MCCQE Practice Exam Questions with Answers MCCQE Part 1 Exam Certification

Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risks of fetal renal dysgenesis, oligohydramnios, and fetal death, especially in the second and third trimesters.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy:

“ACE inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic potential and adverse fetal effects.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Obstetrics > Hypertension in Pregnancy:

“Candidates must identify safe antihypertensives during pregnancy and contraindicated medications such as ACE inhibitors and ARBs.”

Methyldopa, labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine are considered safe and are commonly used in pregnancy.

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This is a known patient with intellectual disability and behavioral concerns. The presentation of alcohol intoxication in a calm patient who inadvertently broke bottles warrants prompt, nonjudgmental clinical assessment before escalating. De-escalation and safety assessment come first.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, "Psychiatric Emergencies and Crisis Management":

“In agitated or intoxicated individuals with developmental disability, a calm approach and prompt physician assessment are essential to prevent escalation and assess for medical or psychiatric needs.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > Crisis and Acute Presentations > 72-2):

“Candidates must assess potentially disruptive patients with dignity and caution before involving law enforcement or security. Physician engagement is often calming.”

Police intervention (A) is premature and may escalate matters. Ignoring (B) risks safety. Asking him to leave (C) without assessment is inappropriate. Social work (E) may help, but after medical triage.

Patients with developmental disabilities must still be engaged directly unless clearly incapable. It is vital to first establish the companion’s relationship to the patient and give the patient the opportunity to communicate.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, Consent and Capacity:

“Presume capacity in adults with developmental disabilities unless proven otherwise. Direct communication with the patient is essential, and the identity of accompanying individuals should be clarified.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – ELOM > Patient Autonomy and Consent:

“Candidates must respect patient autonomy and include developmentally delayed individuals in medical discussions unless incapacity is determined.”

Options A and C delay establishing capacity and relationship. Option D is premature. Option E bypasses consent and interaction with the patient.

Spontaneous, unilateral, blood-tinged nipple discharge in a postmenopausal woman is considered pathologic and warrants imaging to rule out intraductal pathology including malignancy. The best initial test is diagnostic mammography, often with ultrasound if indicated.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Breast Disorders:

“Unilateral, spontaneous, bloody nipple discharge should be evaluated with mammography and targeted ultrasound. Further tests such as MRI or duct excision are based on findings.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 81-1: Breast Conditions):

“Candidates must recognize red flags for breast malignancy and apply appropriate initial diagnostic imaging.”

Serum prolactin (C) is indicated in galactorrhea. Galactography (D) and MRI (E) are second-line. Biopsy (A) is premature without imaging.

Orchiopexy is the treatment of choice for cryptorchidism and should be performed between 6–18 months of age. Early surgery improves fertility outcomes and reduces malignancy risk.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Urology:

“Undescended testes should be referred for orchiopexy ideally before 18 months of age. Observation beyond 6 months is not recommended.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Genitourinary Disorders:

“Candidates must recognize and refer for cryptorchidism early to optimize testicular function and reduce cancer risk.”

Hormonal therapies (C, D) are not recommended due to limited efficacy. Observation (A) is too late beyond

Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growthrestriction. First-trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:

“In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:

“Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies.”

Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

An estimated fetal weight below the 5th percentile at 30 weeks is concerning for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). This warrants prompt evaluation of fetal well-being via biophysical profile and Doppler assessment. The patient should be referred for further fetal assessment immediately to rule out placental insufficiency or other complications.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, “Fetal Growth Restriction”:

“EFW < 10th percentile, especially < 5th, warrants further evaluation including Doppler studies and biophysical profile. Immediate assessment is warranted to determine fetal well-being.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-4: Antepartum Surveillance):

“Candidates must initiate urgent assessment in cases of abnormal fetal growth to reduce perinatal morbidity.”

Delaying care (B) is inappropriate. Reassurance (A) is unsafe. ASA (D) is preventative, not corrective. Doppler (E) is important but should be coordinated through obstetrical triage.

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Elevated hemoglobin in the absence of polycythemia vera can be due to secondary causes such as chronic hypoxia. Central sleep apnea, often associated with diabetes or neurologic conditions, leads to intermittent hypoxia and compensatory erythropoiesis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Hematology and Respiratory Medicine, “Polycythemia” Section:

“Secondary erythrocytosis may result from hypoxic conditions including sleep apnea, COPD, or high altitude. Assess for sleep-disordered breathing in patients with elevated hemoglobin and no myeloproliferative features.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Abnormalities):

“Candidates must investigate secondary causes of elevated hemoglobin, including hypoxia-related conditions.”

Hypertension (A), hypothyroidism (C), and cirrhosis (D) do not cause polycythemia. Alcohol (B) typically causes macrocytosis and anemia.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient likely has treatment-resistant obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), with classicsymptoms of rumination, excessive guilt, and fear of causing harm. Clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant with strong serotonergic activity, is effective in treatment-resistant OCD and is often used after failure of multiple SSRIs or SNRIs.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, OCD:

“Clomipramine is a first-line tricyclic antidepressant for OCD, particularly after failed SSRI/SNRI trials. It is effective due to potent serotonergic action.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > OCD and Anxiety Disorders:

“Candidates must identify treatment strategies for resistant OCD, including the role of clomipramine and augmentation therapy.”

Quetiapine (C) may be used as augmentation. Paroxetine (E) is another SSRI. Vortioxetine (A) and amitriptyline (D) are not first-line or preferred for OCD.

