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Which AP function is typically NOT considered a good candidate for business process outsourcing (BPO)?
Performance monitoring
Check printing
Utility payments
Invoice imaging
TheTechnology and Automationtopic in the APS Certification Program covers the use of technology to streamline AP processes and the potential for outsourcing certain functions to business process outsourcing (BPO) providers. BPO is commonly used for repetitive, transaction-based tasks such as check printing, utility payments, and invoice imaging, which benefit from automation and economies of scale. However,performance monitoring—which involves analyzing AP metrics, ensuring compliance, and optimizing processes—is typically retained in-house, as it requires strategic oversight and organizational knowledge.
Option A (Performance monitoring): Performance monitoring involves tracking key performance indicators (KPIs) like invoice processing time, error rates, and compliance with internal controls. This function requires deep understanding of the organization’s goals and policies, making it less suitable for outsourcing. This is the correct answer.
Option B (Check printing): Check printing is a routine, mechanical task that can be efficiently outsourced to BPO providers with secure printing and mailing capabilities. It is a common BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Option C (Utility payments): Utility payments are standardized, recurring transactions thatcan be automated and outsourced to BPO providers, often integrated with electronic payment systems. This is a good BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Option D (Invoice imaging): Invoice imaging (scanning and digitizing invoices) is a repetitive task that leverages automation and is frequently outsourced to BPO providers with imaging technology. This is a common BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTechnology and Automationdiscusses BPO as a strategy for “outsourcing transactional AP tasks like invoice imaging, check printing, and payment processing to improve efficiency.” It notes that strategic functions, such as “performance monitoring and analytics,” are typically retained in-house to maintain control over compliance and process optimization. The IOFM training video emphasizes that BPO is ideal for high-volume, low-complexity tasks, while performance monitoring requires internal expertise to align with organizational objectives.
To establish a successful shared services center, each of the following is required EXCEPT:
Performance metrics
A customer service orientation
A greenfield site
A change in mindset
TheTechnology and Automationtopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers strategies for optimizing AP processes, including the establishment of shared services centers (SSCs). SSCs consolidate back-office functions like AP to improve efficiency and reduce costs. Key requirements for a successful SSC include performance metrics to measure success, a customer serviceorientation to support internal and external stakeholders, and a change in mindset to embrace centralized processes. However, agreenfield site(a new, undeveloped location) is not a requirement, as SSCs can be established in existing facilities or virtual environments.
Option A (Performance metrics): Performance metrics (e.g., cost per invoice, processing time) are essential to evaluate the SSC’s efficiency and ensure alignment with organizational goals. This is a requirement.
Option B (A customer service orientation): SSCs must prioritize service to internal clients (e.g., departments) and external stakeholders (e.g., vendors), ensuring smooth communication and issue resolution. This is a requirement.
Option C (A greenfield site): A greenfield site refers to a new facility built from scratch. SSCs can operate in existing offices, leased spaces, or even digitally, making a greenfield site unnecessary. This is the correct answer, as it is not required.
Option D (A change in mindset): Transitioning to an SSC requires employees and management to adopt a centralized, process-driven approach, moving away from decentralized silos. This cultural shift is a requirement.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTechnology and Automationdiscusses SSCs as a way to “streamline AP through centralized processes, requiring performance metrics, a service-oriented approach, and a cultural shift to succeed.” It notes that SSCs can be established in various locations, with no mention of a greenfield site as a necessity. The training video highlights case studies of SSCs, emphasizing metrics and mindset changes but not physical site requirements.
In the U.S., what is the best way to verify a vendor’s business registration?
Send a letter to the vendor requesting written confirmation that the registration is up-to-date
Submit a request to the Internal Revenue Service to do a Form 1120 search
Require a sworn affidavit from the vendor’s financial institution
Check the database of the Secretary of State where the vendor is registered
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program covers vendor validation to ensure legitimacy and prevent fraud. The best way to verify a vendor’s business registration in the U.S. is tocheck the database of the Secretary of Statein the state where the vendor is registered, as this provides authoritative, public confirmation of the vendor’s legal status and registration details.
Option A (Send a letter to the vendor requesting written confirmation): Incorrect. Vendor-provided confirmation is less reliable, as it may be falsified, and is not authoritative.
Option B (Submit a request to the IRS to do a Form 1120 search): Incorrect. Form 1120 is a corporate tax return, not a business registration record, and the IRS does not provide registration verification services.
