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Practice Free ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free ISTQB-CTFL Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

A.

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.

Train all testers on using the tool

D.

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

Question # 7

Which of the following statements are true?

1. Early and frequent feedback helps to avoid requirements misunderstanding.

2. Early feedback allows teams to do more with less.

3. Early feedback allows the team to focus on the most Important features.

4. Early and frequent feedback clarifies customer feedback by applying static testing techniques

Select the correct answer:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

Question # 8

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product: 1. Risk register 2 Risk information

3. Test cases

4. Test conditions

Category of work products:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C Test design work products

C.

Test monitoring and control work products

D.

1-A.2-D.3-C.4-e

E.

1-A.2-C.3-B.4-D

F.

1-C, 2-A. 3-D, 4-B

G.

1-B. 2-D, 3-A.4-C

Question # 9

Select which of the following statements describe the key principles of software testing?

i. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence.

ii. Testing everything Is possible.

iii. Early testing Is more expensive and is a waste of time.

iv. Defects cluster together.

v. Testing is context dependent.

vi. Beware of the pesticide paradox.

vii. Absence of errors is a fallacy.

Select the correct answer:

A.

i, iv, v, vi and vii

B.

I, ii, v. vi and vii

C.

iii. iv, v. vi and vii

D.

ii, iii, iv, v and vi

Question # 10

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

A.

Kick-off meeting

B.

Low cost

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Metrics analysis

Question # 11

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies to checklist-based testing?

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

Question # 12

Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?

A.

Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

B.

Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.

C.

Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.

D.

Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.

Question # 13

Which of the following software development models BEST exemplifies a model that does NOT support the principle of early testing?

A.

The iterative development model

B.

The V-model

C.

The Waterfall model

D.

The incremental development model

Question # 14

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3.Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4.These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5.Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques

White * White-box test techniques

Experience - Experience-based test techniques

A.

Black -1,3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

B.

Black - 2, 3 White -1 Experience - 4, 5

C.

Black -1,2 White - 3, 4 Experience - 5

D.

Black - 2, 3 White -1,5 Experience - 4

Question # 15

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

A.

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

B.

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C.

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

D.

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

Question # 16

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

Question # 17

What is 'Component Testing'?

A.

Integration Testing

B.

Functional testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

A test level

Question # 18

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

A.

DT1, DT4

B.

DT3, DT4

C.

DT2, DT3

D.

DT1.DT2

Question # 19

Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:

I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.

II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.

III. Can lead to the detection of defects.

IV. Can find defects directly.

V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.

Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?

A.

Statements I, III, and IV

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I, II, and IV

D.

Statements II, III, and V

Question # 20

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

Question # 21

Which of the following options is a success factor for formal reviews (e.g. inspections)?

A.

Provide participants an adequate amount of time for preparation for the review.

B.

Evaluate participants on how they spend their time and attention to detail.

C.

Use only one type of review so that participants do not have to get used to a different type of review process as often.

D.

Conduct the review in a few large sections, each of which participants are to review as a whole.

Question # 22

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

Question # 23

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

Question # 24

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

Question # 25

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

Question # 26

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which a collective authorship process generates a shared vision of user stories?

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

Question # 27

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

Question # 28

Which ONE of the following options CORRECTLY describes one of the seven principles of the testing process?

A.

The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.

B.

Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.

C.

It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.

D.

Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.

Question # 29

You are responsible for applying the correct technique for a review of the requirements document for a project to develop a new software application. You identify the reviewers and the required roles, including the meeting leader, who is the requirements document author, and a separate role for a scribe. Additionally, you decide to take a relatively informal approach to the requirements review. The goal of the review is to find defects in the requirements document, such as omissions, Inconsistencies, and duplications. Another goal of the review is to improve the software application's usability and accessibility by considering the various stakeholders' viewpoints.

Which of the following statements BEST describes this scenario?

A.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a perspective-based review technique

B.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a checklist-based review technique

C.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a perspective-based review technique

D.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a checklist-based review technique

Question # 30

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

B.

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

C.

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

Question # 31

A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

A.

