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Practice Free Virginia-Life-Annuities-and-Health-Insurance Virginia Life, Annuities, and Health Insurance Examination Series 11-01 Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

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Question # 6

(Which type of life insurance policy is also considered a securities product?)

A.

An enhanced ordinary life policy

B.

An interest sensitive whole life policy

C.

A variable life policy

D.

An adjustable life policy

Question # 7

In long-term care insurance, ADLs normally include:

A.

Age, sex, income, and occupation

B.

Physicians, surgeons, dentists

C.

Spouse, children, parents, and siblings

D.

Dressing, eating, bathing, and transferring

Question # 8

To determine whether unfair trade practices have been violated, who has the power to examine a licensee's books and records?

A.

The Bureau of Insurance

B.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners

C.

The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

D.

The Virginia Insurance Guaranty Association

Question # 9

When may a person insured under a group term insurance policy exercise the conversion option?

A.

Never, because group life insurance does not have a conversion privilege

B.

Anytime while insurable and still a member of the insured group

C.

Within 31 days after the person has terminated employment

D.

Anytime after the group contract has existed for five years

Question # 10

The accidental death benefit provided by a life insurance policy may be classified as which one of the following?

A.

An optional policy rider

B.

A policy exclusion

C.

A form of annuity

D.

A nonforfeiture option

Question # 11

An insurance company writing business in a state other than the one in which it is domiciled is called:

A.

A foreign insurer

B.

A domestic insurer

C.

An alien insurer

D.

A captive insurer

Question # 12

Medicare Part B Medical Insurance pays benefits for:

A.

Hospice care

B.

Psychiatric hospitalization

C.

General inpatient hospital services

D.

Outpatient hospital treatment

Question # 13

(An individual purchased an annuity contract with $100,000 received in settlement of a lawsuit. No further purchase payments are permitted and benefit payments are to start in 17 years. The contract is:)

A.

An individual life annuity

B.

An individual retirement annuity (IRA)

C.

A retirement annuity

D.

A single premium deferred annuity

Question # 14

After an insured’s death, the insurer learned that the age on the application for a whole life insurance policy was understated by five years. The rate per $1,000 for the applicant’s actual age was $18, and the rate for the understated age was $15. How much will the insurer pay?

A.

15/18 of the policy face amount

B.

95% of the policy face amount

C.

The policy face amount

D.

Nothing at all

Question # 15

A juvenile life insurance policy is:

A.

Designed to insure the lives of a juvenile's parents

B.

Available only for children who are less than five years old

C.

A life insurance policy that insures the life of a minor

D.

Available only as decreasing term insurance for a minor

Question # 16

Which is true about the "bailout" feature sometimes found in single premium deferred annuity contracts?

A.

It waives surrender charges when the interest rate falls below a stated level

B.

It guarantees principal and interest in the event of insurer insolvency

C.

It allows return of the contract with full refund during the free-look period

D.

It permits splitting the contract when the annuitants become divorced

Question # 17

An insurance agent who fails to handle premiums received in a trustworthy manner may be guilty of:

A.

Restraint of business

B.

Violation of the financial responsibility law

C.

Failure to supervise representatives

D.

Failure to act as a fiduciary

Question # 18

A valid contract requires:

A.

A written offer

B.

A company form

C.

Consideration

D.

Written evidence

Question # 19

One premium payment covers which period of time in a single premium whole life policy?

A.

One month

B.

One year

C.

To the insured’s age 65

D.

The full life of the policy

Question # 20

(Sales material used in the marketing of market value adjusted annuities in Virginia must clearly illustrate:)

A.

The future projected values based on past experience

B.

The future projected values predicted by the insurer

C.

That the market value adjustment is always negative

D.

That the market value adjustment can be either upward or downward

Question # 21

Most individuals become eligible for Medicare at age:

A.

59

B.

62

C.

65

D.

70

Question # 22

If two group health insurance plans have coordination of benefits provisions, the plan that pays first is called the:

A.

Master contract

B.

Qualified plan

C.

Primary plan

D.

Comprehensive major medical plan

Question # 23

The document given to employees under a group life insurance plan that describes the basic features of the life insurance coverage is:

A.

A joinder agreement

B.

A certificate of insurance

C.

An application certificate

D.