Option C (Require a sworn affidavit from the vendor’s financial institution): Incorrect. Financial institutions do not typically provide affidavits for business registration, and this is not a standard practice.
Option D (Check the database of the Secretary of State where the vendor is registered): Correct. Secretary of State databases offer verifiable, public records of business registration, the most reliable method.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “To verify a vendor’s business registration, check the Secretary of State database in the vendor’s state of incorporation for authoritative confirmation.” The training video notes, “The best practice for validating vendor legitimacy is accessing Secretary of State records online to confirm registration details.”
All of the following items are typically addressed in an organization’s vendor setup guidelines except:
Validating that the person who requested the new vendor is authorized to do so
Whether or not the vendor outsources its order fulfillment process
The conventions for the way letters and abbreviations must be entered
Verification that the vendor is not already in the system
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program covers vendor setup guidelines, which ensure consistency, accuracy, and compliance when adding new vendors. Guidelines typically include validating requester authority, standardizing data entry, and checking for duplicates.Whether the vendor outsources its order fulfillment processis a procurement or operational concern, not typically part of VMF setup guidelines.
Option A (Validating that the person who requested the new vendor is authorized to doso): Included, to ensure only authorized personnel initiate vendor setups, reducing fraud risk.
Option B (Whether or not the vendor outsources its order fulfillment process): Not typically included, as this relates to vendor operations, not VMF data or setup compliance. Correct answer.
Option C (The conventions for the way letters and abbreviations must be entered): Included, to ensure consistent data formatting (e.g., “Inc.” vs. “Incorporated”) for accurate reporting.
Option D (Verification that the vendor is not already in the system): Included, to prevent duplicate vendor records, which can lead to errors like double payments.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Vendor setup guidelines include verifying requester authority, standardizing data entry, and checking for duplicates, but operational details like outsourcing fulfillment are handled by Procurement.” The training video notes, “Setup guidelines focus on data integrity and compliance, not vendor business processes like fulfillment.”
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) has not gained more widespread use, particularly by small and medium-size companies, in part because of:
Government regulations
Staff resistance
Costly technology
Security concerns
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) enables the automated exchange of business documents, such as invoices and purchase orders, between trading partners. While EDI offers efficiency, its adoption by small and medium-sized companies is limited primarily due tocostly technology, including high implementation and maintenance costs for hardware, software, and integration. Government regulations (Option A), staff resistance (Option B), and security concerns (Option D) may pose challenges, but the primary barrier is cost.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “EDI adoption is hindered for small and medium-sized businesses due to the high costs of implementing and maintaining EDI systems, including software and integration expenses.” This directly supports Option C as the primary reason for limited EDI use.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including technologies like EDI. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” acknowledges barriers to technology adoption, with cost being a significant factor for smaller organizations.
What is a limitation typically associated with a blanket purchase order?
It is only issued for purchasing services, not for goods
It should not extend past a specified timeframe
It must be settled with a same-day wire transfer
It should only be created for a specific delivery date
A blanket purchase order (PO) is a long-term agreement with a supplier to purchase goods or services over a specified period, often used for recurring or high-volume purchases. A key limitation is that itshould not extend past a specified timeframe, as blanket POs are typically set for a defined duration (e.g., one year) to manage pricing, terms, and supplier commitments. Extending beyond this timeframe without renegotiation can lead to pricing discrepancies or supply chain issues.
The web source from NetSuite explains: “A blanket purchase order covers multiple deliveries over a set period, but it is limited by a specified timeframe to ensure pricing and terms remain valid.” This directly supports Option B. The other options are incorrect:
Option A: Blanket POs can be used for both goods and services, not just services.
Option C: Payment terms for blanket POs vary and are not restricted to same-day wire transfers.
Option D: Blanket POs are designed for multiple deliveries over time, not a specific delivery date.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Invoices,” including the use of purchase orders in invoice processing. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the understanding of blanket POs and their time-bound nature.
Sales and use taxes are levied by which of the following? I. Cities and towns; II. Federal government; III. States.
II and III only
III only
I and III only
I, II, and III
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers sales and use taxes, which are imposed on the sale or use of goods and services. In the U.S., sales and use taxes are levied bystatesand, in many cases,cities and towns(local jurisdictions). Thefederal governmentdoes not impose sales or use taxes, as this authority is reserved for state and local governments.
