framework which was approved by The IIA’s Board of Directors in June 1999 EXCEPT:

A.

Definition of Internal Auditing and Standards

B.

Mandatory Guidance

C.

Code of Ethics (See Section I.D) and Practice Advisories

D.

Development and Practice Aids

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Question # 45

The risk analysis process involves all of the following given below EXCEPT:

A.

Identify auditable activities (e.g., programs, accounts, contracts, transactions).

B.

Estimate the significance of a risk (e.g., magnitude of exposure in dollars or other type of measure, type of threat, duration, etc.).

C.

do not Estimate the likelihood that a risk will occur and do not determine how to manage the risks.

D.

Estimate the likelihood that a risk will occur and Prioritize risks.

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Question # 46

A ________ is a contract or contractual action entered into by a prime contractor or subcontractor for the purpose of obtaining supplies, materials, equipment, or services of any kind under a prime contract. Where as in ______________ multiple awards are given for certain contracts to more than one responsible bid. Generally, the contracts are similar in conditions and amounts.

A.

subcontract, Multi-award contracts

B.

Multi-award contracts, subcontract

C.

Building service contract, Facilities contract

D.

Professional and consultant services, Transportation term contracts

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Question # 47

All of the following are types of audit services EXCEPT:

A.

Audits of Compliance and Audits of Information and Related Technology

B.

Audits of Financial Statements and Audits of Financial Systems

C.

Audits of Performance/Value-for-Money/Operations (e.g., economy, efficiency, effectiveness).

D.

quality services

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Question # 48

All of The following are questions auditors may ask when testing controls of safeguards over assets and records please choose the correct option:

A.

Is confidential or sensitive information kept separate from other records?

B.

Does management provide a favorable control environment in the organization?

C.

Does adequate physical security exist over assets and records? Are storerooms locked? Are equipment and inventories properly recorded? Are there adequate environmental controls over assets (e.g., appropriate temperature)?

D.

Only A & C

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Question # 49

Which of the following are the two broad classifications of management styles please mark the correct option:

A.

Autocratic management

B.

Consultative management

C.

Participative management.

D.

Directing management

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