999.1000.23232.99999.100000

B.

999.1000.50000.100000.100001

C.

999.100000

D.

1000,50000,99999

Question # 32

Which of the following should be included in a test status report?

I. Estimation details

II. Total number of open and closed defects

III Actual effort spent

IV. Defect reports

V. Number of executed, failed, blocked tests

A.

III.V

B.

II, III

C.

I. II. IV

D.

II, III.V

Question # 33

The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

A.

4

B.

1

C.

2

D.

Infinite

Question # 34

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

Question # 35

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

A.

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

Question # 36

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system

B.

Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics

C.

Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests

D.

The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard

Question # 37

Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about how a tester should communicate about defects, test results, and other test information?

A.

Testers should include personal opinions and judgements in defect reports and review findings

B.

Testers should emphasize the benefits of testing, such as increased quality and reduced risk

C.

Testers should reject all questions about their test findings and information

D.

Testers should take a command-and-control approach with the project team

Question # 38

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

A.

A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person

B.

A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.

C.

A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people

D.

A test manager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test cases will not be written as mandated by the test policy.

Question # 39

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

Question # 40

Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:

a.Planning

b.Initiate review

c.Issue communication and analysis

d.Fixing and reporting

1.Creating defect reports

2.Estimating effort and timeframe

3.Recording updated status of defects

4.Selecting the people to participate

5.Distributing the work product and other material

6.Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?

A.

2-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 1-d, 3-d

B.

2-a, 5-a, 1-b, 4-b, 3-c, 6-d

C.

1-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-c, 2-d, 3-d

D.

2-a, 4-b, 5-c, 1-d. 3-d, 6-d

Question # 41

Which of the following options is correct with respect to the differentiation of black-box techniques, white-box techniques, and experience-based testing?

A.

Black-box test techniques are based on requirements, white-box tests on source code. Therefore, black-box test techniques are always performed at higher test levels (e.g. system and acceptance level) and white-box test techniques at lower test levels.

B.

Experience-based testing can complement white-box and black-box test techniques well or can be used if the basic principles for these test techniques are lacking.

C.

Experience-based testing is an extension of black-box test techniques, since experience-based test techniques also do not require knowledge about the source code.

D.

The coverage items can be specified in advance, e.g., coverage of statements, states or checklists, for all three of the categories mentioned above.

Question # 42

Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?

I. Analyzing the impact of changes.

ii. A measure of code quality.

iii. Accurate test estimation.

iv. Making testing auditable.

Select the correct answer:

A.

i and ii

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

ii and iii

Question # 43

Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Which ONE of the following options organizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?

A.

{TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}

B.

{TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}

C.

{TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}

D.

{TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

Question # 44

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

Question # 45

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

A.

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

Question # 46

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is TRUE?

A.

Only developers and testers should be involved in retrospectives, as involving people in other roles is very likely to prevent developers and testers from having open and constructive discussions that really help identify process improvements.

B.

Retrospectives can be very effective in identifying process improvements and can also be very efficient and cost-effective especially since, unlike reviews, they do not require any follow-up activities

C.

On Agile projects, well-conducted retrospectives at the end of each iteration can help the team reduce and sometimes even eliminate the need for dairy stand-up meetings.

D.

During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle.

Question # 47

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

When running test case TC_59, the actual result for t = 35 degrees Celsius is OUTPUT = X instead of the expected output.

Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?

A.

Identification of the test object and test environment

B.

A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported

C.

Description of the structure of the test team

D.

Expected results and actual results

Question # 48

A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

A.

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B.

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C.

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D.

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

Question # 49

A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?

A.

Document incidents on a large board in the lab

B.

Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

C.

Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

D.

Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

Question # 50

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

Question # 51

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

Question # 52

A test status report SHOULD:

A.

Specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.

Be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.

Always be based on the same template within an organisation, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented.

D.

Specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organisation that were chosen at the outset of the test project.

Question # 53

How can testing contribute to higher quality?

A.

Testing help to measure the quality of software.

B.

Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.

C.

Testing removes errors in the software.

D.