A life policy binder

Question # 24

Giving policyholders some part of the agent's commission as an inducement to purchase insurance is an unfair trade practice known as:

A.

Twisting

B.

Rebating

C.

Replacement

D.

Misrepresentation

Question # 25

In dental insurance coverage, which one of the following typically is EXCLUDED?

A.

Treatment started prior to the eligibility date

B.

Preventive care

C.

Dental X-rays

D.

Root canal therapy

Question # 26

An insurance contract that identifies individuals by relationship to a particular organization is called:

A.

Contributory insurance

B.

Group insurance

C.

Health insurance

D.

COBRA coverage

Question # 27

A penalty tax sometimes applies to "premature" distributions of gains under a modified endowment contract (MEC). What is the amount of the penalty tax?

A.

7.5%

B.

10.0%

C.

12.5%

D.

15.0%

Question # 28

The "free look" provision in individual health insurance allows the insured a period of time to:

A.

Try a policy without paying for it

B.

Compare insurance policies

C.

Change coverage on a policy without changing the premium

D.

Cancel the policy and receive a full refund

Question # 29

(Which of the following is a characteristic of a profit-sharing retirement plan?)

A.

Employees are unable to contribute

B.

Employers may not offer other plans

C.

Employees can opt out of participating

D.

Employers must determine a set contribution amount

Question # 30

(Information regarding an individual's credit standing is contained in:)

A.

An agent's report

B.

A consumer report

C.

An attending physician's report

D.

An index bureau report

Question # 31

Which of these is true of a conditionally renewable individual health contract?

A.

A covered individual’s health status may be a condition for renewal

B.

Premiums are guaranteed as long as renewal conditions are met

C.

The insurer may refuse renewal if they move outside of the stated geographical location

D.

The insurer may change the conditions of renewability at any time

Question # 32

If a long-term care insurance policy is canceled, which benefit would reimburse the insured with a portion of the premiums paid?

A.

Inflation protection

B.

Return of premium

C.

Right to return

D.

Incontestibility

Question # 33

Which is true about ownership of a deferred annuity contract?

A.

All of the participants in a group contract are part-owners

B.

Ownership rights are neither transferable nor assignable

C.

An owner may be the annuitant or the beneficiary or neither

D.

An owner’s rights take effect when the benefit payment phase begins

Question # 34

When replacing individual health insurance, an agent should compare existing benefits with the proposed new policy to determine if:

A.

The insured must cancel the existing policy before applying for another

B.

The grace period of the existing policy will be renewed

C.

Commissions payable under the new policy justify replacement

D.

Existing benefits would be maintained under the new plan

Question # 35

The purchaser of a deferred annuity normally intends that the income benefits will begin:

A.

Upon the death of the annuitant

B.

Upon request of the designated beneficiary

C.

Within several weeks after the annuity is purchased

D.

On a specified date often years after issuance

Question # 36

Twisting is an unfair trade practice defined as:

A.

Persuading an insured, to the insured's detriment, to switch policies

B.

Encouraging a policyholder to replace a surrendered policy

C.

Encouraging an applicant to purchase insurance by offering a discount

D.

Making false statements on an application for insurance

Question # 37

Which annuity would provide benefit payments for five years to the beneficiary if the annuitant died five years after the benefit payments began?

A.

A reversionary annuity

B.

A life annuity with ten years certain

C.

A five-year annuity certain

D.

A twenty-year temporary annuity

Question # 38

Which doctor-ordered services can be performed by individuals without medical training?

A.

Rehabilitative care

B.

Therapeutic care

C.

Intermediate care

D.

Custodial care

Question # 39

Under the notice of claim provision, notice given to a health insurance company’s agent is:

A.

An incomplete preliminary notice of claim

B.

Notice to the insurer

C.

Not valid notice to the company

D.

Contrary to the uniform mandatory provisions

Question # 40

Under IRS rules, a company normally may do all of the following with funds in a qualified retirement plan EXCEPT:

A.

Invest in shares of common stocks

B.

Make allocations to participating shareholder-employees

C.

Distribute vested funds to employees who leave

D.

Repossess the funds for business purposes

Question # 41

All of the following statements about independent agents are true EXCEPT:

A.

They are responsible for their own expenses.

B.

They are employees of an insurer.

C.

Their compensation is based on what they sell.