Item I (Cities and towns): Many cities and towns impose local sales taxes, often in addition to state taxes, to fund municipal services. This is a valid taxing authority.
Item II (Federal government): The federal government does not levy sales or use taxes; it imposes taxes like income or excise taxes. This is not a valid taxing authority for sales and use taxes.
Item III (States): States are the primary authorities for sales and use taxes, setting rates and rules for taxable transactions. This is a valid taxing authority.
Option A (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item II is not a valid taxing authority.
Option B (III only): Incorrect, as Item I is also a valid taxing authority.
Option C (I and III only): Correct, as only states and local jurisdictions (cities and towns) levy sales and use taxes.
Option D (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item II is not a valid taxing authority.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “Sales and use taxes are levied by states and local jurisdictions, such as cities and towns, but not by the federal government.” The training video discusses AP’s role in managing sales tax compliance, noting that “states and local governments set sales tax rates, while the federal government does not impose such taxes.”
Procurement card (P-card) issuers offer rebates according to:
Volume of spend
Number of individual transactions
Frequency of use
Quantity of cards issued
Procurement cards (P-cards) are corporate credit cards used for business purchases, and issuers often offer rebates or incentives to encourage their use. These rebates are typically based on the volume of spend, meaning the total dollar amount charged to the P-card over a specified period. This incentivizes organizations to consolidate more purchases on the card, benefiting both the issuer (through transaction fees) and the organization (through rebates).
The web source from Corcentric states: “P-card issuers commonly offer rebates based on the total volume of spend, encouraging organizations to increase card usage for eligible purchases.” This confirms that rebates are tied to the dollar amount spent (Option A), not the number of transactions (Option B), frequency of use (Option C), or number of cards issued (Option D).
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including P-card programs and their benefits. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the industry standard that rebates are based on spend volume, as this drives cost savings and program efficiency.
When auditing expense reports, one thing to pay particular attention to is:
Restaurant receipts that include client names
Highly itemized receipt details
Amounts just below the approval threshold
Airfare expenses in combination with hotel costs
When auditing T&E expense reports, a key red flag isamounts just below the approval threshold, as employees may intentionally submit expenses slightly under the limit to avoid additional scrutiny or approval, potentially masking fraudulent or non-compliant claims. This practice, known as “threshold manipulation,” requires close attention during audits.
The web source from Tipalti states: “During T&E audits, pay particular attention to expenses just below the approval threshold, as employees may manipulate amounts to bypass additional review, indicating potential fraud.” This directly supports Option C. The other options are less critical:
Restaurant receipts with client names (A)may be useful for substantiation but are not a primary audit concern.
Highly itemized receipt details (B)are desirable for clarity, not a red flag.
Airfare with hotel costs (D)is a common combination and not inherently suspicious.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” including auditing techniques for expense reports. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with scrutinizing amounts just below approval thresholds to detect potential fraud.
A three-way match is governed by the invoice, the purchase order, and which of the following?
Remittance advice
Bank draft
P-card statement
Receiving documents
The three-way match is a standardized accounts payable process used to verify the legitimacy of a supplier invoice before payment by cross-referencing three key documents: the purchase order (PO), the supplier invoice, and the receiving documents (also referred to as the receiving report, goods received note, or delivery receipt). This process ensures that the invoice reflects the agreed-upon terms of the purchase order and that the goods or services were actually delivered as specified, thereby mitigating risks of overpayment, fraud, or errors.
The correct answer is “Receiving documents,” as these confirm the delivery of goods or services and are a core component of the three-way match. The purchase order authorizes the purchase, specifying quantities, prices, and terms. The invoice details the supplier’s request for payment. The receiving documents verify that the ordered items were delivered, matching the quantities and conditions specified in the PO.
The other options are not part of the three-way match:
Remittance adviceis a document sent to the supplier to confirm payment details after the payment is made, not part of the verification process.
Bank draftis a payment instrument, not a document used for matching.
P-card statementrelates to procurement card transactions, which are typically not subject to the three-way match process, as they follow a different reconciliation process.