Testing eliminates the risk with software.

Question # 54

Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The lest environment should correspond to the production environment

III Finding defects is not the main focus

IV Testing can be based on use cases

V Testing is normally performed by testers

VI Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

A.

Component - VI

Integration - IV

System -1

Acceptance - 111

B.

Component - IV

Integration -1

System - VI

Acceptance - V

C.

Component-I

Integration - V

System - II

Acceptance - IV

D.

Component - V

Integration - II

System - IV

Acceptance - VI

Question # 55

Which of the following statements is true in regards to how the context of a project affects the testing process?

A.

The context of testing determines which testing techniques are appropriate for a given project.

B.

The context of testing is not important as long as the test process follows a standard model.

C.

The context of testing only affects the non-functional aspects of testing, such as performance and usability.

D.

The context of testing is fixed and cannot change during a project lifecycle.

Question # 56

During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?

•Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.

•Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.

•Determining whether more tests are needed.

Select the correct answer:

A.

Test planning.

B.

Test analysis.

C.

Test design.

D.

Test monitoring and control.

Question # 57

Which of the following BEST distinguishes the terms "validation" and "verification"?

A.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

B.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

C.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

D.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

Question # 58

In order to exercise the right to vote, a person must meet the following requirements:

    be able to prove citizenship of the country

    be a resident in the administrative unit concerned

    have a minimum age of 18 years

    no other reasons for exclusion exist

Create the associated decision table and minimize it so that all conditions are correctly covered.

Hint: remember to use the "no other reasons for exclusion exist" condition when creating the decision table.

How many test cases are at least required to achieve the coverage of all decision rules and what could be the concrete test cases?

A.

5 test cases. 1 test case where all 4 prerequisites are fulfilled and 4 test cases for exactly one unfulfilled prerequisite each.

B.

16 test cases. With 4 conditions, each of which can be true or false, there are 16 (2 to the power of 4) possible combinations to be tested.

C.

2 test cases. 1 test case where all 4 conditions are fulfilled and 1 test case where all 4 conditions are not fulfilled.

D.

8 test cases. With 4 conditions, each of which can be true or false, there are 8 (4*2) possible combinations to be tested.

Question # 59

Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?

A.

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

B.

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

C.

To find failures and defects

D.

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

Question # 60

Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:

A.

Test progress reports

B.

Your colleagues advice

C.

A conversion spreadsheet

D.

A Test Oracle

Question # 61

Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.

I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.

II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.

III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk

IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.

V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

A.

I III IV and V are true. II is false.

B.

II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.

C.

C. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false.

D.

II, Ill and V are true. 1 ants Iv are false.

Question # 62

Which activity is NOT documented in a test plan?

A.

Defining the quality assurance approach

B.

Defining the test approach

C.

Selecting the metrics for test monitoring

D.

Setting the budget for the test activities

Question # 63

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.

Question # 64

You are testing a system that is used in motor vehicles to warn the driver of an obstacle when re-versing. Output is provided by a series of LED lights (green, yellow, and red), each illuminated based on clearly defined conditions.

The following summary describes the functionality:

•Object within 10 metres, green LED lit.

•Object within 5 metres, yellow LED lit.

•Object within 1 metre, red LED lit.

•Setting sensitivity mode to "ON" will result in only the red LED being lit when the object is within 1 metre.

The following decision table describes the rules associated with the functioning of this proximity warning system:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Which intended functionality is tested by Rule 5 in the decision table?

A.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

B.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

C.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in no LED being lit.

D.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in no LED being lit.

Question # 65

Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S4

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1

C.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

D.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

Question # 66

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is TRUE?

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard.

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning.

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

Question # 67

For the same financial institution in Question 12, with the same requirements and expectations, what would be the most likely investment values used in testing if two-point boundary value analysis is used to design test cases specific to the 13% interest rate equivalence partition?

A.

R100 000, R100 001, R500 000, R500 001.

B.

R99 999, R100 000, R499 999, R500 000.

C.

R100 000. R500 000.

D.

R99 000, R500 001.

Question # 68

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

A.