This patient has classic signs of cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad: hypotension, muffled heartsounds, elevated JVP, plus pulsus paradoxus). However, she also has advanced metastatic cancer, functional decline, and has stopped active treatment. In this context, a goals-of-care discussion is the most appropriate next step to determine her wishes regarding interventions like pericardiocentesis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Palliative Care:

“End-of-life care should prioritize quality of life and patient preferences. In patients with terminal illness and life-threatening conditions (e.g., tamponade), initiate a conversation about goals before aggressive intervention.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Palliative and End-of-Life Care:

“Candidates must assess prognosis, patient values, and initiate appropriate end-of-life discussions before invasive treatment.”

Although pericardiocentesis (A) may relieve symptoms, it should follow consent based on the patient’s goals. ICU (E), fluids (B), or transfusion (D) are not appropriate without this discussion.

This patient has signs suggestive of decompensated liver cirrhosis (ascites, peripheral edema, low-normal BP, alcohol use, abdominal distension). Sodium restriction is the cornerstone of first-line management to prevent fluid retention in cirrhotic ascites.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, “Cirrhosis and Ascites” Section:

“Sodium restriction (<2 g/day) is the most important non-pharmacologic management for ascites. Fluid restriction is added only in cases of severe hyponatremia.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-5: Liver Disease):

“Candidates must manage ascites conservatively using sodium restriction, with diuretics added as needed.”

Lactulose (E) is used for hepatic encephalopathy, not ascites. Ramipril (B) may worsen renal function in cirrhosis. Nadolol (C) is used for variceal bleeding prophylaxis. Compression stockings (D) are not helpful in ascites-related edema.

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In discussions about end-of-life care, it is critical to shift the focus from the substitute decision-maker’s own feelings to what the patient would have wanted. This approach promotes ethically sound and patient-centered decisions. It is respectful, supportive, and maintains trust.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Advance Care Planning and End-of-Life Decisions”:

“When a patient cannot express wishes, decisions must be based on known prior wishes or substituted judgment—what the patient would have wanted.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Capacity, Consent, and End-of-Life Care):

“Candidates must guide surrogate decision-makers toward reflecting on the patient’s values and previously expressed wishes.”

Options A and B are inappropriate—waiting without engagement or unilateral withdrawal is unethical. C does not address the wife’s emotional or ethical concerns. E is premature unless the wife is clearly unable or unfit to act as decision-maker.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient is likely experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms (dysphagia/dystonia) due to haloperidol. Switching to an atypical antipsychotic (like quetiapine), which has a lower risk of EPS, is appropriate. Dysphagia in the context of antipsychotic use requires prompt medication review.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Antipsychotics and Extrapyramidal Effects”:

“Dysphagia can be a sign of extrapyramidal side effects. Consider switching to an atypical antipsychotic with lower EPS risk.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Antipsychotic Adverse Effects):

“Candidates must recognize and manage EPS, including drug-induced dysphagia.”

Dantrolene (C) is for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not isolated dysphagia. Laryngoscopy (B) may be useful later but not first-line. Reassurance (D) is unsafe. Lorazepam (E) may help in dystonia but doesn't address the root cause.

Medical record retention is governed by laws and policies established by the provincial or territorial medical regulatory authorities (e.g., College of Physicians and Surgeons of Ontario).These bodies set requirements for how long patient records must be maintained and how to handle former patients’ data.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Ethics and Health Systems:

“Retention of medical records is regulated by provincial/territorial colleges, which outline minimum retention periods and storage responsibilities.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Legal Requirements > Professional Responsibilities):

“The candidate must be able to identify the legal responsibilities of physicians regarding record-keeping, as guided by regulatory authorities.”

National organizations such as Health Canada, CFPC, CMA, and MCC do not set these rules for individual practice management.

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This case suggests diversion of prescription opioids, a serious safety and regulatory concern. The physician must balance maintaining patient care with minimizing risk. Daily dispensing via a monitored pharmacy is the safest and most practical solution to prevent misuse or theft, while avoiding immediate discontinuation of the patient’s needed medication.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Chronic Pain & Substance Use:

“In cases of concern for opioid diversion, consider witnessed daily dispensing, prescription monitoring, and involving caregivers when appropriate.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Pain Management > 56-2):

“The candidate must demonstrate understanding of strategies for safe prescribing and monitoring of controlled substances, including mitigation of diversion.”

Calling the police (A) is not the physician’s immediate duty. Providing an early refill (B) worsens risk. Tapering (C) may be appropriate later, but first the medication must be safeguarded. Increasing quantity (D) is inappropriate.

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This is a classic presentation of acute acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose. The most serious consequence, especially with delayed treatment, is fulminant hepatic failure.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Toxicology, Acetaminophen Toxicity:

“Acetaminophen overdose is the most common cause of acute liver failure. Delayed presentation leads to jaundice, coagulopathy, encephalopathy, and possible death.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Toxicology:

“Candidates must identify acetaminophen overdose by clinical history and recognize fulminant hepatic failure as a primary complication.”

Cerebral edema (C) may occur secondarily, but fulminant hepatic failure is the most direct and expected outcome. Renal failure (B), arrhythmias (E), and seizures (A) are not typical with acetaminophen.

