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  • Exam Name: Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination
  • Last Update: May 5, 2024
  • Questions and Answers: 426
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FPGEE Practice Exam Questions with Answers Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Certification

Question # 6

Indication of doxycycline is:

A.

Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)

B.

Asthma

C.

Meniere's disease

D.

Water intoxication

E.

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

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Question # 7

Mechanism of action of flunisolide is:

A.

Inhibits DNA gyrase

B.

Inhibits phosphodiesterase

C.

Inhibits phospholipase A2

D.

beta-2 agonist

E.

Competitively inhibits H2 receptors

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Question # 8

Route of administration of methadone is:

A.

Subcutaneous

B.

Inhalation

C.

Intrathecal

D.

Oral

E.

Transdermal

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Question # 9

Interactions with other drugs of clonazepam is:

A.

Lactose: increases absorption

B.

meperidine

C.

Tricyclic antidepressants: potentiate sedation

D.

cis-platinum - augments nephrotoxicity

E.

Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism

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Question # 10

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A.

Valproic acid

B.

Quinidine

C.

Isoniazid

D.

Ethosuximide

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Question # 11

Route of excretion of cinoxacin is:

A.

Unknown

B.

Kidneys

C.

Intestines

D.

Liver

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Question # 12

Side effect of dipyridamole is:

A.

Diarrhea

B.

Headache

C.

Bleeding

D.

Hypercalcemia

E.

Pseudothrombocytopenia (clumping of platelets)

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Question # 13

Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.

A.

Proximal convoluted tubule

B.

Loop of Henle

C.

Collecting duct

D.

Distal convoluted tubule

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Question # 14

A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.

A.

Antidepressant

B.

Protease inhibitor

C.

Beta antagonist

D.

H2 antagonist

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Question # 15

A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

A.

Antidepressant

B.

Protease inhibitor

C.

Beta antagonist

D.

H2 antagonist

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Question # 16

Mechanism of action of amyl nitrite is:

A.

dopamine antagonist

B.

Unknown

C.

Holds water in stool

D.

Potassium channel agonist

E.

Stimulates guanylate cyclase

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Question # 17

The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

A.

Virus

B.

Gram-negative bacterias

C.

Gram-positive bacterias

D.

Both gram-positive and negative bacterias

E.

Plasmodium

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Question # 18

Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:

A.

pyrimidine ring

B.

purine ring

C.

pyrazine ring

D.

pteridine ring

E.

pyridine ring

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Question # 19

Which of the following is the end product of AEROBIC reactions?

A.

Pyruvic acid

B.

CO2

C.

CO2 + H2O

D.

Lactic acid

E.

Proteins

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Question # 20

Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of:

A.

glutathione conjugates.

B.

glucuronide conjugates.

C.

glycine conjugates.

D.

glutamate conjugates.

E.

sulfate conjugates.

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Question # 21

Which of the following is considered normal sodium serum in human body?

A.

35 to 47 mEq/L

B.

147 to 150 mEq/L

C.

135 to 147mEq/L

D.

75 to 135 mEq/L

E.

125 to 145 mEq/L

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Question # 22

Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to:

A.

30s ribosomal subunit only

B.

50s ribosomal subunit only

C.

70s ribosomal subunit only

D.

30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits

E.

30s and 70s ribosomal subunits

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Question # 23

Correct statements regarding mutation may include:

I- Cell division

II- Change in genotype

III- Change in DNA replication altering the gene

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 24

Which of the following is considered the normal potassium serum in human body?

A.

2.0 to 3.5mEq/L

B.

3.5 to 5.0mEq/L

C.

5.0 to 7.5mEq/L

D.

3.5 to 7.5mEq/L

E.

3.0 to 6.0mEq/L

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Question # 25

Diphtheria is caused by:

A.

Plasmodium.

B.

Vibrio.

C.

Shigella.

D.

Neisseria.

E.

Corynebacterium.

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Question # 26

The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in:

A.

RBCs

B.

Reticulum Endothelial

C.

Liver

D.

Kidney

E.

Pancreas

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Question # 27

False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:

A.

Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver

B.

Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney

C.

Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver

D.

Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney

E.

Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight

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Question # 28

Which is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body?

A.

Leukotriene

B.

Enkephalin

C.

Bradykinin

D.

Cytokine

E.

Angiotensin

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Question # 29

What is correct regarding the formation of proteins?

A.

Formed by condensation of peptic bond

B.

Geometric sequence of amino acids

C.

The formation occurs by complexation of amino acids

D.

Proteins are formed from carbohydrates

E.

None of the above is right

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Question # 30

The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in

I- RNAs

II- DNAs

III- Both DNAs and RNAs

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 31

Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism?

A.

Maltase

B.

Sucrose

C.

Glucose

D.

Cellulose

E.

Frutose

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Question # 32

Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies?

A.

Vitamin A

B.

Vitamin B

C.

Vitamin C

D.

Vitamin D

E.

Vitamin E

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Question # 33

Class of cocaine is:

A.

Retinoids

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Loop diuretics

E.

Antiarrhythmic agents

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Question # 34

Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following?

A.

Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular.

B.

Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol.

C.

Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent

D.