D.

They own their renewal business.

Question # 42

An individual may receive a penalty-free premature distribution from a traditional IRA for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

A.

The individual becomes disabled

B.

The individual incurs excessive medical expenses

C.

The individual purchases a first home

D.

The individual files bankruptcy

Question # 43

All of the following statements about tax-sheltered annuities (TSAs) are true EXCEPT:

A.

They are also known as 403(b) plans.

B.

Accumulation payments often come from voluntary salary reductions.

C.

The annuitant may have an individual account or contract.

D.

The investment gain each year is included in the participant’s gross income.

Question # 44

Group term insurance coverage can usually be converted to:

A.

Another group term policy

B.

A yearly renewable term policy

C.

A permanent individual life insurance policy

D.

A decreasing term policy

Question # 45

(Under a group life insurance policy delivered in Virginia in which the employer is deemed to be the policyholder, which of the following is included in the term “employee” under the policy?)

A.

Credit union

B.

Individual proprietor

C.

Labor union

D.

Trade association

Question # 46

Which is true about the conversion privilege in term life insurance?

A.

The policyowner may convert to another term policy of the insured’s choice

B.

The policyowner may convert to permanent life insurance on an attained age basis without evidence of insurability

C.

The policyowner may convert to an annuity at attained age rates only if evidence of insurability is provided

D.

The policyowner may obtain additional term insurance at issue age rates without evidence of insurability

Question # 47

An insured died six months after a life insurance policy was issued. The full death benefit will NOT be paid if the cause of death was:

A.

Accidental injury

B.

Lung cancer

C.

Suicide

D.

Heart attack

Question # 48

On an application for individual health insurance, all of the following are typically included on the agent’s report EXCEPT:

A.

Agent’s relationship to the applicant

B.

Applicant’s financial status

C.

Applicant’s general character

D.

Applicant’s signature

Question # 49

Which is true upon the death of an annuitant under a joint life annuity?

A.

A surviving annuitant would continue receiving the same benefits

B.

The benefits to a surviving annuitant would cease entirely

C.

A designated beneficiary would start receiving benefit payments for life

D.

The benefits to a surviving annuitant would be reduced by half

Question # 50

Which type of Medicare Supplement information can be used without prior Commonwealth approval?

A.

Insurance company brochures

B.

Radio announcements approved by the insurer

C.

Television advertisements approved by the insurer

D.

Government publications

Question # 51

When payment of the initial premium does NOT accompany the application, the coverage under a life insurance policy normally begins:

A.

At 12:01 a.m. on the first day of the month

B.

When the application is completed and signed

C.

When the agent delivers the policy to the insured and collects the required premium

D.

One week following submission of the inspection report

Question # 52

If a patient with a preferred provider organization (PPO) chooses to use a non-PPO provider, the patient usually can:

A.

To have higher out-of-pocket expenses

B.

To pay the full cost of care

C.

100% reimbursement for the service provided

D.

A one-year waiting period before re-enrolling in the PPO

Question # 53

What is typically required to qualify for group life insurance?

A.

Part-time employees must be covered

B.

The group must meet minimum size requirements

C.

Dependents of the employees are required to participate

D.

New employees must provide proof of insurability

Question # 54

(What is the maximum percentage of total employee payroll that an employer may contribute to a profit-sharing plan?)

A.

25%

B.

28%

C.

30%

D.

33%

Question # 55

What is the agent’s primary role in underwriting life insurance?

A.

Assuring that the application provides proper information to the insurer

B.

Binding coverage immediately without home office approval

C.

Issuing the policy if all underwriting information is satisfactory

D.

Securing information from the Medical Information Bureau

Question # 56

All of the following are common features found in health maintenance organizations (HMOs) EXCEPT:

A.

Wellness programs

B.

Discounts on local health spa memberships

C.

Twenty-four hour access to emergency care

D.

Outpatient medical services

Question # 57

What kind of rider may be added to an individual disability income insurance policy to increase benefits during periods of price inflation?

A.

Inflation guard

B.

Cost of living

C.

Price escalation

D.

Wage protection

Question # 58

(All of the following statements about an adjustable life insurance policy are true EXCEPT:)

A.

The policyowner may change the plan of coverage.

B.

It is designed to meet changing insurance needs.

C.