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Children with a first-degree relative who has premature coronary artery disease or hypercholesterolemia should undergo fasting lipid screening between ages 2–10. Since the child is 10, screening is indicated.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Preventive Care in Children”:

“Lipid screening is recommended for children ?2 years old with a family history of early cardiovascular disease or hypercholesterolemia.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Preventive Medicine):

“Candidates must screen children at high risk of cardiovascular disease appropriately, including lipid profile for familial hyperlipidemia.”

Diet and exercise counseling may follow screening, but testing is the first step. Reassurance alone (C) is inappropriate. Homocysteine (E) and HbA1c are not first-line tests in this setting.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Lithium commonly causes hypothyroidism, which can lead to fatigue, cognitive slowing, weight gain, and memory impairment. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are often elevated in such cases.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry / Endocrinology:

“Lithium is associated with hypothyroidism and renal impairment. Monitor TSH regularly in patients on lithium therapy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Mood Stabilizers):

“Candidates must recognize the endocrine side effects of lithium, including hypothyroidism and the importance of TSH monitoring.”

Creatinine clearance (C) may also be affected but is less directly associated with memory issues. Liver function (A), sodium (D), and PTH (E) are not typically the first abnormal values in this presentation.

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When a competent patient declines dialysis, the next step is to support shared decision-making and explore options that align with their lifestyle. Peritoneal dialysis may allow more flexibility and autonomy compared to hemodialysis, making it more acceptable to patients with demanding schedules.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Nephrology, Chronic Kidney Disease Section:

“Peritoneal dialysis offers the advantage of home-based treatment and flexible scheduling. Patient education and peer support can improve acceptance and adherence to dialysis initiation.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Nephrology:

“The candidate should explore treatment alternatives collaboratively, emphasizing patient autonomy, while addressing misconceptions and lifestyle concerns related to dialysis.”

Simply warning the patient or withdrawing engagement (Options B and C) may undermine rapport. Access to medical records (D) is a right, but does not actively address treatment planning. Exploring new employment (E) is inappropriate at this stage.

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Scaphoid fractures are often radiographically occult on initial presentation and can present later with persistent pain and swelling in the anatomical snuffbox. They typically occur following a fall on an outstretched hand. If missed, they can lead to avascular necrosis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Orthopedics, Wrist Injuries:

“Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures. X-rays may be negative early, so high suspicion requires immobilization and repeat imaging after 10–14 days.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Surgery > Musculoskeletal Trauma:

“Candidates must recognize that some fractures, such as scaphoid, may not appear on initial imaging but require clinical suspicion and follow-up imaging or immobilization.”

Other options (B and C) are less likely without radiographic evidence. De Quervain tenosynovitis (D) presents with radial wrist pain unrelated to trauma and worsens with thumb movement.

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Physicians in Canada who have conscientious objections to procedures such as abortion are legally and ethically required to make an effective referral to another provider or service that can offer the treatment. The provider must not delay access to care.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Conscientious Objection”:

“A physician who objects to providing a service for reasons of conscience must make an effective referral to another provider or agency.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Professionalism > 90-1):

“Candidates must recognize the obligation to refer patients for services they themselves will not provide due to personal or religious beliefs.”

Delaying care (C), imposing personal beliefs (A), or suggesting alternatives like adoption (D) is inappropriate and may violate patient autonomy.

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Magnesium sulfate toxicity is dose-dependent. The earliest and most sensitive clinical sign is theloss of deep tendon reflexes (especially patellar), which occurs before respiratory depression or cardiac changes.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics Chapter:

“Toxicity from magnesium sulfate is progressive and typically presents first with loss of deep tendon reflexes. Respiratory depression and cardiac arrest occur at higher serum levels. Regular monitoring of reflexes, respiratory rate, and urine output is essential.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 83-3: Preterm Labour and Tocolysis):

“The candidate must recognize early signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity including areflexia and respiratory depression.”

Tachycardia (B), hypotension (C), and tachypnea (D) are not typical early signs. Oliguria (E) may be a risk factor for accumulation but is not the first sign of toxicity.

Palliative radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for painful bone metastases, including those from prostate cancer. It provides localized pain relief and functional improvement.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Oncology, “Metastatic Bone Pain”:

“External beam radiotherapy is first-line treatment for localized bone pain from metastases. Relief occurs within days to weeks.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Oncology > 52-1):

“Candidates must identify treatment options for symptom control in metastatic cancer, including palliative radiotherapy for painful bone lesions.”

Androgen deprivation therapy (B, C) treats systemic disease but doesn’t address acute pain. Opioids (D) may be used, but radiotherapy provides disease-targeted relief. Intrathecal steroids (A) are not standard for prostate metastases.

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One of the strongest modifiable risk factors for postoperative delirium in older adults is exposure to anticholinergic medications (e.g., diphenhydramine, certain antidepressants). Avoiding these can reduce delirium risk.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Geriatrics, “Delirium Prevention”:

“Avoid high-risk medications including anticholinergics, benzodiazepines, and narcotics if possible. Maintain orientation cues and adequate pain control.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Impairment):

“Candidates must recognize predisposing factors for delirium and apply prevention strategies, including medication review.”

Opiates (B) should be used judiciously; untreated pain can also cause delirium. Cognitive screening (C) is helpful for baseline but does not prevent delirium. Benzodiazepines (D) increase delirium risk. Family involvement is actually helpful (E).

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Before proceeding with any virtual consultation, particularly by voice-only, it is essential to confirm the patient’s identity beyond name alone — for example, by verifying date of birth or health card number. This protects privacy and ensures medical confidentiality.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, Virtual Care Section:

“Virtual care must begin by verifying patient identity using at least two identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth) to prevent disclosure of personal health information to unintended individuals.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Ethical, Legal, and Professionalism > Virtual Care:

“The candidate must confirm patient identity and consent before initiating any virtual medical encounter, especially when video is not available.”

