Practice Free FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

All are examples of antihelmintic drugs, EXCEPT:

All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:

The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the:

I jejunum

II ileum

III duodenum

Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA. is:

I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

II found primarily in interneurons

III synthesized from glycine

Biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life process:

Which of the following vitamin is not water-soluble?

In the typical cell, mitochondria may contain:

I- Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle

II- Enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase

III- Enzymes of fatty acid cycle

Carbon monoxide binds to:

I hemoglobin

II myoglobin

III cytochrome oxidase

Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:

Which vitamin can be classified as hormone?

Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to:

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA?

Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the drug:

Which pyrimidine base is not present in DNA?

Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include:

Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include:

Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to:

I- Mutation

II- Adaptation

III- Gene transfer

A patients with allergy to Sulphonamides (i.e.: SulphametoxazolE. can take all of the following medications, EXCEPT:

Characteristics of GOUT, a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism may include:

I- Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints

II- The joint inflammation is caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals

III- It is a type osteoporosis

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:

Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms, EXCEPT:

The number of milli-alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is:

True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following?

I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy.

II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process.

III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product.

Indication of leukotrienes modifiers in the treatment of asthma includes which of the following?

I- Acute treatment

II- Prophylaxis

III- Chronic treatment

Use of estrogen in osteoporosis:

I- Estrogen enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss

II- Estrogen is useful in treat osteoporosis associated to menopause

III- Estrogen is not effective at increasing bone mass that has already been lost.

Allopurinol, xanthine oxidase inhibitor, used in gout treatment may produce all the following side effects, EXCEPT:

Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland. Which stimulate the release of calcitonin?

Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by:

I-Corticosteroids

II-Menopausa

III-Grave’s disease

The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms?

In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates:

Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include:

I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule

II the presence of surfactants in the formulation

III the type of ointment base

Which is the correct start dose of methothrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

Asthma is a condition of respiratory tract that may be aggravated by:

If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that:

Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include:

I- Nasal route has a higher surface area

II- Nasal route has more blood vessels

III- Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption

The level of which drug should be adjusted during treatment with allopurinol

I- Mercapturic acid

II- Theophillin

III- Anticoagulants

Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers'

Diarrhea, which might have been prescribed for SM include:

I doxycycline

II cotrimoxazole

III amoxicillin

In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drug's efficacy, associated workload, and acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available.

Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows:

DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration (days)A$2.50QID14B$2.25once daily14C$5.00BID7D$2.25BID7E$2 .25QID7The most appropriate choice for the hospital is:

Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by:

The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by:

I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant

II the free drug concentration

III the total receptor concentration

Examples of drug(s) that may precipitate asthma include all of the following, EXCEPT:

The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive with each dose is:

Treatment of smoke withdrawal symptoms may include which of the following?

I- Nicorette

II- Nicoderm

III- Zyban

Autoimmune disorders include which of the following?

I Graves' disease

II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

III Osteoarthritis

In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is included as:

Importance of Vitamin D in osteoporosis:

I- Increase the absorption of calcium from the small intestine

II- The best vitamin D analog to treat osteoporosis is calcitriol

III- Antacids containing aluminum and magnesium may interfere with proper activity of vitamin D.

All of the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma, EXCEPT:

Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity:

Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it:

I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.

II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction.

III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.

Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

Which of the following statements refers to bretylium?

Contraindication of indacrinone is:

Effect of bisacodyl is:

Mechanism of resistance of Invirase is:

What would be the preferred route of metabolism of succinyl choline?

How much of a 10 mg dose of morphine reaches the systemic circulation given F = .24?

Class of demeclocycline is:

Which of the following are similarities between Cytochrome P450 and MAO?

Indication of salmeterol is:

Route of excretion of cinoxacin is:

Correct statements regarding Pellagra include:

I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin

II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin

III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia

Class of nelfinavir is:

Correct statements regarding Penicillin V may include which of the following?

I-?-lactamase sensitive antibiotic – acid stable

II- Has a short half-life because is rapidly excreted by glomerular filtration

III- Probenecid increase penicillin’s activity

Bioavailability is related to which of the following parameters, according to the equation F = 1 - E

Site of metabolism of zolpidem is:

Class of timolol is:

Indication of primaquine is:

Half-life of adenosine is:

The bacteriostatic effect of sulfametoxazole may be increased by:

Correct statement regarding the mechanism of action of Vancomycin may include:

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?

Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include:

I- Bactericidal antimicrobial

II- Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium

III- Broad-spectrum agent

Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include:

The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin?

Which of the following statements refers to fansidar?

Which of the following conditions are quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used?

All of the following are narrow spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors, EXCEPT:

Indication of thiabendazole is:

Interactions with other drugs of Demerol is:

Antiviral drugs act in many different ways, they can be classified in:

Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of:

Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals in order to:

I- Improve the bioavailability

II- Maximize the dissolution rate

III- Avoid interaction with calcium ions

The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

Purine may be the end product of:

Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:

Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies?

Which of the followings are types of RNA?

I- RNAt - RNA transferase

II- RNAm – RNA mensager

III-RNAr – RNA ribossome

The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:

Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of:

Which of the following is an important enzymatic reaction involved in muscular contraction?

Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble?

I- Vitamin E

II- Vitamin K

III- Vitamin B

Degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involves:

If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8.4?

GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by:

What is correct regarding the formation of proteins?

Diazepam Injection U.S.P

Diazepam 5 mg/ml

Ethanol 10%

Propylene glycol 40%

Benzyl alcohol 1.5%

Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s):

I ethanol

II propylene glycol

III benzyl alcohol

Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of:

Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:

Which of the following statements refers to flunisolide?

Mechanism of action of ganciclovir is:

Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include:

I- Broad-spectrum penicillins

II- Cephalosporins

III- Clindamycin

Class of pectin is:

Mechanism of action of carbenicillin is:

Which of the following statements refers to pyrazinamide?

Class of urokinase is:

Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:

dication of ciprofloxacin is:

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

Given F = .24, what is the overall hepatic clearance of morphine if the above patient has portal hypertension such that their hepatic blood flow is reduced by ½? Assume the clearance value given in the previous question is entirely hepatic clearance.

Side effect of furosemide is:

Indication of aspirin is:

Which of the following enzymes could directly act on codeine?

Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

Indication of ticarcillin is:

Class of famciclovir is:

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

Indication of doxycycline is:

A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.

Which of the following enzymes could metabolize ethanol?