Evidence of insurability may be required when the amount of insurance is increased.

D.

The policyowner is not permitted to take policy loans even if the policy has a cash value.

Question # 59

An application for individual health insurance must be:

A.

Verbal

B.

In writing, and can be altered by the agent

C.

In writing, and normally becomes part of the contract

D.

In writing, but does not become part of the contract

Question # 60

Which type of life insurance policy often contains a payor benefit rider?

A.

Juvenile

B.

Group life

C.

Credit life

D.

Second-to-die

Question # 61

Which is true about an adjustable life insurance policy?

A.

The policy while in force can alternate between forms of term life insurance and whole life insurance

B.

The only nonforfeiture option available is cash

C.

No settlement options are available

D.

It is a form of retirement income annuity

Question # 62

When the employer pays the premium, covered individuals normally receive tax-free benefits under all of the following group health plans EXCEPT:

A.

Disability income

B.

Major medical

C.

Dental

D.

Health maintenance organization

Question # 63

Group credit life insurance is generally a form of:

A.

Decreasing term insurance

B.

Increasing term insurance

C.

Level term insurance

D.

Whole life insurance

Question # 64

What might be considered an unfair claims settlement practice?

A.

Offering compromise settlements when facts are in question

B.

Denying coverage for claims after a timely investigation

C.

Failing to promptly investigate and settle legitimate claims

D.

Compelling insureds to litigate claims where a real coverage dispute exists

Question # 65

All of the following statements about straight whole life insurance policies are true EXCEPT:

A.

Protection ends at the insured’s age 65

B.

Premiums are payable for as long as the policy remains in force

C.

Loan and nonforfeiture values are available to the policyowner

D.

The face amount is paid when the insured survives to policy maturity

Question # 66

For health maintenance organization (HMO) members, self-referral means that members may:

A.

Decide when they need to see a specialist

B.

Refer to their own certificate for details of coverage

C.

Send other members to appropriate primary care physicians

D.

Enroll in wellness programs without obtaining permission from the HMO

Question # 67

Which term in a disability income contract refers to two separate periods of disability that may be counted as one?

A.

Recurrent

B.

Presumptive

C.

Renewable

D.

Elimination

Question # 68

When the business of insurance is no longer conducted under an assumed name, an agent must notify:

A.

The Bureau of Insurance

B.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners

C.

The Department of Commerce

D.

The Surety Organization of Virginia

Question # 69

(In accordance with IRS regulations, which of the following is the MAXIMUM percentage of an employee’s pay that is allowed through a simplified employee pension (SEP) plan?)

A.

5%

B.

15%

C.

25%

D.

30%

Question # 70

In the solicitation and sale of Medicare Supplement insurance policies, when must an agent deliver the buyer's guide?

A.

Only when the solicitation involves replacement

B.

At the time of application

C.

Prior to accepting any payment of premium

D.

Only when the purchaser is a first-time buyer

Question # 71

If an individual's occupation is considered to be illegal:

A.

It must be stated as such on a health insurance application.

B.

It may require a waiver on a disability income insurance policy.

C.

It may result in a denial of a disability income claim.

D.

It results in a substandard rating on a health insurance policy.

Question # 72

All of the following statements about universal life insurance are true EXCEPT:

A.

A mortality charge is subtracted from the cash value accumulations each month.

B.

Policy loans are prohibited.

C.

The policy specifies the percentage of each premium that will be used for company expenses.

D.

Withdrawals of the cash value are allowed and may be subject to a surrender charge.

Question # 73

If both the primary and contingent beneficiaries of a life insurance policy are deceased, proceeds are paid to the:

A.

Insurance company

B.

State of domicile

C.

Insured’s estate

D.

Contingent beneficiary’s estate

Question # 74

Which statement about universal life insurance is true?

A.

Coverage is terminated automatically when the insured retires.

B.

It generally is written to provide a death benefit that decreases over time.

C.

The policyowner may be able to increase the death benefit subject to insurability requirements.

D.

The guaranteed interest rate generally is tied to the Consumer Price Index.

Question # 75

In individual health insurance, a proof of loss typically should be submitted to the insurer within:

A.

30 days from the date of loss

B.

60 days from the date of loss

C.

90 days from the date of loss

D.