Option A (reason for visit) should follow identity confirmation. Option B (confirming primary care provider) is irrelevant to identity verification.

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The first step in evaluating a new, hot, swollen joint is arthrocentesis to rule out septic arthritis and crystal arthropathy. Joint aspiration provides fluid for microscopy, culture, and crystal analysis, which guides definitive diagnosis and treatment.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Rheumatology, Monoarthritis:

“Joint aspiration is the most important first step in evaluating monoarthritis. Septic arthritis must be ruled out before initiating any therapy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Rheumatology:

“Candidates should perform joint aspiration in the presence of acute monoarthritis to differentiate between septic arthritis, gout, and other causes.”

Radiography (A) and serum uric acid (B) do not establish cause acutely. Empiric antibiotics (D) and NSAIDs (E) should only be started after ruling out septic arthritis.

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This patient’s headache is consistent with tension-type or stress-related headache. The symptoms are mild, responsive to over-the-counter medications, and without red flags (neurologic signs, worsening pattern, nocturnal pain). Reassurance is appropriate.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Neurology, “Headache” Section:

“In the absence of red flags (e.g., sudden onset, focal deficits, age >50, worsening pattern), reassurance is the best course. Tension headaches are often related to stress and improve with lifestyle modification and simple analgesia.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-6: Neurologic Symptoms):

“Candidates should recognize benign headache patterns and avoid unnecessary investigations.”

CT head (B) is not indicated. Stronger analgesics (D) may cause rebound headache. Specialist or psychiatric referrals (A, E) are premature.

This adolescent exhibited acute suicidal behavior (attempted to jump out of a window), which is a psychiatric emergency. Regardless of intoxication or cause, such behavior mandates a safety-first approach: involuntary psychiatric assessment and protection from self-harm.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Suicide and Crisis Intervention” Section:

“Involuntary psychiatric admission is indicated when a patient poses a danger to themselves or others. Suicidal ideation or attempts require immediate evaluation and monitoring.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-2: Suicide and Risk Management):

“Candidates must identify suicidal behavior and initiate appropriate action, including involuntary admission if necessary for safety.”

Observation (B) may miss the window for action. Parents (A) should be contacted but are not a substitute for admission. Chlordiazepoxide (C) is not first-line in this scenario.

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When couples face infertility-related decisions—particularly involving donor insemination—psychosocial counseling is essential. A mental health consultation helps explore emotional concerns, expectations, and readiness for non-biological parenting.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Infertility and ART”:

“Psychological counseling is recommended for couples considering donor gametes to address emotional, ethical, and identity issues before proceeding.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Reproductive Ethics > 83-1):

“Candidates must understand the ethical and psychosocial considerations of assisted reproductive techniques and provide appropriate referrals.”

Suggesting adoption or switching care dismisses valid concerns (B, C). Ovulation induction (D) does not address azoospermia.

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This presentation suggests hereditary hemochromatosis. Common features include hyperpigmentation ("bronze diabetes"), hepatomegaly, diabetes, fatigue, and elevated liver enzymes. Serum ferritin is a screening test for iron overload, and elevated levels support the diagnosis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology / Gastroenterology:

“Hemochromatosis presents with skin hyperpigmentation, hepatomegaly, diabetes, fatigue. Diagnosis begins with serum ferritin and transferrin saturation.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Metabolic and Endocrine > 37-1):

“Candidates must investigate iron overload syndromes using ferritin and transferrin saturation.”

Cortisol (B) is for adrenal insufficiency. A1AT (C) is a liver disease cause but not typical here. Amylase (E) is for pancreatitis. A1c (A) would confirm diabetes but not the underlying cause.

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In a euthyroid patient with an asymptomatic goiter or thyroid enlargement, the next step is a thyroid ultrasound to evaluate nodule size, composition, and features suggestive of malignancy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, Thyroid Nodules and Goiter:

“TSH should be obtained first. If normal and there is a palpable mass or enlargement, ultrasound is indicated to evaluate for nodules and guide further testing (e.g., FNA).”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:

“Candidates must use thyroid ultrasound as the initial imaging study in the evaluation of thyroid enlargement or palpable nodules.”

T3/T4 (A) are not needed with normal TSH. FNA (D) is done if nodules are identified. CT (C) is used for retrosternal goiters or compressive symptoms. Calcium (E) is irrelevant here.

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The patient has chronic non-cancer pain with comorbid PTSD and alcohol misuse — high-risk factors for opioid use disorder. Before any opioid prescribing, a comprehensive interdisciplinary approach including mental health and substance use support is essential.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pain Management and Addiction Medicine:

“In chronic pain patients with substance use or mental health comorbidities, refer to addiction/mental health services before considering opioid therapy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-4: Safe Prescribing):

“Candidates must assess for substance use risk factors and manage chronic pain using a multidisciplinary approach.”

Imaging (A) is unlikely to alter management. Opioids (B, C) should not be first-line in this context. Cannabis (E) is not first-line and lacks robust evidence in complex chronic pain.

