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  • Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0)
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ISTQB-CTFL Practice Exam Questions with Answers ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Certification

Question # 6

Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?

A.

Refactonng is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code wntten to satisfy those tests.

B.

ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level.

C.

BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level.

D.

ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process.

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Question # 7

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

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Question # 8

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

A.

All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.

C.

All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

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Question # 9

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

A.

Q1

B.

Q2

C.

Q3

D.

Q4

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Question # 10

"Statement Testing" is part of;

A.

Specification Based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Experience based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Question # 11

Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?

I. Static analysis can be used Instead of dynamic testing.

II. Stalk: analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.

III. Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.

IV Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.

A.

I. II

B.

II. Ill

C.

III. IV

D.

I, IV

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Question # 12

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Question # 13

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Question # 14

Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.

Which of the following examples demonstrates this?

A.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.

B.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.

C.

Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.

D.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.

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Question # 15

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes thethird test quadrant (Q3)?

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

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Question # 16

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

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Question # 17

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

A.

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

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Question # 18

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

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Question # 19

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is TRUE?

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews.

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects.

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Question # 20

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Question # 21

Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:

a.Planning

b.Initiate review

c.Issue communication and analysis

d.Fixing and reporting

1.Creating defect reports

2.Estimating effort and timeframe

3.Recording updated status of defects

4.Selecting the people to participate

5.Distributing the work product and other material

6.Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?

A.

2-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 1-d, 3-d

B.

2-a, 5-a, 1-b, 4-b, 3-c, 6-d

C.

1-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-c, 2-d, 3-d

D.

2-a, 4-b, 5-c, 1-d. 3-d, 6-d

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Question # 22

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

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Question # 23

Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.

I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.

II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.

III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk

IV) Risks have to bereassessedon a regular basis.

V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

A.

I III IV and V are true. II is false.

B.

II, IIIIVandVarecorrect. I isfalse.

C.

C. I, II and IV are true.IIIand V are false.

D.

II, Ill and V are true.1antsIv are false.

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Question # 24

When should component integration tests be carried out?

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

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Question # 25

A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

A.

999.1000.23232.99999.100000

B.

999.1000.50000.100000.100001

C.

999.100000

D.

1000,50000,99999

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Question # 26

The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).

Which sentence is correct?

A.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

B.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

C.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

D.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.

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Question # 27

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users' expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

A.

Tests wear out

B.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.

Working software over comprehensive documentation.

D.

Defects cluster together

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Question # 28

Which of the following BEST describes exploratory testing?

A.

Exploratory testing is a suitable test technique which may replace both black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Exploratory testing is a valid and useful black-box test technique since it focuses on test cases related to the architecture and design of a system

C.

Exploratory testing requires both solid specifications and much project time available for test execution

D.

Exploratory testing may be used within defined time periods, during which the tester may follow a test charter as a guide

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Question # 29

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator.

C.

Recorder.

D.

Moderator

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Question # 30

Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?

A.

When a high level of test independence may be required.

B.

When acceptance tests need to be created.

C.

When a test automation approach needs to be determined.

D.

When the team dynamics need to be improved.

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Question # 31

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

A.

SOL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority.

B.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found It quite difficult to follow

the test script.

C.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

D.

The expected result for the ‘list friends' response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

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Question # 32

Confirmation testing is performed after:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Question # 33

Which ONE of the following options is aPRODUCT riskand NOT aPROJECT risk?

A.

Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.

B.

Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.

C.

Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.

D.

Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.

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Question # 34

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

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Question # 35

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 36

Consider the following testing levels:

1) Component Testing

2) Integration Testing

3) System Testing

4) Acceptance Testing

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used.

Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

B.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development.

Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

C.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models.

Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

D.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

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Question # 37

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

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Question # 38

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.

What would you suggest asthe most importantreport improvement?

Defect detected date: 15 8.2010

Defect detected by: Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case: Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen2Nothing happens, no system response at all.

A.

Add information about which web browser was used

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add an impact analysis

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Question # 39

A possible risk of introducing test automation is:

A.

the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.

B.

the tool may create additional development dependencies.

C.

the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.

D.

the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE?

I Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed.

II Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed.

III. Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level.

IV Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.

V. Re-testing should be included in the debugging activity.

A.

I, III. Iv

B.

II, v

C.

I, Ill

D.

II. IV, V

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Question # 41

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300.000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299,999 TC2=300,000 TC=300,001

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault.

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Question # 42

In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

A.

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

B.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

C.

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

D.

