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IIA-CRMA Practice Exam Questions with Answers Certification in Risk Management Assurance (CRMA) Exam Certification

Question # 6

An organization has implemented a new automated payroll system that contains a table of pay rates that are matched to employee job classifications. Which control should an internal auditor suggest in order to ensure that the table is updated correctly, and is used only for valid pay changes?

A.

Restrict data-table access from management and line supervisors who have the authority to determine pay rates.

B.

Require a supervisor in the department, who has the ability to change the table, to compare the changes to a signed management authorization.

C.

Ensure that adequate edit and reasonableness checks are built into the automated system.

D.

Require a manager, who is independent of the system and who cannot change the table, to authorize and sign-off on any employee pay changes.

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Question # 7

Which of the following is a preventive control?

A.

Creating an audit trail.

B.

Placing controls on physical access to inventory.

C.

Reconciling purchase orders with approvals.

D.

Reviewing expense accounts for irregularities.

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Question # 8

What is the primary purpose of a fishbone diagram?

A.

To depict the areas of responsibility for departments in an organization.

B.

To plan and control complex projects, such as internal audits.

C.

To represent the frequencies of adverse conditions in a given process.

D.

To identify the possible causes of adverse conditions.

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Question # 9

Allegations have been made that an organization's share price has been manipulated.

Which of the following would provide an internal auditor with the most objective evidence in this case?

A.

Major shareholders of the organization.

B.

Large customers of the organization.

C.

Former members of management.

D.

Former financial consultants.

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Question # 10

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

A.

Senior management should approve the charter before it is submitted to the board.

B.

The charter should describe the purpose and authority of the internal audit activity, consistent with the Standards.

C.

The charter should define the consulting services that the internal audit activity is permitted to perform.

D.

The CEO periodically should assess whether the terms of the charter continue to be adequate.

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Question # 11

Which of the following statements best explains why internal auditors map processes?

1. To obtain audit evidence to support auditor's observations.

2. To determine scope and objectives of the audit.

3. To facilitate the identification of ownership and responsibility for key risks.

4. To identify potential efficiency improvements.

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 4.

D.

3 and 4.

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Question # 12

Which of the following would provide the best evidence of errors in the quantities of items received from suppliers?

A.

Suppliers' reports of over shipments.

B.

Warehouse receiving logs.

C.

Purchase requisitions and purchase orders.

D.

Observation and inspection of inventory.

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Question # 13

During the course of an audit, an internal auditor discovers that a valuable employee in the research department has been patenting new developments in the employee's name that are unrelated to the basic business of the organization.

The organization does not have a policy addressing this specific issue, but does have a general policy that all important new discoveries by employees are the property of the organization.

Division management views the employee's actions as extra incentive to retain the employee.

A decision to include the employee's action in the engagement final communication would be:

1. A violation of the IIA Code of Ethics.

2. A violation of the reporting requirements in the Standards.

3. Justified and necessary, according to the IIA Code of Ethics and Standards.

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1 and 2 only

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Question # 14

Which of the following statements describes a control failure that is not directly attributable to a customer billing application?

1. End users have raised a number of concerns regarding data integrity.

2. An untested program change is transferred from the test environment to production.

3. Purchase history does not reconcile with accounts receivable for some customers.

4. End user security is inadvertently granted to an unauthorized individual by management.

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Question # 15

When conducting an interview, an internal auditor is most likely to ask open-ended questions in order to:

A.

Obtain specific answers and maximize efficiency.

B.

Gather factual data on several different topics.

C.

Determine agreement or disagreement with a stated viewpoint.

D.

Obtain information based on the person's own perspective.

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Question # 16

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the best example of a system application control?

A.

A physical security control over a data center.

B.

A system development life cycle control.

C.

A program change management control.

D.

An input control over data integrity.

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Question # 17

Which of the following would not be a red flag for fraud?

A.

Several recent, large expenditures to a new vendor have not been documented.

B.

A manager has bragged about multiple extravagant vacations taken within the last year, which are excessive relative to the manager's salary.

C.

A weak control environment has been accepted by management to encourage creativity.

D.

New employees occasionally fail to meet established project deadlines due to staffing shortages.

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Question # 18

Which of the following decisions made during the testing phase of a compliance audit requires the most judgment by an internal auditor?

A.

Which sampling methodology to select for testing.

B.

Which fields to examine on each invoice.

C.

Whether an individual expenditure is allowable.

D.

What level of noncompliance is acceptable.