It is not a defect

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

Failure

Question # 69

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during

A.

Test execution

B.

Test design.

C.

Test analysis.

D.

Test planning

Question # 70

An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.

Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)

A.

1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x

B.

aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x

C.

1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

D.

1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby

Question # 71

Consider the following defect report for an Exam Booking System

Defect ID: ST1041 | Title: Unable to cancel an exam booking | Severity: Very High | Priority: Very High | Environment: Windows 10, Firefox

Description: When attempting to cancel an exam booking using the cancel exam feature, the system does not cancel the exam even though it shows a message that the exam has

been cancelled.

Which ONE of the following indicates the information that should be added to the description for reproducing the defect easily?

A.

Providing better severity and priority. It is not clear why this is a high severity problem as the exams can be booked without any problem.

B.

Providing exact steps that lead to this defect. It is not clear from the description if this is a problem for any scheduled exam or for a specific user.

C.

The defect Id used is alphanumeric in nature. It should be a number only.

D.

Repeating the test case with different browsers and logging a separate defect for each one of them

Question # 72

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

A.

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.

(4.5.15.20)

Question # 73

In a museum there are staggered entrance fees:

    Free admission: children under 14 years

    Reduced admission: young people aged 14 and under 18, retiree, students and welfare recipients

    Regular price: all other persons

Which of the following four options describes the minimum set of test data that reaches 100% coverage of all valid equivalence classes for the admission fees?

A.

Child (12 years), student (23 years), retiree (68 years)

B.

Youth (16 years), adult (35 years), adult (60 years)

C.

Child (12 years), welfare recipient (45 years), retiree (68 years)

D.

Child (12 years), adult (35 years), retiree (68 years)

Question # 74

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes statement testing?

A.

In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

C.

In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

D.

In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

Question # 75

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15 8.2010

Defect detected by: Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case: Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen 2 Nothing happens, no system response at all.

A.

Add information about which web browser was used

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add an impact analysis

Question # 76

Which of the following statements best describes the way in which decision coverage is measured?

A.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

B.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the tests, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

C.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

D.

It is not possible to accurately measure decision coverage.

Question # 77

A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.

Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

A.

Pesticide Paradox

B.

Early testing

C.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

D.

Defect clustering

Question # 78

The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?

A.

Requirements elicitation

B.

Defect analysis

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Performance Testing

Question # 79

Consider the following testing levels:

1) Component Testing

2) Integration Testing

3) System Testing

4) Acceptance Testing

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used.

Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

B.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development.

Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

C.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models.

Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

D.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

Question # 80

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the involvement of testers in the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?

A.

Testers should contribute to all activities in the SDLC and participate in design discussions.

B.

Testers should be involved from the beginning of the SDLC to increase understanding of design decisions and detect defects early.

C.

Testers should only be involved during the testing phase.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential; developers find it difficult to be objective.

Question # 81

Which or the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15.

A.

Less than 0.1 through 14. 15 and more

B.

Less than 1.1 through 14. more than 15

C.

negative numbers. 1 through 15. above 15

D.

Less than 1.1 through 15. more than 15

Question # 82

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

Question # 83

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.

Question # 84

A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

A.

Every executable statement Is covered.

B.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

C.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

D.

The "dead" code has not been covered.

Question # 85

Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

A.

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

B.

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

C.

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

D.

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

Question # 86

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.

B.

TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.

D.

TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3

Question # 87

Which of the following statements correctly describes error guessing?

A.

Error guessing is a testing technique that uses the experience and knowledge of testers to create test cases that may reveal suspected defects.

B.

Error guessing is a testing technique in which test cases are created to exercise the items in a checklist.

C.

Error guessing is a testing technique in which the testers dynamically create test cases based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

D.

Error guessing is a testing technique in which the tester creates test cases based on the analysis of the specified behavior of the test object without knowing its internal structure.

Question # 88

Which of the following examples represents System Integration testing?

A.

Testing an application m development environment which is similar to the production environment

B.

Testing the system based on specifications using simulator for a sub-system

C.