120 days from the date of loss

Question # 76

Dental expenses covered under an indemnity plan include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Fluoride treatments for children under 16

B.

Fillings and root canal treatments

C.

Dietary counseling and instructions

D.

Extraction of teeth

Question # 77

Immediate annuities are often purchased by people who:

A.

Desire a tax deduction in the current year

B.

Want to contribute to a tax-sheltered annuity

C.

Have a lump sum to invest at retirement

D.

Want to accumulate funds for retirement at a later date

Question # 78

What occurs when money is transferred directly from one IRA into another IRA of the same type?

A.

A nontaxable event

B.

A taxable event

C.

A premature distribution

D.

A required distribution

Question # 79

When the owner of a life insurance policy reserves the right to change the beneficiary, the arrangement is called:

A.

A contingent designation

B.

An irrevocable designation

C.

A contestable designation

D.

A revocable designation

Question # 80

Who has the right to change the beneficiary of a health policy with a revocable beneficiary designation?

A.

The policyowner

B.

The beneficiary

C.

The insurer

D.

The agent

Question # 81

In a deferred annuity, which contract feature begins at a high level, often 5%-10%, and then diminishes until it disappears after a specified number of years?

A.

The surrender charge

B.

The front end sales load

C.

The guaranteed interest rate

D.

The expense charge

Question # 82

In initiating a health insurance claim, what must the insured provide to the insurer within the time limit specified in the policy or as soon thereafter as reasonably possible?

A.

Copies of medical bills

B.

Verification of coverage

C.

Physician's diagnosis

D.

Notice of claim

Question # 83

Life insurance policies are required to have all of the following provisions EXCEPT:

A.

The waiver of premium clause

B.

The misstatement of age clause

C.

The grace period clause

D.

The incontestability clause

Question # 84

(Which one of the following statements about the automatic premium loan provision in a life insurance policy is true?)

A.

It is a required provision that provides for the purchase of additional insurance at guaranteed rates.

B.

It provides for a series of bank loans to finance the purchase of split-dollar life insurance.

C.

It waives policy premiums if the policyowner becomes totally and permanently disabled.

D.

It provides for a policy loan to pay any premium not paid by the end of the grace period.

Question # 85

Insurance which covers business expenses and payroll when the insured businessowner is disabled is:

A.

Workers compensation insurance

B.

Professional insurance

C.

Business overhead expense insurance

D.

Special risk insurance

Question # 86

When a Medicare Supplement policy is purchased during the open enrollment period:

A.

The premium cost may be higher than usual

B.

The benefits may be lower than usual

C.

The exclusions may be more numerous than usual

D.

The policy must be issued regardless of health status

Question # 87

An individual purchased an annuity with a series of premium payments continuing over a period of twenty years. The purchase payments were made during the:

A.

Liquidation period

B.

Annuity period

C.

Period certain

D.

Accumulation period

Question # 88

A group life insurance plan must insure all eligible employees if the:

A.

Group was formed for the express purpose of obtaining insurance

B.

Employer pays the entire premium

C.

Employees are covered under a retirement plan

D.

Employer pays for a group health insurance plan

Question # 89

The entire contract clause in a life insurance policy states that the complete contract between the insurer and the policyowner usually consists of the policy and the:

A.

Conditional premium receipt

B.

Attached application

C.

Waiver of premium rider

D.

Declaration page

Question # 90

Under which one of the following life insurance policies would it be possible to include an automatic premium loan provision?

A.

Credit insurance

B.

Decreasing term

C.

Level term

D.

Whole life

Question # 91

(In a joint life insurance policy, death proceeds are paid ONLY:)

A.

At the first insured's death

B.

At the second insured's death

C.

To the beneficiary of the surviving insured

D.

If an insurable interest still exists

Question # 92

The overall authority of an insurance agent includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Apparent authority

B.

Express or specific authority

C.

Implied authority

D.

Residual authority

Question # 93

An individual or business entity conducting business under an assumed or fictitious name must notify the Bureau of Insurance either at the time the license application is filed or:

A.

Within 30 calendar days from the date the name is adopted

B.

Within 60 calendar days from when the first policy is sold under the assumed name

C.

At the time of license renewal

D.

30 days before the assumed name is no longer being used

Question # 94

An accelerated benefit rider in a life insurance policy may provide funds to an insured who:

A.