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

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Question # 43

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Question # 44

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

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Question # 45

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Question # 46

Given the following requirement:

Requirement ID: 2 8

Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee

Detailed Description

An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but

1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.

2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.

3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.

Age should be an integer of 0 or above.

Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

Which of the following statements isNOTcorrect?

A.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

B.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

C.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

D.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

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Question # 47

During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?

•Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.

•Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.

•Determining whether more tests are needed.

Select the correct answer:

A.

Test planning.

B.

Test analysis.

C.

Test design.

D.

Test monitoring and control.

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Question # 48

4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:

0 < x <100

100<= x <= 200

200 < x < 500

x >= 500

Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

A.

50; 100; 200. 1000

B.

0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;

C.

0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;

D.

50; 100; 250; 1000

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Question # 49

Which of the following is a possible reason for introducing a defect in software code?

A.

Rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing

B.

Improper unit testing

C.

Improper system testing

D.

Focus on static testing over dynamic testing

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Question # 50

As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X andZ)sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.

Which of the following items of an incident report would you beUNABLEto write down based on this information?

A.

Expected result

B.

Test case identifier

C.

Test setup details

D.

Actual result

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Question # 51

Which statement is true regarding confirmation testing and regression testing?

A.

Confirmation testing confirms the quality of the test being run while regression testing ensures that the software still works after a change has been made.

B.

Confirmation testing is an optional activity whilst regression testing is not negotiable.

C.

Confirmation testing aims to verify that a defect has been resolved and regression testing ensuring that existing functionality still works after a change.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

E.

TESTER Involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

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Question # 52

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Question # 53

Which of the following activities does NOT belong to a typical technical review?

A.

Pre-meeting preparation by reviewers

B.

Using checklists during the meeting

C.

Inviting end-users to the meeting

D.

Preparation of a review report

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Question # 54

Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess which of the following?

i. Progress against the planned schedule and budget.

II. Current quality of the test object.

Hi. Adequacy of the test approach.

iv. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives.

v. All the above.

Select the correct answer:

A.

Only i and ii.

B.

Only i and iii.

C.

Only I, ii and iv.

D.

Only v.

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Question # 55

An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.

Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)

A.

1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x

B.

aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x

C.

1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

D.

1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby

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Question # 56

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

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Question # 57

Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Requirements based testing

C.

Metric based approach

D.

Regression testing

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Question # 58

Which of the following should be included in a test status report?

I. Estimation details

II. Total number of open and closed defects

III Actual effort spent

IV. Defect reports

V. Number of executed, failed, blocked tests

A.

III.V

B.

II, III

C.

I. II. IV

D.

II, III.V

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Question # 59

The statement: "Test activities should start in the early stages of the lifecycle, adhering to the testing principle of early testing” is relevant to which of the recognized software development models?

A.

Sequential development model.

B.

Iterative development model.

C.

Incremental development model.

D.

All the above

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Question # 60

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques

B.

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes

C.

Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques

D.

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

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Question # 61

Which of the following BEST describes checklist-based testing?

A.

Checklist-based testing includes formal tests from detailed lists of test conditions, allowing much repeatability

B.

Checklist-based testing may involve a list of tests based on what is important to the user as well as an understanding of why and how software fails

C.

Checklist-based testing, while popular, provides little consistency and few guidelines concerning test case development

D.

Checklist-based testing is restricted to non-functional testing, including usability, performance, and security test

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Question # 62

The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

A.

4

B.

1

C.

2

D.

Infinite

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Question # 63

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

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Question # 64

Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the“World Organization for Happy Tomatoes”has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Using theequivalence partitioningtechnique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

A.

{7,10,21,40}

B.

{8,10,25,40}

C.

{7,10,25,29}

D.

{7,10,25,40}

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Question # 65

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

A.

DT1, DT4

B.

DT3, DT4

C.

DT2, DT3

D.

DT1.DT2

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Question # 66

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.

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Question # 67

Which of the following statements about white-box testing is FALSE?

A.

Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews.

B.

White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on objective measures

C.

Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested

D.

Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code.

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Question # 68

Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):

A.

Team bonding and learning

B.

Increased test effectiveness/efficiency

C.

Improved quality of the test basis

D.

Better cooperation between development and testing

... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:

The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement

The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement

The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members

The possibility of addressing and solv

E.

A1 - B4 - C3 - D2

F.

A2 - B1 - C4 - D3

G.

