Summer Special - 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: c4sdisc65

CTFL-Foundation PDF

$38.5

$109.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Printable Format
  • Value of Money
  • 100% Pass Assurance
  • Verified Answers
  • Researched by Industry Experts
  • Based on Real Exams Scenarios
  • 100% Real Questions

CTFL-Foundation PDF + Testing Engine

$61.6

$175.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
  • Last Update: Sep 12, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 272
  • Free Real Questions Demo
  • Recommended by Industry Experts
  • Best Economical Package
  • Immediate Access

CTFL-Foundation Engine

$46.2

$131.99

3 Months Free Update

  • Best Testing Engine
  • One Click installation
  • Recommended by Teachers
  • Easy to use
  • 3 Modes of Learning
  • State of Art Technology
  • 100% Real Questions included

CTFL-Foundation Practice Exam Questions with Answers ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Certification

Question # 6

Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Full Access
Question # 7

Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Defects are likely to be found earlier in the development process by using reviews rather than static analysis.

(ii) Walkthroughs require code but static analysis does not require code.

(iii) Informal reviews can be performed on code and specifications.

(iv) Dynamic techniques are generally used before static techniques.

(v) Dynamic techniques can only be used after code is ready to be executed.

A.

(i), (ii), (vi).

B.

(ii), (iii), (v).

C.

(i), (iv), (v).

D.

(i), (iii), (v).

Full Access
Question # 8

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 9

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A.

Top down

B.

Big-bang

C.

Bottom up

D.

Functional incrementation.

Full Access
Question # 10

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

Full Access
Question # 11

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Full Access
Question # 12

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

Full Access
Question # 13

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

Full Access
Question # 14

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

Full Access
Question # 15

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Full Access
Question # 16

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

Full Access
Question # 17

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

Full Access
Question # 18

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

Full Access
Question # 19

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

Full Access
Question # 20

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

Full Access
Question # 21

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

Full Access
Question # 22

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

Full Access
Question # 23

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

Full Access
Question # 24

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

Full Access
Question # 25

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

Full Access
Question # 26

CTFL-Foundation question answer

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

Full Access
Question # 27

CTFL-Foundation question answer

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

Full Access
Question # 28

CTFL-Foundation question answer

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

Full Access
Question # 29

Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software.

The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

• An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.

• A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.

The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.

The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.

CTFL-Foundation question answer

Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

A.

a, d, c, b, e

B.

a, c, b, d, e

C.

e, a, b, c, d

D.

e, a, d, c, b

Full Access
Question # 30

A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.

Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?

A.

To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system

B.

To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component

C.

To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph

D.

To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

Full Access
Question # 31

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.

Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

A.

Dynamic analysis tool

B.

Monitoring tool

C.

Configuration management tool

D.

Coverage measurement tool

Full Access
Question # 32

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the defect is executed, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

Full Access
Question # 33

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

Full Access
Question # 34

Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

A.

Decision table testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Error guessing

Full Access
Question # 35

The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.

Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights

Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights

Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted

Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights

Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit

Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight

Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?

A.

6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

B.

3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6

C.

3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5

D.

3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

Full Access
Question # 36

Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review..?

A.

Project Manager

B.

Test Engineer

C.

Test Manager

D.

None of the above

Full Access
Question # 37

Which of the following has the typical formal review activities in the correct sequence?

A.

Kick-off, review meeting, planning, follow-up.

B.

Kick-off, planning, review meeting, re-work.

C.

Planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting.

D.

Planning, individual preparation, follow-up, re-work.

Full Access
Question # 38

Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?

A.

Determine whether enough component testing was executed.

B.

Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.

C.

Prove that all faults are identified.

D.

Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.

Full Access
Question # 39

A bug or defect is:

A.

A mistake made by a person;

B.

A run-time problem experienced by a user;

C.

The result of an error or mistake;

D.

The result of a failure, which may lead to an error?

Full Access
Question # 40

Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it?

i. Try to understand how the other person feels.

ii. Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals.

iii. Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa.

iv. Emphasize the common goal of better quality.

v. Each discussion is a battle to be won.

A.

(i), (ii) and (iii) aid, (iv) and (v) hinder.

B.

(iii), (iv) and (v) aid, (i) and (ii) hinder.

C.

(i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder.

D.

(ii), (iii) and (iv) aid, (i) and (v) hinder.