The NetSuite source clearly defines the three-way match: “Three-way matching is a payment verification technique that compares the details associated with a particular purchase across a trio of related documents… Purchase order, which authorizes a purchase to be made… Delivery receipt, or a receiving report, which confirms that the purchase was delivered… Supplier’s invoice, which lists how much the buyer owes the supplier”. Similarly, the Tipalti source states: “PO Matching: Ensure accuracy and prevent fraud with 2 and 3-way PO matching,” reinforcing that the three-way match involves the PO, invoice, and receiving documents. The Ramp source further clarifies: “3-way matching is a fraud-prevention process used by accounts payable teams to verify invoices before payment. It cross-checks three documents: Purchase order (PO)… Goods received note (GRN)… Supplier invoice”.
While the IOFM APS study guide is not directly quoted in the provided sources for this specific question, the IOFM Accounts Payable Specialist Certification Program emphasizes the three-way match under the “Invoices” and “Internal Controls” modules. The program description notes that it covers “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process – from receipt of invoice, through processing and payment,” which includes the three-way match process. The focus on accuracy, compliance, and fraud prevention in IOFM’s curriculum aligns with the standard definition of the three-way match involving the PO, invoice, and receiving documents.
The accounting term “accrued expenses” represents which of the following?
Forecasted expenses for which an invoice has not been received in the current period
Planned expenditures that have not been incurred in the current period
Incurred expenses that have not been posted in the current period
Pre-paid expenses that were paid with petty cash
ThePaymentstopic in the APS Certification Program covers accounting concepts like accrued expenses, which are critical for accurate financial reporting.Accrued expensesare expenses that have been incurred (i.e., the organization has received goods or services) but have not yet been paid or recorded (posted) in the accounts payable system, often because an invoice has not been received by the period’s end. These are recognized to match expenses with the period they relate to, per accrual accounting principles.
Option A (Forecasted expenses for which an invoice has not been received): Incorrect, as accrued expenses are not forecasted (estimated future costs); they are actual expenses already incurred.
Option B (Planned expenditures that have not been incurred): Incorrect, as planned but unincurred expenditures are not recognized in accounting until incurred.
Option C (Incurred expenses that have not been posted in the current period): Correct. Accrued expenses are costs incurred (e.g., utilities used) but not yet recorded or paid, oftendue to a missing invoice, and are accrued to ensure accurate period-end reporting.
Option D (Pre-paid expenses that were paid with petty cash): Incorrect, as pre-paid expenses are paid in advance and recorded as assets, not accrued expenses, which are unpaid liabilities.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underPaymentsdefines accrued expenses as “expenses incurred in the current period but not yet posted or paid, often recorded at period-end to reflect true financial obligations.” The training video provides examples, such as accruing wages or utilities when invoices are delayed, emphasizing the importance of accrual accounting for financial accuracy.
In double-entry accounting, which of the following pairs of accounting entries are made when an invoice has been paid?
Credit cash and debit the asset account
Debit the expense and credit the AP liability account
Debit cash (asset) and credit the AP liability account
Credit cash and debit the AP liability account
In thePaymentsandInvoicestopics of the IOFM APS Certification Program, double-entry accounting principles are covered to ensure AP professionals understand how transactions are recorded. When an invoice is paid, the organization settles an accounts payable (AP) liability, which is a balance sheet account representing money owed to vendors. The payment typically involves a cash outflow (or reduction in a bank account) and a corresponding reduction in the AP liability.
In double-entry accounting, every transaction affects at least two accounts, with debits equaling credits. The process of paying an invoice involves:
When the invoice isreceived, the AP department records the liability by debiting an expense account (or asset, depending on the purchase) and crediting the AP liability account. This step is not the focus of the question.
When the invoice ispaid, the AP liability is reduced, and cash is reduced. The correct journal entry is:
Debit Accounts Payable (AP liability): This reduces the liability, as the organization no longer owes the vendor.
Credit Cash: This reflects the outflow of cash used to settle the invoice.
Option A (Credit cash and debit the asset account): This is incorrect because paying an invoice does not typically involve debiting a generic “asset account.” The payment reduces the AP liability, not another asset account (unless the invoice was for an asset purchase, which is not specified). Additionally, crediting cash is correct, but the pairing is wrong.
Option B (Debit the expense and credit the AP liability account): This describes the journal entry when an invoice isreceived, not when it is paid. When recording an invoice, the expense (or asset) is debited, and the AP liability is credited. This option is incorrect for the payment stage.
Option C (Debit cash (asset) and credit the AP liability account): This is incorrect because debiting cash would imply an increase in the cash account, which does not occur when paying an invoice (cash decreases). The direction of the cash entry is reversed.