Is expected to die within six months

B.

Has a back injury requiring two years of rehabilitation

C.

Is about to have minor surgery

D.

Elects to receive supplemental retirement income

Question # 95

What is a situation or condition that increases the likelihood of an insured loss occurring?

A.

Hazard

B.

Peril

C.

Exposure

D.

Risk

Question # 96

Which statement about a decreasing term life insurance policy is true?

A.

The premium reduces annually and the amount of coverage decreases annually.

B.

The premium reduces annually, but the amount of coverage remains level.

C.

The premium remains level, but the amount of coverage decreases annually.

D.

The premium increases annually, but the amount of coverage decreases.

Question # 97

In health insurance, the insured must furnish written proof of loss to the insurer within:

A.

15 days of the occurrence of the loss

B.

30 days of the occurrence of the loss

C.

60 days of the occurrence of the loss

D.

90 days of the occurrence of the loss

Question # 98

(Which type of life insurance does NOT insure the life of an individual?)

A.

Employer group plan

B.

Association group plan

C.

Group credit life insurance

D.

Equity indexed universal life

Question # 99

When first joining an HMO, a member usually will be asked to select a:

A.

Medical director

B.

Primary care physician

C.

Copayment amount

D.

Rider

Question # 100

Business overhead expense insurance:

A.

May cover eligible business expenses when the insured businessowner is disabled

B.

Pays monthly income to disabled employees

C.

Covers loss of profits when the insured's business is closed down

D.

Pays medical benefits to the disabled businessowner

Question # 101

A group health insurance contract is between the:

A.

Employer and employees

B.

Employee and insurance company

C.

Employer and insurance company

D.

Employer, employees, and insurance company

Question # 102

Insurance company medical expense claim forms typically include questions about all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

The occurrence of the loss

B.

The character of the loss

C.

The extent of the loss

D.

The employee’s annual salary

Question # 103

In individual health insurance, the 10-day free look provision:

A.

Is the same as a grace period

B.

Is subject to a surrender charge

C.

Provides for a full refund of premium

D.

Applies only when no premium has been paid

Question # 104

Which client could deposit the available funds into a rollover individual retirement account (IRA)?

A.

A student who receives $20,000 as a life insurance death benefit

B.

A self-employed person who has $5,000 to invest for retirement

C.

An employee who resigns and receives $15,000 from a qualified plan

D.

An individual who receives $10,000 from a lottery

Question # 105

Under federal law, an insurance agent may be sentenced to prison for:

A.

Selling insurance with a nonresident license

B.

Embezzling money from an insurance company

C.

Inducing a client to sign an application for insurance

D.

Suing an insurer over contract violations

Question # 106

All changes and corrections made to an application for health insurance by an agent must be initialed by the:

A.

Agent

B.

Applicant

C.

Applicant’s physician

D.

Insurance company underwriter

Question # 107

A contractual arrangement that transfers exposure from one insurer to another insurer is a:

A.

Reciprocal contract

B.

Coinsurance contract

C.

Reinsurance contract

D.

Captive contract

Question # 108

What is the primary role of medical expense and disability insurance?

A.

Payment of death benefits

B.

Protection against the costs of medical care and the loss of earning power

C.

Provision for dismemberment benefits

D.

Payment for rehabilitation costs following a life-threatening injury

Question # 109

All of the following are unfair trade practices EXCEPT:

A.

Misrepresentation

B.

Fraudulent advertising

C.

Illegal inducement

D.

Reinsurance

Question # 110

All of the following statements about universal life insurance are true EXCEPT:

A.

A mortality charge is subtracted from the cash value accumulations each month

B.

The policy stipulates the amount that will be used for company expenses

C.

Death benefits are taxed as ordinary income

D.

Policy loans affect the amount of interest credited to the policy cash value

Question # 111

Monthly life annuity benefit payments received from a tax-sheltered annuity (TSA) are:

A.

Tax free to all recipients

B.

Tax free until the investment is recovered

C.

Taxed as ordinary income in the year received

D.

Tax free to the annuitant but taxable to the beneficiary

Question # 112

An example of a comprehensive health policy is:

A.

A major medical policy

B.

A dental policy

C.

A vision policy

D.