The patient is obese (BMI 35), has type 2 diabetes, and shows a hepatocellular pattern of transaminitis (elevated ALT > AST). These are typical features of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), the inflammatory subtype of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, NAFLD and NASH:

“NASH should be suspected in patients with metabolic syndrome, obesity, and type 2 diabetes, especially with elevated transaminases and normal bilirubin or INR.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Hepatology:

“Candidates should recognize the clinical profile of NAFLD/NASH, particularly in asymptomatic patients with metabolic risk factors and isolated liver enzyme elevations.”

Acute hepatitis B (A) typically has higher ALT and symptoms. Pancreatic carcinoma (B) affects biliary enzymes or bilirubin. Metformin (D) does not elevate liver enzymes. HCC (E) would often present with systemic or localized symptoms and abnormal imaging.

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When elder neglect is suspected—especially in cases of self-neglect or unclear caregiver dynamics—the most important immediate step is to assess the patient’s decision-making capacity. If she lacks capacity, protective intervention is warranted.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Geriatrics, “Elder Abuse and Capacity Assessment”:

“Decision-making capacity must be assessed when a patient is refusing care despite evidence of harm or risk.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-1: Capacity and Consent):

“Candidates must assess capacity in elderly patients before attributing decisions to autonomy, particularly in complex care situations.”

Evaluating criminal records (B) or clutter (C) may be relevant later but do not take precedence over capacity assessment. Alcohol/substance use (D) and financial abuse (E) are differential concerns, not the critical first step.

Button batteries lodged in the esophagus require urgent endoscopic removal due to risk of tissue necrosis, perforation, and tracheoesophageal fistula within hours. Batteries beyond the esophagus may pass spontaneously if the child is asymptomatic.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Foreign Body Ingestion”:

“Button batteries in the esophagus are medical emergencies and must be removed immediately. Batteries in the stomach or intestines may be observed if the child is asymptomatic.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Gastrointestinal Emergencies):

“Candidates must identify when foreign body ingestion poses immediate risk and requires emergency intervention.”

Batteries in the stomach or intestines (A–C, E) usually pass without complication, especially if the child is asymptomatic and the battery is <2 cm.

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Respecting patient autonomy requires understanding their perspective before offering persuasion or incentives. The best next step is to explore the reason for non-compliance. This builds rapport and informs a shared decision-making process.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, Patient-Centered Communication:

“When a patient refuses recommended treatment, explore the reason behind the refusal before proceeding. Shared decision-making is crucial.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – ELOM > Communication and Consent:

“Candidates must demonstrate an ability to explore reasons for treatment refusal before counseling or modifying management.”

Options B and C may follow later. Options D and E can undermine appropriate pharmacologic care or violate ethics if not consented.

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In a patient presenting with physical symptoms (e.g., hip pain) and prominent psychosocial red flags — loss of interest, decreased libido, and withdrawal — the next step is to screen for depression. Somatization is common in mood disorders.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Depression:

“Patients with depression may present with somatic complaints. A thorough psychosocial assessment is essential in such cases, particularly when symptoms interfere with functioning.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Mood Disorders:

“Candidates must consider depression in patients with non-specific physical symptoms and reduced interest or motivation, particularly with social withdrawal.”

Imaging or physiotherapy may be needed later, but the most urgent and informative step is psychiatric screening.

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Low HDL is best managed with lifestyle changes such as increased aerobic physical activity, smoking cessation, and weight loss. Vigorous exercise has the strongest evidence for raising HDL levels.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology, Dyslipidemia:

“Increasing physical activity is among the most effective ways to raise HDL cholesterol. There is no consistent benefit to supplements such as garlic, nor does reducing salt or caffeine meaningfully raise HDL.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Population Health > Cardiovascular Risk Management:

“Candidates should recommend evidence-based lifestyle interventions such as exercise to improve lipid profiles, particularly to increase HDL.”

Alcohol cessation (C) is generally beneficial for overall health but may actually lower HDL slightly. Garlic (D) and caffeine (E) are not evidence-based interventions for dyslipidemia.

This patient is competent and capable of making his own health decisions. A DNR order and naming a substitute decision-maker apply only when a patient lacks capacity. The next step is to discuss the suspected diagnosis with the patient and explore his preferences.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, Consent and Capacity:

“Competent patients retain full decision-making authority. Substitute decision-makers are only engaged when the patient lacks capacity. DNR applies to resuscitation, not other medical decisions.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – ELOM > Capacity, Consent, Advance Directives:

“Candidates must recognize that capable patients should be directly involved in decisions. Substitute decision-makers are not invoked unless the patient is incapable.”

Option A implies a breach of confidentiality without permission. Option C is premature. Option D bypasses informed consent. Option E misinterprets the DNR’s scope.

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In any suspected occupational exposure, the first step is a detailed occupational history to assess the nature, intensity, and duration of the exposure. This determines whether surveillance or further testing is appropriate.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Respiratory Medicine, “Occupational Lung Diseases” Section:

“When a patient presents with concerns about exposure to occupational hazards such as asbestos, detailed history is essential. Ask about job tasks, duration of exposure, use of personal protective equipment, and prior workplace assessments.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-2: Environmental and Occupational Health):

“Candidates must be able to obtain a detailed environmental and occupational history and determine the risk of exposure before ordering investigations.”

Ordering a chest radiograph (B) or PFTs (E) without confirming meaningful exposure is premature. Referral to a specialist (D) and reassurance (A) come only after the exposure risk is assessed.