Option D (Credit cash and debit the AP liability account): This is the correct journal entry for paying an invoice. Debiting the AP liability reduces the amount owed to the vendor, and crediting cash reflects the payment made (cash decreases). This aligns with standard double-entry accounting principles.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The IOFM APS e-textbook and training video under thePaymentssection cover double-entry accounting for AP transactions. The curriculum explains that “when an invoice is paid, the accounts payable liability account is debited to reduce the obligation, and the cash account is credited to reflect the payment outflow.” This is reinforced in the practice quizzes, which test understanding of journal entries for invoice payments. The APS program also references best practices for cash management and payment processing, emphasizing accurate accounting to maintain financial integrity.
Which of the following IRS documents addresses travel & entertainment (T&E) expenses?
Notice 1009
Publication 463
Advisory 972
Form 1046
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS)Publication 463, titled "Travel, Gift, and Car Expenses," is the primary document that addresses travel and entertainment (T&E) expenses. It provides detailed guidance on what qualifies as deductible business travel, entertainment, and related expenses, including rules for substantiation, accountable plans, and per diem rates.
The web source from the IRS states: “Publication 463, Travel, Gift, and Car Expenses, explains what expenses are deductible, how to report them, and the rules for an accountable plan.” This directly supports Option B. The other options are incorrect:
Notice 1009 (A)does not exist in the context of T&E expenses.
Advisory 972 (C)is not a recognized IRS document.
Form 1046 (D)is not related to T&E; IRS forms like 1040 or 1099 are unrelated.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS guidelines for T&E expenses. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes familiarity with Publication 463 for compliance with T&E reporting requirements.
What is one benefit of entering a commodity code in a user-defined field when setting up a newvendor?
It prevents a duplicate vendor from being entered
It indicates which team member created the new record
It automatically generates a price comparison to other similar vendors
It enables procurement to use the data for spend analysis
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of structured data in the vendor master file (VMF) to support organizational processes. Entering acommodity code(a standardized code classifying goods or services) in a user-defined field allows procurement to categorize vendor offerings, enablingspend analysisto identify spending patterns, negotiate better terms, and optimize supplier selection.
Option A (It prevents a duplicate vendor from being entered): Incorrect. Commodity codes classify goods/services, not vendor identities; duplicate prevention relies on TIN or name checks.
Option B (It indicates which team member created the new record): Incorrect. Commodity codes are unrelated to record creation metadata, which is tracked separately.
Option C (It automatically generates a price comparison to other similar vendors): Incorrect. Commodity codes enable categorization but do not automatically generate price comparisons; additional tools are needed.
Option D (It enables procurement to use the data for spend analysis): Correct. Commodity codes allow procurement to group vendors by product/service type, facilitating spend analysis and strategic sourcing.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Entering commodity codes in the vendor master file enables procurement to perform spend analysis by categorizing vendor goods and services.” The training video notes, “Commodity codes support procurement’s ability to analyze spending patterns, a key benefit of structured VMF data.”
All of the following are examples of key performance indicators (KPIs) EXCEPT:
Invoices paid on time
Positive pay
Cost per invoice
Lost discounts
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding key performance indicators (KPIs) to measure AP department performance. KPIs are metrics that track efficiency, accuracy, and cost-effectiveness, such as invoices paid on time, cost per invoice, and lost discounts.Positive pay, however, is a fraud prevention tool, not a performance metric.
Option A (Invoices paid on time): This is a KPI, measuring the percentage of invoices paid by their due date, reflecting AP efficiency and vendor relationship management.
Option B (Positive pay): Positive pay is a banking service that matches issued checks against presented checks to prevent fraud. It is a control mechanism, not a KPI, as it does not measure performance. This is the correct answer.
Option C (Cost per invoice): This is a KPI, calculating the average cost to process an invoice, used to assess operational efficiency.
Option D (Lost discounts): This is a KPI, tracking missed early payment discounts, which indicates opportunities for cost savings.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlslists common AP KPIs, including “percentage of invoices paid on time, cost per invoice, and lost early payment discounts,” as metrics to evaluate performance. It describes positive pay as “a fraud prevention tool under internal controls, not a performance indicator.” The training video reinforces this by discussing KPIs for benchmarking and positive pay as a separate control mechanism.