A workers' compensation policy

Question # 113

Nearly all citizens of the U.S.A., regardless of age, are eligible for Medicare Part B if they are:

A.

Retired permanently

B.

Eligible for Medicare Part A

C.

Uninsurable through commercial insurers

D.

"Fully insured" under Social Security

Question # 114

(How long does an agent's license remain active without appointments?)

A.

15 business days

B.

30 calendar days

C.

90 business days

D.

There is no appointment requirement

Question # 115

Under Medicare Supplement insurance, what form provides information about services, benefits, copayments, deductibles, exclusions, premiums, and the insurer?

A.

The outline of coverage

B.

The notice of benefit change

C.

The supplemental disclosure form

D.

The notice of replacement

Question # 116

Which life insurance policy may pay the face amount to the policyowner if the insured survives to policy maturity?

A.

Level term life

B.

Credit life

C.

Ordinary whole life

D.

Convertible term life

Question # 117

One characteristic of flexible premium life insurance is that payment of the premium can be altered at the option of:

A.

The policyowner

B.

The contingent beneficiary

C.

The insurer, if the Consumer Price Index has risen at least 10% over the past year

D.

The insurer, if the prime interest rate falls below 6%

Question # 118

Renewal of small employer health insurance plans may be denied for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

A.

Nonpayment of premiums

B.

Having less than the required number of participants

C.

Overuse of physician and hospital services

D.

Fraud by the employer

Question # 119

In long-term care insurance, ADLs normally include:

A.

Age, sex, income, and occupation

B.

Physicians, surgeons, dentists, and optometrists

C.

Spouse, children, parents, and siblings

D.

Dressing, eating, bathing, and mobility

Question # 120

Which of the following statements about the contestability of a life insurance policy is true?

A.

The policy cannot be contested by the insurer once it is paid for and issued

B.

The policy can be contested by the insurer only during the first two years of the contract

C.

The policy can be contested by the insurer at all times

D.

The policy can be contested only if the insured is convicted of a felony

Question # 121

Who normally bears the cost of excess charges in a Medicare claim?

A.

The Social Security Administration

B.

The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services

C.

The service provider

D.

The insured

Question # 122

Which concept states that the insured is entitled to the coverage under a policy that a sensible and prudent buyer would expect it to provide?

A.

Indemnity

B.

Reasonable expectations

C.

Subrogation

D.

Utmost good faith

Question # 123

A point-of-service (POS) health plan is best defined as a plan that:

A.

Operates like an HMO plan without a gatekeeper

B.

Combines indemnity plan features with those of HMOs or preferred provider plans

C.

Permits coverage for non-network providers only when in-network care is unavailable

D.

Covers treatment received at specific locations only

Question # 124

A licensed agent must report a felony conviction to the Commission within how many calendar days?

A.

10 days

B.

20 days

C.

30 days

D.

60 days

Question # 125

Before being tested for HIV, a health insurance applicant must:

A.

Pay for the test

B.

Sign a consent form

C.

Provide evidence of insurability

D.

Sign a waiver of treatment

Question # 126

An agent convicted of a felony must report the conviction to the Commission:

A.

Within 15 calendar days

B.

Within 30 calendar days

C.

Within 45 calendar days

D.

On the next license renewal date

Question # 127

(An insurer or an agent must respond to an insured who requests access to the personal information gathered on the insured within:)

A.

30 business days

B.

45 business days

C.

60 business days

D.

90 business days

Question # 128

Which medical care benefits are emphasized in HMO plans?

A.

Alternative medicine

B.

Preventive care

C.

Emergency care

D.

Home health care

Question # 129

(What factor allows some level term policies to provide level premiums?)

A.

Evidence of insurability is required each year

B.

The face amount of the policy decreases annually

C.

An additional lump-sum premium is due the first year

D.

Premiums are averaged over the term of the policy

Question # 130

A mandatory second surgical opinion provision typically requires the insured to do which one of the following?

A.

Seek a second opinion in emergency situations

B.

Pay the cost of the second opinion

C.

Seek a second opinion for surgeries that are on a list of elective surgeries

D.

Accept the recommendation of the second surgeon

Question # 131

All the following are considered Essential Health Benefits under the ACA, EXCEPT:

A.

Hospitalization

B.

Laboratory services

C.

Adult dental services

D.

Preventive care services

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