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The most important factor in determining the surveillance interval in Barrett esophagus is the presence and grade of dysplasia (e.g., none, low-grade, high-grade). High-grade dysplasia requires more frequent monitoring or intervention due to the risk of progression to esophageal adenocarcinoma.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, Barrett Esophagus:

“Surveillance intervals depend on histologic findings. No dysplasia: q3–5 years; low-grade: q6–12 months; high-grade: consider endoscopic resection or ablation.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Gastroenterology:

“Candidates must identify the risk of progression in Barrett esophagus and apply appropriate surveillance strategies based on dysplasia.”

Length of the segment (A) may influence risk but not surveillance frequency alone. Other options (B, C, E) are less determinative.

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This infant has evidence of urinary outflow obstruction on ultrasound. The most common cause in male infants is posterior urethral valves. Poor urinary stream is a hallmark symptom of bladder outlet obstruction in neonates.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Pediatric Urology” Section:

“Posterior urethral valves should be suspected in male infants with recurrent UTIs, hydronephrosis, and a weak urinary stream. Diagnosis is confirmed by voiding cystourethrogram.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-4: Urinary Tract Abnormalities):

“Candidates must identify congenital causes of urinary obstruction. Poor stream and hydronephrosis are classic features of posterior urethral valves.”

Crying with urination (E) is nonspecific. Hematuria (B) and malodorous urine (D) are common with infections. Circumcision (A) is unrelated.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Postmenopausal women with abdominal distension, bloating, a complex pelvic mass, and elevated CA-125 are highly suggestive of epithelial ovarian cancer, especially serous cystadenocarcinoma—the most common type.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology / Oncology:

“Serous epithelial ovarian carcinoma presents with vague abdominal symptoms, ascites, complex pelvic mass, and elevated CA-125.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-5: Ovarian Masses):

“Candidates must recognize signs and investigations of ovarian cancer, including elevated tumor markers and imaging findings.”

Ovarian hyperstimulation (A) occurs in fertility treatments. Colorectal cancer (C) may mimic these symptoms but typically causes rectal bleeding and has lower CA-125 levels. Uterine adenocarcinoma (D) usually causes bleeding. Hematosalpinx (E) presents with pelvic pain, not ascites.

This constellation of features—hypotonia, macroglossia, brachycephaly, single palmar crease, short broad hands with clinodactyly—is classic for Down syndrome (Trisomy 21).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Genetic Syndromes”:

“Trisomy 21 features include hypotonia, upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, flat nasal bridge, brachycephaly, macroglossia, single palmar crease, and clinodactyly.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-3: Congenital and Genetic Disorders):

“Candidates must recognize key dysmorphic features associated with common genetic syndromes including Trisomy 21.”

Prader-Willi and congenital hypothyroidism may have hypotonia but lack the full phenotypic pattern. Turner syndrome is seen in females with short stature and webbed neck. Fetal alcohol syndrome presents with smooth philtrum and microcephaly.

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Nonprescription opioid use during opioid agonist therapy is not uncommon. The response shouldbe supportive and not punitive. Increasing the frequency of follow-up enhances monitoring, supports adherence, and prevents relapse.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Substance Use Disorders”:

“Patients who relapse during opioid agonist treatment benefit from closer monitoring and increased support, including more frequent follow-up and psychosocial interventions.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Substance Use and Addiction):

“Candidates must manage relapses in opioid use by optimizing follow-up and support, not by discontinuing or reducing therapy prematurely.”

Tapering or discontinuing therapy (A, E) risks destabilizing treatment. Removing take-home doses (B) may be warranted later but not first. Cannabinoids (D) are not first-line adjuncts.

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A mood journal is a structured tool that allows the patient to record mood fluctuations, triggers, and timing. It is particularly helpful in identifying mood disorders such as premenstrual dysphoric disorder, bipolar disorder, or cyclothymia.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Mood Disorders:

“Mood diaries are useful in identifying temporal patterns, such as menstrual cycle–linked mood changes, and in distinguishing between affective disorders.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Diagnostic Evaluation:

“Candidates should use clinical tools such as symptom diaries to assist in establishing the pattern and nature of psychiatric symptoms.”

Personality testing (A) is not first-line. Urine drug screen (B) is only indicated with suspicion of substance use. Lorazepam (D) treats symptoms, not diagnosis. Interviewing the boyfriend (E) may help, but only as a supplement to direct observation and self-report.

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The presentation is consistent with rotator cuff tendinopathy or subacromial impingement. The painful arc between 30°–120° with preserved passive ROM suggests this. Ultrasound is the preferred initial imaging modality due to its availability, safety, and ability to visualize soft tissues dynamically.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Orthopedics, “Shoulder Pathologies” Section:

“In rotator cuff injuries or impingement syndromes, initial imaging with musculoskeletal ultrasound is appropriate. It can identify tendinopathy, partial tears, or subacromial bursitis.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 84-7: Musculoskeletal Pain):

“Candidates should initiate workup for rotator cuff or impingement syndromes with ultrasound as the first-line test, reserving more invasive or costly procedures for unresolved or complex cases.”

CT (A) is used for bony detail, not soft tissues. Arthroscopy (C) is invasive and therapeutic. Arthrography (D) is outdated and largely replaced by MRI or ultrasound.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

In a workplace medical note, physicians are responsible for commenting on the patient’s functional capacity and any required accommodations—not providing detailed medical diagnoses or test results unless consented to. The goal is to support a safe return to work with appropriate modifications.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Documentation and Work Notes”:

“Physicians should focus on functional abilities and restrictions, rather than detailed diagnoses or treatments, in employer communications.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Confidentiality and Occupational Fitness):

“Candidates must maintain patient confidentiality and document work-related limitations and accommodations in employer letters.”