Which of the following has significantly reduced the number of small dollar invoices to be processed?
Petty cash
Evaluated receipt settlement
Electronic data interchange
Payment cards
Payment cards, such as procurement cards (P-cards) or corporate credit cards, have significantly reduced the number of small dollar invoices processed by accounts payable departments. Byconsolidating small, recurring, or low-value purchases onto a single card statement, organizations can avoid processing individual invoices for each transaction, streamlining AP workflows and reducing administrative costs.
The web source from Corcentric states: “Payment cards, like P-cards, significantly reduce the number of small dollar invoices by consolidating multiple purchases into a single statement, minimizing AP processing efforts.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are less relevant:
Petty cash (A)is used for small cash transactions but does not reduce invoice volume, as it typically bypasses invoicing.
Evaluated receipt settlement (B)eliminates invoices for specific purchases but is not primarily focused on small dollar transactions.
Electronic data interchange (C)automates invoice data exchange but does not inherently reduce the number of invoices.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including the role of payment cards in optimizing AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the use of payment cards to reduce small dollar invoice processing.
Ways in which an organization could suffer from check fraud include which of the following: I. Check alteration; II. Invalid payments; III. Stolen issued checks.
I, II, and III
II and III only
I and III only
I and II only
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes fraud prevention, including check fraud, which is a significant risk in AP due to the handling of payments. Check fraud can occur throughcheck alteration(modifying payee or amount),invalid payments(payments to fraudulent vendors or for unauthorized transactions), andstolen issued checks(checks intercepted and cashed fraudulently). All three are recognized methods of check fraud.
Item I (Check alteration): Altering a check’s payee, amount, or date is a common fraud method, often mitigated by controls like positive pay. This is a valid way.
Item II (Invalid payments): Payments to fictitious vendors or for unauthorized purposes (e.g., duplicate invoices) constitute fraud, often enabled by weak vendor validation. This is a valid way.
Item III (Stolen issued checks): Stealing issued checks (e.g., from mail) and cashing them fraudulently is a well-documented fraud risk, mitigated by secure check handling. This is a valid way.
Option A (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three are ways organizations suffer from check fraud.
Option B (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item I is also a valid method.
Option C (I and III only): Incorrect, as Item II is also a valid method.
Option D (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also a valid method.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlslists “check alteration, invalid payments to fraudulent vendors, and stolen checks” as common check fraud methods. It emphasizes controls like positive pay and secure check storage to mitigate these risks. The training video discusses check fraud scenarios, citing all three methods as prevalent in AP processes.
Ways to minimize the number of rush checks that are requested include:
I only (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times)
I and II only (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times, Charge a rush check processing fee)
I, II, and III (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times, Charge a rush check processing fee, Publish the names of frequent rush check requestors)
II only (Charge a rush check processing fee)
Rush checks, issued outside the regular check run schedule, increase processing costs and disrupt workflows. Effective strategies to minimize rush check requests include distributing the check run schedule with clear cut-off dates and times to encourage timely submissions (Option I) and charging a rush check processing fee to deter unnecessary requests (Option II). Publishing the names of frequent requestors (Option III) is not a professional or recommended practice, as it may create workplace tension without addressing the root cause.
The web source from SAP Concur notes: “To reduce rush checks, organizations can communicate payment schedules clearly and impose fees for expedited processing to incentivize adherence to regular check runs.” This supports Options I and II. Option III is not mentioned in industry best practices and is considered inappropriate.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including strategies to optimize payment processes. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with proactive measures like scheduling communication and fee structures to control rush checks.
Which of the following are potential red flags for T&E expenses that fall outside of policy?
II and III only (Cab fares; Weekend stays)
I only (Charges for airline upgrades)
I and III only (Charges for airline upgrades; Weekend stays)
II only (Cab fares)
Potential red flags for T&E expenses that fall outside of company policy includecharges for airline upgrades(Option I), which may indicate unauthorized luxury spending, andweekend stays(Option III), which could suggest personal travel disguised as business-related. These expenses often require additional scrutiny to ensure compliance with T&E policies.Cab fares(Option II) are typically routine and not inherently a red flag unless excessive or unsupported, making them less likely to be a policy violation compared to upgrades or weekend stays.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “Red flags in T&E expenses include charges for airline upgrades, which may violate policy on allowable travel classes, and weekend stays, which could indicate personal travel.” This supports Options I and III. Cab fares are noted as common expenses that require receipts but are not typically flagged unless unusual, per the Esker source: “Routine expenses like cab fares are less likely to be red flags compared to upgrades or extended stays.”