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Question # 19

Management of a publicly-held organization requires the internal audit activity to be involved with quarterly financial statements, which are made public and used internally. Which of the following explanations of management's decision is least plausible?

A.

Management may be concerned about its reputation in the financial markets.

B.

Management is following best-practice protocol, as stipulated by the Standards, which states that internal auditors must review quarterly financial statements.

C.

Management may be concerned about potential penalties that could occur if quarterly financial statements are misstated.

D.

Management may perceive that having quarterly financial information examined by the internal auditors enhances the information's value to internal decision making.

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Question # 20

While reviewing first quarter sales transactions, an internal auditor discovered that 10 invoices for a new customer had not been posted into the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger. Those 10 invoices were listed in an error report automatically generated by the sales processing system. The system had rejected the invoices because the customer's account number was not found in the customer master file. In this scenario, which of the following controls was lacking?

A.

Corrective control.

B.

Preventive control.

C.

Detective control.

D.

Directive control.

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Question # 21

After being terminated due to downsizing, an internal auditor finds a different job with an organization in the same industry. Which of the following actions would violate the IIA Code of Ethics?

A.

To determine audit priorities in the new job, the auditor uses the audit risk approach that the auditor's previous employer used, without receiving permission to do so.

B.

At the new organization, the auditor is asked to develop forms to implement probability-proportional-to-size sampling. Although unsure of how to perform this type of sampling, the auditor proceeds without asking for assistance.

C.

In preparing for an audit at the previous organization, the auditor had conducted a great deal of research on the Internet at home to identify best practices for the management of a treasury function. The auditor has retained much of the research and uses it to conduct an audit of the new employer's treasury function.

D.

In the first week at the new organization, the auditor discovers a high fraud risk surrounding the organization's database and suggests that the information technology department implement a new password system to prevent fraudulent actions before they occur.

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Question # 22

Which of the following types of social responsibilities is voluntary and guided purely by the organization's desire to make social contributions?

A.

The bottom of the pyramid responsibility.

B.

Innovative responsibility.

C.

Ethical responsibility.

D.

Discretionary responsibility.

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Question # 23

Which of the following activities should the chief audit executive perform to ensure compliance with an organization's code of conduct?

A.

Act as an adviser to the committee responsible for reviewing violations of the code.

B.

Review and adjudicate all violations of the code of conduct.

C.

Lead the committee responsible for the oversight of the code.

D.

Implement a system of procedures to inform all employees of the code.

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Question # 24

According to The IIA's Code of Ethics, which of the following statements is true?

A.

When an internal auditor releases required information to a regulator, resulting in a significant loss through fines and penalties for the organization, he fails to add value.

B.

When an internal auditor limits the scope of the audit engagement after learning that management is hiding relevant information, he demonstrates integrity.

C.

When an internal auditor disagrees with the treatment received by workers in the organization's foreign subsidiary and alters the audit program to highlight the issue, he fails to demonstrate objectivity.

D.

When an internal auditor continues with an audit engagement, despite the audit client's claims that the work performed is unnecessary and redundant he fails to demonstrate competency.

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Question # 25

Which of the following combinations of conditions is most likely a red flag for fraud?

A.

The practice of surprise audits and the implementation of an employee support program.

B.

Hiring an employee with a prior fraud conviction and yearly management review.

C.

Occasional accounting department overrides and discontinuation of the anonymous fraud hotline due to infrequent use.

D.

A veteran employee in upper management experiencing financial difficulties and recently implemented enhanced controls.

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Question # 26

Which of the following would be the most appropriate first step for the board to take when developing an effective system of governance?

A.

Determine the organization's overall risk appetite.

B.

Establish a governance committee.

C.

Delegate authority to members of senior management.

D.

Identify key stakeholders and their expectations.

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Question # 27

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

A.

Segregation of duties.

B.

Exception reports.

C.

Incentive compensation plans.

D.

Automated reconciliations.

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Question # 28

According to IIA guidance, which of the following should be formally documented in the internal audit charter?

A.

The internal audit activity's responsibility for imposing risk management processes.

B.

The internal audit activity's responsibility for the organization's governance framework.

C.

The nature of consulting services provided by the internal audit activity.

D.

The budgeting process for the internal audit activity.

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Question # 29

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements describes one of the similarities between assurance and consulting services?

A.

When planning assurance and consulting engagements, internal auditors must consider the strategies and objectives of the activity being reviewed.

B.

Internal auditors determine the engagement objectives, scope, and work program for both assurance and consulting services.

C.