Testing an application's behaviour to check if it fulfils business needs

D.

Testing if e-commerce website works correctly with a third-party payment gateway

Question # 89

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

A.

Test schedules

B.

Cost of testing performed so far

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Number of unfixed defects

Question # 90

Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.

Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

A.

II, III, V

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, III, v

D.

II, III, IV

Question # 91

For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

A.

Use case based testing

B.

Decision table

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

Question # 92

Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader?

A.

To automate tests.

B.

To prepare and acquire test data.

C.

To set up the test environment.

D.

To coordinate the test strategy with project managers.

Question # 93

Which of the following is the BEST example of whole team approach?

A.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

D.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

Question # 94

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

Question # 95

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

Question # 96

Which ONE of the following work products TYPICALLY belongs to test execution?

A.

Test logs that document the results of test execution.

B.

Automated test scripts used for test execution.

C.

A test plan that describes the test strategy and test objectives.

D.

A list of test conditions prioritized during test analysis.

Question # 97

Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:

A.

not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others

B.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

C.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

D.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

Question # 98

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

Question # 99

In a review, which of the following is the responsibility of the manager?

A.

Performing detailed review based on past experience

B.

Ensuring that sufficient time is available for review

C.

Measuring the performance of each reviewer

D.

Organizing the logistics of the review meeting

Question # 100

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

Question # 101

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

A.

It identifies defects in modules and classes.

B.

Simulators and stubs may be required.

C.

It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.

D.

It may be applied using a test-first approach.

Question # 102

Test automation allows you to:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

Question # 103

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the benefit of traceability between the test basis and test work products?

A.

Traceability may be required by IT governance rules

B.

Traceability may help evaluate the extent of test coverage

C.

Traceability may allow testing to be auditable

D.

Traceability may make it harder to understand the impact of changes

Question # 104

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is FALSE?

A.

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices.

C.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools.

Question # 105

Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

A.

Tools to assess data quality

B.

Tools to support usability testing

C.

Tools to support specialized testing needs

D.

Tools to support static testing

Question # 106

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1.A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

2.The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3.The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

4.The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5.The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

6.The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

A.

Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5 Entry criteria -1, 3, 4

B.

Entry criteria - 2, 4 Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6

C.

Exit criteria -1,3,6 Exit criteria - 2, 5. 6

D.

Exit criteria -1,3,56 Exit criteria -1,3

Question # 107

Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

A.

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

C.

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

Question # 108

Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases ; As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online"

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story

[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password.

[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions.

[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered.

[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?

A.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

B.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

C.

The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card

D.

The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Question # 109

A typical objective of testing is to ensure that:

A.

testing is used to drive the development of a software

B.

a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques

C.

there are no defects in a software that is about to be released

D.

a software has been properly covered

Question # 110

What does configuration management enable for testing?

A.

It enables the scheduling of test resources.

B.

It enables the derivation of test cases and test data.

C.

It enables the creation of test progress reports.

D.

It enables the versioning of the test elements.

Question # 111

Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

A.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5

B.

TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5

C.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6

D.

TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6

Question # 112

A test manager has started a cycle of testing for an e-commerce application. The reason for testing is the change in the protocol for connecting to the payment gateway because of new regulations. Which of the following correctly names this type of testing?

A.

Beta testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

System integration testing

D.

Retirement testing

Question # 113

Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures.

B.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

C.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

D.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.

Question # 114

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stones should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

Question # 115

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

A.

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

Question # 116

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3)?

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

Question # 117

Given the following requirement:

Requirement ID: 2 8

Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee

Detailed Description

An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but

1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.

2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.

3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.

Age should be an integer of 0 or above.

Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

B.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

C.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

D.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

Question # 118

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?

A.

A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations

B.

A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements

C.

Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work

D.

Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user

Question # 119

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing during exploratory testing?

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

Question # 120

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:

ISTQB-CTFL question answer

What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question # 121

Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?

A.

The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the Al model to be tested, the data used and an optional text file

B.

Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100 characters

C.

A user is already logged in then on navigating to the Al model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run.

D.

An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report

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