Full Access
Question # 41

Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management..?

A.

Status accounting of configuration items

B.

Auditing conformance to ISO9001

C.

Identification of test versions

D.

Record of changes to documentation over time

E.

Controlled library access

Full Access
Question # 42

Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

A.

Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.

B.

Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.

C.

Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.

D.

Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.

Full Access
Question # 43

What is the purpose of exit criteria?

A.

To identify how many tests to design.

B.

To identify when to start testing.

C.

To identify when to stop testing.

D.

To identify who will carry out the test execution.

Full Access
Question # 44

The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

A.

Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

B.

Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

C.

Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

D.

Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

E.

Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

Full Access
Question # 45

During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

A.

Execution

B.

Design

C.

Planning

D.

Check Exit criteria completion

Full Access
Question # 46

Which option is part of the ‘implementation and execution’ area of the fundamental test process?

A.

Developing the tests.

B.

Comparing actual and expected results.

C.

Writing a test summary.

D.

Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases.

Full Access
Question # 47

Which of the following principles should be followed when introducing a test tool into an organization?

(i) Assessing organizational maturity to establish whether a tool will provide expected benefits.

(ii) Requiring a quick payback on the initial investment.

(iii) Including a requirement for the tool to be easy to use without having to train unskilled testers.

(iv) Identifying and agreeing requirements before evaluating test tools.

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

Full Access
Question # 48

Which of the following is the odd one out..?

A.

White box

B.

Glass box

C.

Structural

D.

Functional

Full Access
Question # 49

Which of the following defines the expected result of a test?

A.

Test case

B.

Test procedure

C.

Test execution schedule

D.

Test condition

Full Access
Question # 50

The purpose of requirement phase is:

A.

To freeze requirements

B.

To understand user needs

C.

To define the scope of testing

D.

All of the above

Full Access
Question # 51

Which is not the fundamental test process?

A.

Planning and control

B.

Test closure activities

C.

Analysis and design

D.

None

Full Access
Question # 52

How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment?

Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -if (Condition 1)then statement 1else statement 2if (Condition 2)then statement 3

A.

2 Test Cases

B.

3 Test Cases

C.

4 Test Cases

D.

Not achievable

Full Access
Question # 53

Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

A.

Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.

B.

Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and test ware.

C.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

D.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

Full Access
Question # 54

Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.

ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.

iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

iv. Determining the exit criteria.

A.

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

B.

i, iv are true and ii is false

C.

i, ii are true and iii, iv are false

D.

ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

Full Access
Question # 55

Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

A.

At the component test level only

B.

At all test levels

C.

At integration testing and system testing levels only

D.

At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

Full Access
Question # 56

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

Full Access
Question # 57

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

Full Access
Question # 58

Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

A.

Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.

B.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

C.

Adequacy of the test approaches taken.

D.

Discussions on disaster recovery.

Full Access
Question # 59

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

Full Access
Question # 60

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation question answer

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

Full Access
Question # 61

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Full Access
Question # 62

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

Full Access
Question # 63

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

Full Access
Question # 64

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

Full Access
Question # 65

Which of the following is a role of a formal review?[K1]

A.

Adjudicator

B.

Moderator

C.

Governor

D.

Corrector

Full Access
Question # 66

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

Full Access
Question # 67

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

Full Access
Question # 68

Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

A.

Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.

B.

Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

C.

Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.

D.

Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

Full Access
Question # 69

Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Decision table testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Statement testing

Full Access
Question # 70

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

Full Access
Question # 71

What is the value of static code analysis?

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

Full Access
Question # 72

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

Full Access
Question # 73

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

Full Access
Question # 74

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

Full Access
Question # 75

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

A.

To identify the requirements for using a tool

B.

To make a selection between alternative tools

C.

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

D.

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

Full Access
Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit

The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

CTFL-Foundation question answer

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.

Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints?[K3]

A.

b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h

B.

a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h

C.

c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f

D.

d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

Full Access
Question # 77

A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.

Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

A.

Performance, Usability, Regression.

B.

System, Load, Fail-over.

C.

Performance, Load, Stress.

D.

Load, Volume and Component.

Full Access
Question # 78

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

Full Access
Question # 79

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

Full Access
Question # 80

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

Full Access
Question # 81

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test

Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

A.

Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

B.

Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

C.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

D.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

Full Access