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing fraud detection and policy compliance. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with identifying airline upgrades and weekend stays as potential red flags.
Which of the following statements best describes the meaning of data integrity?
The data has not been altered
The data comes with a digital signature
The data was encrypted using an algorithm
The data has been tested for accuracy
Data integrity refers to the assurance that data remains accurate, complete, and unaltered throughout its lifecycle, whether during storage, processing, or transmission. It ensures that data is free from unauthorized modifications or corruption. While testing for accuracy (Option D) is related, data integrity specifically focuses on preventing unauthorized changes (Option A). A digital signature (Option B) or encryption (Option C) are security measures that may support data integrity but do not define it.
The web source from Corcentric states: “Data integrity means that data remains unaltered and consistent, ensuring it is free from unauthorized modifications or errors.” This directly supports Option A.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including data security and integrity in AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the definition of data integrity as preventing unauthorized alterations.
To date, the Streamlined Sales Tax Project has accomplished which of the following? I. Resolved the origin vs. destination question; II. Implemented a uniform exemption certificate; III. Created rate and boundary databases.
I only
I, II, and III
II only
II and III only
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Streamlined Sales Tax Project (SSTP), initiated to simplify U.S. sales tax compliance across states. The SSTP has achieveda uniform exemption certificate(Item II) to standardize resale and other exemptions andrate and boundary databases(Item III) to provide accurate tax rates and jurisdictional boundaries. However, it has not fullyresolved the origin vs. destination question(Item I), as sourcing rules (origin-based vs. destination-based taxation) remain state-specific.
Item I (Resolved the origin vs. destination question): Not fully accomplished. The SSTP provides guidelines for sourcing, but states still choose between origin-based (tax based on seller’s location) and destination-based (tax based on buyer’s location) rules, creating variability.
Item II (Implemented a uniform exemption certificate): Accomplished. The SSTP developed a uniform Streamlined Sales and Use Tax Exemption Certificate, accepted by member states to simplify compliance.
Item III (Created rate and boundary databases): Accomplished. The SSTP provides centralized databases for tax rates and jurisdictional boundaries, aiding accurate tax calculations.
Option A (I only): Incorrect, as Item I is not fully accomplished.
Option B (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item I is not fully accomplished.
Option C (II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also accomplished.
Option D (II and III only): Correct, as Items II and III are key SSTP achievements.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “The Streamlined Sales Tax Project has implemented a uniform exemption certificate and created rate and boundary databases to simplify compliance, but origin vs. destination sourcing remains variable across states.” The training video notes, “SSTP’s uniform certificate and tax databases are major achievements, though sourcing rules still differ by state.”
Detective controls do which of the following? I. Establish segregation of duties; II. Look for errors and irregularities; III. Determine if preventive controls are effective.
I, II, and III
I and III only
II and III only
I and II only
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program explains that detective controls are designed to identify errors, fraud, or control failures after they occur. They include activities like reviewing transactions for irregularities and assessing the effectiveness of preventive controls.Segregation of duties, however, is a preventive control, not a detective one, as it prevents fraud by dividing responsibilities.
Item I (Establish segregation of duties): Segregation of duties prevents fraud by ensuring no single employee controls all aspects of a transaction (e.g., invoice approval and payment). This is a preventive control, not detective.
Item II (Look for errors and irregularities): Detective controls, such as account reconciliation or audits, identify errors or fraudulent activities after they occur. This is a valid function.
Item III (Determine if preventive controls are effective): Detective controls, like monitoring or control testing, assess whether preventive controls (e.g., vendor validation) are working. This is a valid function.
Option A (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item I is a preventive control.
Option B (I and III only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a detective control function.
Option C (II and III only): Correct, as Items II and III describe detective control functions.
Option D (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a detective control function.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “Detective controls, such as audits and reconciliations, look for errors and irregularities and evaluate the effectiveness of preventive controls.” It clarifies that “segregation of duties is a preventive control to avoid conflicts of interest.” The training video discusses detective controls as tools for “post-transaction review and control assessment,” excluding segregation of duties.
Which of the following is the purpose of FATCA?
To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.
To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent
To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.