Internal auditors must not provide assurance or consulting services for an activity for which they had responsibility within the previous year.

D.

Both assurance and consulting services generally involve the internal auditor, the area under review, senior management, and the board.

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Question # 30

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) performs all high-risk engagements on the annual audit plan to make use of his knowledge and experience and to maximize the efficient use of audit resources. Which of the following statements is most relevant regarding this practice?

A.

The CAE's work may be reviewed by any other experienced staff member within the IAA.

B.

The CAE's work should be reviewed by an individual with the appropriate background and knowledge.

C.

The CAE may self-review his work, provided he discloses this practice in the final report.

D.

The CAE should avoid performing engagements to ensure he is able to review all audit work objectively.

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Question # 31

Which of the following control methods is effective in reducing the risk of purchasing-scheme fraud?

1. Periodically reviewing the vendor list for unusual vendors and addresses.

2. Segregating duties for amount purchasing, receiving, shipping, and accounting.

3. Validating sequential integrity of purchase orders.

4. Verifying the validity of invoices with post office box addresses.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Question # 32

Which of the following factors have the greatest influence on the independence of the internal audit activity?

A.

Quality assessments and cultural biases of the internal audit activity.

B.

Rotational assignments and familiarity of the internal audit activity.

C.

Employee incentives and self review of the internal audit activity.

D.

Organizational positioning and scope control of the internal audit activity.

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Question # 33

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annua snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

A.

Residual.

B.

Net.

C.

Inherent.

D.

Accepted.

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Question # 34

Click the Exhibit.

IIA-CRMA question answer

Internal auditors are asked to keep track of how many hours per day they spend planning the audit, conducting the engagement, and writing the audit report. The data for two days has been collected as follows:

Day 1

Day 2

Planning the audit

2 hours

3 hours

Conducting the engagement

1 hour

1 hour

Writing the audit report

2 hours

4 hours

Which of the following graphs depicts the data accurately?

A.

Graph A only

B.

Graph B only

C.

Both A and B.

D.

Neither A nor B.

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Question # 35

Which of the following is a detective control strategy against fraud?

A.

Requiring employees to attend ethics training.

B.

Performing background checks on employees.

C.

Implementing a control self-assessment.

D.

Performing a surprise audit.

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Question # 36

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

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Question # 37

An internal audit charter, approved by the board, restricts the internal audit activity to providing assurance only on the reliability of financial information and the effectiveness of internal accounting controls. Which of the following statements is true regarding the extent to which the external auditor may rely on the internal audit activity's work?

A.

The external auditor may make full use of the work, as the audit charter is very specific as to the work the internal audit activity may undertake.

B.

The external auditor may use the work, as the board has approved the charter, thus taking responsibility for any deficiencies.

C.

The external auditor must disregard the work, as the scope of the charter may introduce bias and result in a lack of due professional care.

D.

The external auditor may use the work with caution, due to the internal audit activity's scope and responsibility restrictions.

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Question # 38

According to COSO, which of the following is not considered one of the components of an organization's internal environment?

A.

Authority and responsibility to resolve issues.

B.

Framework to plan, execute and monitor activities.

C.

Integrated responses to multiple risks.

D.

Knowledge and skills needed to perform activities.

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Question # 39

The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning to conduct an internal assessment of the internal audit activity (IAA). Part of this assessment will include benchmarking. According to IIA guidance, which of the following qualitative metrics would be appropriate for the CAE to use?

1. Average client customer satisfaction score for a given year.

2. Client survey comments on how to improve the IAA.

3. Auditor interviews once an audit has been completed.

4. Percentage of audits completed within 90 days.

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements is true regarding assurance services provided to clients outside of the organization?

A.

Assurance services for outside clients are not covered under the internal audit charter.

B.

Assurance services for outside clients must be approved on a case-by-case basis by the board of directors.

C.

The nature of assurance services for outside clients should be defined in the internal audit charter.

D.

The nature of assurance services for outside clients is the same as for internal clients.

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Question # 41

A furniture manufacturer has installed a new fire sprinkler system at its central warehouse and canceled the existing fire insurance policy on that property. What change of risk response strategy does this course of action most likely reflect?

A.

From sharing to reduction.

B.

From acceptance to reduction.

C.

From sharing to avoidance.

D.

From acceptance to avoidance.

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Question # 42

Which of the following documents is most appropriate in promoting the objectivity of the internal audit activity?

A.

Usage of IT system policy.

B.

Risk management framework.

C.

Acceptance of gifts policy.

D.

Personal responsibility policy.

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