Side effects of antifungals include fever, chills, anorexia, headaches and muscle pain

E.

Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction.

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Question # 35

All of the following are examples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT:

A.

Ampicillin

B.

Cloxacillin

C.

Amoxicillin

D.

Bicampicilin

E.

All are correct

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Question # 36

Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy?

A.

Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin and metronidazole

B.

Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, omeprazole and metronidazole

C.

Clarithromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole

D.

Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only

E.

Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.

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Question # 37

Class of bethanecol is:

A.

NSAID

B.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

C.

Antiarrhythmic agents

D.

Inotropic agents

E.

Beta blockers

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Question # 38

Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill bacteria is normally called:

A.

Bacteriostatic antibiotic

B.

Bactericidal antibiotic

C.

Bactericidal antimicrobial

D.

Bacteriostatic antimicrobial

E.

Bacteriostatic bactericidal antimicrobial

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Question # 39

Otitis extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by:

A.

Ciprofloxacin eardrop

B.

Gentamicin eardrop

C.

Prednisone eardrop

D.

Levobunolol eardrop

E.

Saline solution

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Question # 40

Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of:

A.

PABA

B.

Folic acid

C.

Vitamin K

D.

Cyanide

E.

Nalidixic acid

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Question # 41

Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include:

I- Bactericidal antimicrobial

II- Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium

III- Broad-spectrum agent

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 42

Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis?

A.

Sulfametoxazole

B.

Erythromycin

C.

Cephalexin

D.

Tetracycline

E.

Penicillin

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Question # 43

Route of administration of erythromycin is:

A.

Inhalation

B.

IV

C.

Sublingual

D.

Intra-auricular

E.

Oral

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Question # 44

The only antibiotic available as chew able tablet includes:

A.

Penicillin

B.

Amoxicillin

C.

Ampicillin

D.

Erythromycin

E.

Clarithromycin

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Question # 45

Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient?

A.

Atovaquone only

B.

Chloroquine and primaquine

C.

Quinine and doxacycline

D.

Mefloquine

E.

C and D are correct

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Question # 46

Mechanism of action of Prozac is:

A.

Induces translation misreadings

B.

dopamine antagonist

C.

Damages mitochondrial DNA

D.

serotonin reuptake inhibitor

E.

monoamine reuptake inhibitor

Full Access
Question # 47

Side effect of triamcinolone is:

A.

Asthma

B.

Nausea

C.

Cataracts

D.

Anxiety

E.

Hyperglycemia

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Question # 48

Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?

A.

Deliquescence

B.

Efflorescence

C.

Hygroscopicity

D.

Polymorphism

E.

Condensation

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Question # 49

Allopurinol, xanthine oxidase inhibitor, used in gout treatment may produce all the following side effects, EXCEPT:

A.

Increase in protrombin time

B.

Hypersensitivity rashes

C.

GIT intolerance

D.

Peripheral neuritis

E.

Necrotizing vasculitis

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Question # 50

The MOST well known characteristic symptom of asthma include:

A.

Wheezing

B.

Mucosal edema

C.

Cough

D.

Chest tightness

E.

Tachycardia

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Question # 51

The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient. Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following?

A.

If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine may be used.

B.

If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated.

C.

If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the second headache.

D.

The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.

E.

If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours.

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Question # 52

Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA. include:

A.

induction of microsomal enzymes

B.

inhibition of microsomal enzymes

C.

inhibition of liposomal enzymes

D.

displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin

E.

enhanced platelet aggregation

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Question # 53

The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called:

A.

atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI)

B.

chemical ionization (CI)

C.

electron impact (EI) ionization

D.

electrospray ionization (ESI)

E.

fast atom bombardment (FAB. ionization

F.

Pharmacy Practice

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Question # 54

Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by:

I-Corticosteroids

II-Menopausa

III-Grave’s disease

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Full Access
Question # 55

Prednisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:

A.

skeletal muscle weakness

B.

hypoglycemia

C.

sodium retention

D.

peptic ulceration

E.

lowered resistance to infection

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Question # 56

True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following?

I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy.

II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process.

III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product.

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 57

The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms?

A.

Combining with acetylcholine

B.

Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase

C.

Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase

D.

Reacting at the cholinergic receptor

E.

Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending

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Question # 58

Which of the following statements is/are right regarding CALCITONIN?

I- It secretion is normally stimulated during feeding, particularly of high calcium meals

II- Prevents hypercalcemia by inhibiting the transport of Ca intro extra cellular fluid and by increasing the renal clearance of calcium

III- It is a vitamin D derivative

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 59

Which is not a drug used for smoke cessation?

A.

Nicotine polacrilex

B.

Transdermal nicotine patches

C.

Nicotine sublingual tablets

D.

Bupropion

E.

Buspirone

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Question # 60

Drug considered as the drug of choice in a specific asthma emergency treatment include:

A.

Salmeterol

B.

Adrenaline

C.

Albuterol

D.

Cortisone

E.

Zafirlukst

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Question # 61

Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A.

Warfarin

B.

Cotrimoxazole

C.

Amoxicillin

D.

Phenobarbital

E.

Lamotrigine

Full Access