To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA), enacted in 2010 to combat tax evasion by U.S. taxpayers using foreign accounts. FATCA requires foreign financial institutions (FFIs) to report U.S. account holders’ information to the IRS, making it harder for individuals and organizations to hide income offshore and avoid U.S. taxes.
Option A (To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.): Incorrect. FATCA reduces privacy by requiring FFIs to report account details to the IRS, not protect it.
Option B (To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent): Incorrect. FATCA focuses on reporting foreign accounts of U.S. taxpayers, not harmonizing payment reporting rules for U.S. and non-U.S. persons.
Option C (To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.): Correct. FATCA’s primary purpose is to prevent tax evasion by requiring FFIs and certain non-financial foreign entities to report U.S. account holders’ financial information, ensuring taxable income is reported.
Option D (To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries): Incorrect. FATCA addresses U.S. tax compliance, not foreign governments’ tax policies.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “FATCA was enacted to combat tax evasion by requiring foreign financial institutions to report U.S. account holders’ information, making it difficult to avoid taxes through offshore accounts.” TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliance, a recommended IOFM resource, explains, “FATCA ensures compliance by imposing withholding on payments to non-compliant FFIs, targeting U.S. taxpayers hiding income abroad.” The training video reinforces this, noting FATCA’s role in “closing loopholes for offshore tax evasion.”
When applied to T&E, compliance requires which of the following processes?
II and III only (Secure record retention; Traveler location tracking)
III only (Traveler location tracking)
I and II only (Accurate recordkeeping; Secure record retention)
I only (Accurate recordkeeping)
Compliance in T&E processes requires robust systems to ensure financial accuracy and regulatory adherence.Accurate recordkeeping(Option I) is essential to document expenses, support financial reporting, and meet IRS and SOX requirements.Secure record retention(Option II) ensures that records are stored safely to protect sensitive data and comply with retention policies (e.g., IRS rules requiring records for at least three years).Traveler location tracking(Option III) is not a standard compliance requirement for T&E, as it relates more to employee safety or logistics, not financial or regulatory compliance.
The web source from Tipalti states: “T&E compliance requires accurate recordkeeping to support expense reporting and audits, as well as secure record retention to protect data and meet regulatory retention periods.” This supports Options I and II. Traveler location tracking is not mentioned as a compliance requirement in T&E processes, per the SAP Concur source: “Compliance in T&E focuses on documentation, approvals, and data security, not employee tracking.”
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing compliance with financial and tax regulations. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with accurate recordkeeping and secure retention as key compliance processes.
Filing for a VAT refund is difficult because: I. Invoices must include the name and address of the company filing for the refund; II. Only authorized agents may apply for the refunds; III. An original invoice must be submitted.
II only
I only
I and III only
II and III only
TheInvoicestopic in the APS Certification Program covers the complexities of value-added tax (VAT) refunds, particularly for businesses operating in VAT jurisdictions (e.g., EU). VAT refund processes are stringent, requiring specific invoice details like the company’s name and address (Item I) and, in many cases, original invoices (Item III). However,only authorized agents applying for refunds (Item II)is not universally true, as businesses or their tax representatives can often file directly, depending on the jurisdiction.
Item I (Invoices must include the name and address of the company filing for the refund): True. VAT regulations (e.g., EU VAT Directive) require invoices to include the claimant’s name and address to verify eligibility. This contributes to refund difficulty.
Item II (Only authorized agents may apply for the refunds): Not universally true. While some jurisdictions allow or require agents, businesses can often file directly or designate representatives without mandating third-party agents. This does not consistently contribute to difficulty.
Item III (An original invoice must be submitted): True. Many VAT jurisdictions require original invoices (or certified copies) to validate claims, increasing administrative burden and difficulty.
Option A (II only): Incorrect, as Item II is not universally applicable, and Items I and III are valid.
Option B (I only): Incorrect, as Item III also contributes to refund difficulty.
Option C (I and III only): Correct, as Items I and III are standard requirements that make VAT refunds difficult.
Option D (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item II is not a universal requirement.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInvoicesstates, “VAT refund processes are complex due to requirements like including the claimant’s name and address on invoices and submitting original invoices.” It notes that “while agents may assist, direct filing bybusinesses is often permitted, depending on the jurisdiction.” The training video discusses VAT refunds, highlighting the need for “specific invoice details and original documents” as key challenges.
TESTED 12 Sep 2025