Diagnosis (B), imaging (E), and treatment plans (A) are confidential medical details. C (physiotherapist’s evaluation) is not the physician’s documentation.

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The key public health message from a physician’s perspective is the evidence-based health risks and adverse effects associated with nonprescribed stimulant use (e.g., insomnia, anxiety, cardiovascular events, and dependency). This is central to a harm-reduction approach.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health & Psychiatry, Substance Use:

“Misuse of prescription stimulants is common among university students. Education campaigns should emphasize medical risks including cardiovascular complications, addiction potential, and psychiatric disturbances.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Preventive Medicine > Health Promotion:

“Candidates should identify core messages in public education campaigns, prioritizing evidence-based risks and harm reduction.”

Legal and ethical issues (B, C) are important but secondary to the health implications. Prevalence data (D) informs the campaign design, but is not the message itself. Study habits (A) are relevant for academic counseling, not medical messaging.

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The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is the first-line treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding, particularly in women with risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia and contraindications to systemic hormones (e.g., morbid obesity, diabetes, OSA).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Abnormal Uterine Bleeding” Section:

“The LNG-IUS is highly effective in reducing menstrual bleeding and improving hemoglobin levels. It is particularly recommended in women with obesity, chronic anovulation, or contraindications to estrogen.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):

“Candidates must consider the LNG-IUS as a preferred non-surgical treatment for chronic heavy menstrual bleeding when endometrial pathology has been excluded.”

Oral contraceptives (C) are not first-line in morbid obesity due to increased thromboembolic risk. Cyclic medroxyprogesterone (D) is less effective than LNG-IUS. Hysterectomy (A) is definitive but should follow failure of conservative therapy.

When a screening program is introduced, the incidence rate appears to rise because more cases (including subclinical ones) are identified earlier. This is known as “lead-time bias” or “ascertainment bias.”

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health, Screening and Epidemiology:

“Screening increases the apparent incidence of disease as more early or latent cases are detected.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Preventive Medicine > Screening:

“Candidates should understand how implementation of screening programs affects disease incidence and epidemiologic metrics.”

Case fatality rate (A) may decrease. PPV (B) depends on prevalence. Positive biopsy rate (C) may remain stable. Treatment rate (E) could increase, but incidence is the most directly and consistently affected.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Patients undergoing splenectomy are at lifelong risk for overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), particularly from encapsulated organisms. Vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Neisseria meningitidis is recommended at least 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Hematology / Surgery:

“Patients undergoing elective splenectomy should receive vaccines against pneumococcus, H. influenzae type b, and meningococcus at least 2 weeks before surgery.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Hematology > 38-2: Thrombocytopenia and Splenectomy):

“Candidates must ensure vaccination prior to splenectomy to prevent postsplenectomy sepsis.”

Calcium (B) may be considered in chronic steroid users but is not the priority. Azithromycin (C) is not indicated. D is unsafe without tapering. E is only for acute bleeding or extremely low platelets.

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This patient presents with fever, confusion, anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and renal impairment — fulfilling the classic pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is a hematologic emergency requiring plasma exchange.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Hematology, “Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia” Section:

“TTP is a medical emergency. Features include MAHA, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurologic symptoms, and fever. Schistocytes on blood film are diagnostic.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Disorders):

“Candidates must urgently recognize TTP and initiate emergent plasma exchange therapy.”

AML (B) does not present with schistocytes. HIV (C) can cause thrombocytopenia but not MAHA. ITP (D) causes isolated thrombocytopenia without anemia or schistocytes.

An empty uterus with ?-hCG >1500–2000 IU/L raises concern for a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL), including the possibility of ectopic pregnancy. However, the patient is hemodynamically stable and asymptomatic. In such cases, the best initial step is to repeat serum ?-hCG in 48 hours to assess the rise or fall of hCG levels.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, "First Trimester Bleeding":

“If ?-hCG >1500 IU/L and no intrauterine pregnancy is visualized on ultrasound, repeat ?-hCG in 48 hours to determine rise or decline. A suboptimal rise (less than 66%) suggests ectopic pregnancy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 79-1: Early Pregnancy Complications):

“In a patient with early pregnancy bleeding, the candidate must interpret quantitative ?-hCG trends to distinguish ectopic pregnancy, miscarriage, or viable intrauterine pregnancy.”

Immediate administration of methotrexate or invasive procedures such as D&C or laparoscopy are not appropriate until further diagnostic clarification is obtained.

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Given the lack of prenatal care, the mother's withdrawal, and prior involvement of child protection services, a newborn drug screen is warranted to assess for possible in utero exposure. This is part of the safety assessment.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Newborn Assessment:

“Infants born to mothers with no prenatal care or prior social concerns should undergo a full newborn screening, including toxicology if indicated.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Newborn Care and Social Issues:

“Candidates must identify social risk factors and initiate appropriate newborn evaluations, including toxicology screens when substance use is suspected.”

The mother was previously immune to hepatitis B, so (A) is not immediately required. Skin-to-skin care (D) is beneficial but secondary to screening in this context. Donor milk (B) is not indicated unless breastfeeding is contraindicated.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

In X-linked recessive disorders such as hemophilia A, carrier mothers (usually asymptomatic) have a 50% chance of passing the affected X chromosome to each son, who would then express the disease. Each daughter has a 50% chance of being a carrier but is generally not affected.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Genetics:

“X-linked recessive inheritance: Carrier mother has a 50% chance of having an affected son and a 50% chance of having a carrier daughter.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Genetics > 61-1: Inheritance Patterns):

“Candidates must apply principles of X-linked inheritance to assess risk in offspring.”