A4 - B3 - C2 - D1

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Question # 69

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

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Question # 70

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

C.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

D.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

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Question # 71

You are testing a system that is used in motor vehicles to warn the driver of an obstacle when re-versing. Output is provided by a series of LED lights (green, yellow, and red), each illuminated based on clearly defined conditions.

The following summary describes the functionality:

•Object within 10 metres, green LED lit.

•Object within 5 metres, yellow LED lit.

•Object within 1 metre, red LED lit.

•Setting sensitivity mode to "ON" will result in only the red LED being lit when the object is within 1 metre.

The following decision table describes the rules associated with the functioning of this proximity warning system:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Which intended functionality is tested by Rule 5 in the decision table?

A.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

B.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

C.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in no LED being lit.

D.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in no LED being lit.

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Question # 72

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Question # 73

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 74

The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.

What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

A.

Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,

Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge

B.

Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,

Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

C.

Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing,

Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development

D.

Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development;

Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

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Question # 75

You are responsible for applying the correct technique for a review of the requirements document for a project to develop a new software application. You identify the reviewers and the required roles, including the meeting leader, who is the requirements document author, and a separate role for a scribe. Additionally, you decide to take a relatively informal approach to the requirements review. The goal of the review is to find defects in the requirements document, such as omissions, Inconsistencies, and duplications. Another goal of the review is to improve the software application's usability and accessibility by considering the various stakeholders' viewpoints.

Which of the following statements BEST describes this scenario?

A.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a perspective-based review technique

B.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a checklist-based review technique

C.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a perspective-based review technique

D.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a checklist-based review technique

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Question # 76

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

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Question # 77

Which ONE of the following options CORRECTLY describes one of the seven principles of the testing process?

A.

The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.

B.

Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.

C.

It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.

D.

Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.

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Question # 78

Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

A.

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

B.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

C.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

D.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

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Question # 79

Given the following review types and review characteristics:

a.Pair review

b.Walkthrough

c.Technical review

d.Inspection

1.Formal

2.Informal

3.Purposes include evaluating the quality of the work product under review and generating new ideas (e.g., brainstorming solutions)

4.Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants

Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?

A.

a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2

B.

a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1

C.

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

D.

a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1

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Question # 80

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the purpose of confirmation testing versus regression testing?

A.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

B.

Confirmation testing ensures the entire system functions as expected, whereas regression testing focuses only on modified components.

C.

Confirmation testing verifies all system requirements, while regression testing ensures that no additional test cases are needed.

D.

Regression testing and confirmation testing are interchangeable and serve the same purpose.

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Question # 81

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error.

C.

The slowdown is an error; the memory leak is a defect.

D.

The slowdown is a defect; the memory leak is a failure.

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Question # 82

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

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Question # 83

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing duringexploratory testing?

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

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Question # 84

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

A.

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

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Question # 85

A test status report SHOULD:

A.

Specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.

Be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.

Always be based on the same template within an organisation, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented.

D.

Specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organisation that were chosen at the outset of the test project.

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Question # 86

The following open incident report provided:

Date: 01.01.01

Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention" instead of "Ready'.

Severity: High

Life Cycle: Integration

Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report?

I. Identification or configuration of the application

II. The name of the developer

III. Recommendation of the developer

IV The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button

A.

IV

B.

I. IV

C.

I. II

D.

II, III

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Question # 87

Test automation allows you to:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Question # 88

You are performing the role of tester on an Agile project. Which of the following tasks would be your responsibility?

i. Understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy.

II. Ensuring the proper use of testing tools.

Hi. Coaching other team members in the relevant aspects of testing.

iv. Actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness.

v. Participating proactively in team retrospective meeting, suggesting and implementing improvements.

Select the correct answer:

A.

i, iv and v

B.

i, ii and iii

C.

i, iii and v

D.

iii. iv and v

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Question # 89

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stones should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

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Question # 90

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

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Question # 91

Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

A.

Test environment details

B.

How to reproduce the defect

C.

How to fix the defect

D.

Seventy and priority

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Question # 92

A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.

Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.

Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement

A.

It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)

B.

It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)

C.

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)

D.

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)

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Question # 93

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

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Question # 94

Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about how a tester should communicate about defects, test results, and other test information?

A.

Testers should include personal opinions and judgements in defect reports and review findings

B.

Testers should emphasize the benefits of testing, such as increased quality and reduced risk

C.

Testers should reject all questions about their test findings and information

D.

Testers should take a command-and-control approach with the project team

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Question # 95

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies tochecklist-based testing?

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

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Question # 96

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Question # 97

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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Question # 98

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system

B.

Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics

C.

Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests

D.

The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard

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