If the mother is a known carrier (as inferred from having an affected son), the chance of a second affected boy is 50%.

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This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), especially given the left lower quadrant pain and dyspareunia with a normal pelvic ultrasound. PID is often caused by sexually transmitted infections (STIs), such as Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which may not be evident on imaging.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology:

“Cervical swabs for N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis are essential in the workup of suspected PID or cervicitis, even when imaging is normal. Dyspareunia and chronic pelvic pain with normal imaging should prompt testing for STIs.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics & Gynecology > 82-6: Pelvic Pain):

“Candidates must consider and investigate for infectious causes of pelvic pain, including PID, which requires cervical swab testing as an essential first-line investigation.”

Laparoscopy (A) is invasive and reserved for uncertain or refractory cases. Hysterosalpingography (C) is used in infertility workups, not acute pain. Endometrial biopsy (D) and MRI (E) are not first-line.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient has hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH, ruling out primary hyperparathyroidism. The differential includes malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, vitamin D intoxication, and medications. Given the low PTH and normal vitamin D level, malignancy (e.g., multiple myeloma) is a leading concern. Serum protein electrophoresis and urine for Bence-Jones proteins (light chains) are appropriate next steps.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, “Hypercalcemia”:

“PTH-independent hypercalcemia should prompt investigation for malignancy. Multiple myeloma is a common cause in older adults—order SPEP and UPEP.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-1: Calcium Disorders):

“Candidates must investigate non-PTH mediated hypercalcemia, including consideration of multiple myeloma.”

A (urine calcium) helps in familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia, but this is unlikely given low PTH. B (calcitriol) would worsen hypercalcemia. C is inappropriate because PTH is suppressed. D (changing HCTZ) may help, but malignancy must be ruled out first.

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ACE inhibitors such as ramipril are first-line for CHF with reduced ejection fraction, but a common adverse effect is a dry cough due to bradykinin accumulation. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) offer the same hemodynamic and survival benefits without causing cough.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology, “Heart Failure” Section:

“In patients intolerant to ACE inhibitors due to cough, an ARB (e.g., losartan, valsartan) is the recommended substitute. ARBs also reduce mortality and hospitalizations in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-3: Congestive Heart Failure):

“Candidates should recognize ARBs as an alternative to ACE inhibitors in patients who develop adverse effects such as cough, while maintaining the mortality benefit.”

Other options (B–E) do not offer mortality benefits in CHF and may worsen the condition (e.g., CCBs, alpha-blockers, NSAIDs like COX-2 inhibitors).

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The authority to license and regulate physicians to practise medicine is held by the medical regulatory colleges in each province or territory (e.g., CPSO in Ontario, CPSBC in BC).

MCC Objectives (ELOM > 90-1: Medical Regulation in Canada):

“Licensure to practise medicine is granted by the provincial or territorial medical regulatory authority.”

Toronto Notes 2023 – Ethics and Canadian Health Care System:

“Medical regulatory colleges determine physician licensure and discipline in each jurisdiction.”

The CFPC/RCPSC (C) certify physicians, not license them. Ministries of Health (A) oversee health policy, not licensing. Associations (E) advocate for physicians but do not regulate. Hospital boards (B) grant privileges, not licenses.

This patient has clinical signs of an eating disorder — fatigue, low BMI, hypotension, and hypokalemia — likely secondary to nutritional deficiencies or purging. The first step is to sensitively explore the patient's perception of weight and body image. Effective management requires rapport and careful conversation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Eating Disorders:

“Approach patients with suspected eating disorders non-judgmentally. Begin with permission to discuss weight or body image. Screening tools like SCOFF can help guide further assessment.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Eating Disorders:

“Candidates must recognize signs of eating disorders and initiate a respectful and effective patient-centered discussion.”

Referring to the ED (B) is not urgent without hemodynamic instability. Advising caloric intake (C) bypasses assessment. GI referral (D) is not appropriate at this stage.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

In postpartum hemorrhage with a firm uterine fundus and intact placenta, a common cause is trauma such as a vaginal or cervical tear. Uterine atony (A) typically presents with a boggy uterus. The absence of systemic instability or coagulopathy makes options D and E less likely.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, Postpartum Hemorrhage:

“Continued bleeding despite a firm fundus and intact placenta should raise suspicion for genital tract trauma, especially cervical or vaginal lacerations.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Obstetrics > Postpartum Complications:

“Candidates must differentiate causes of postpartum hemorrhage and identify when bleeding is due to trauma vs uterine atony.”

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The image shows an asymmetrical light reflex (corneal light reflex not centered in both eyes), which is diagnostic of strabismus. This misalignment of the eyes must be treated early to prevent amblyopia (lazy eye).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Ophthalmology:

“Strabismus presents with misaligned visual axes. The Hirschberg light reflex is off-center in the affected eye. Prompt referral is necessary to prevent amblyopia.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Vision and Developmental Disorders:

“Candidates must recognize strabismus on visual screening and refer early for correction to prevent permanent vision impairment.”

Pseudostrabismus (B) can be ruled out here because the light reflex is not symmetric. Ptosis (A) involves drooping of the eyelid, which is not evident. Cataracts (D) would typically present with a leukocoria (white reflex), not misalignment.

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