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  • Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
  • Last Update: Oct 8, 2024
  • Questions and Answers: 352
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4A0-100 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Nokia Scalable IP Networks Certification

Question # 6

Which of the following Nokia 7750 SR components is NOT part of the data plane?

A.

The Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)

B.

The Input/ Output Module (IOM)

C.

The Switch Fabric (SF)

D.

The Control Processor Module (CPM)

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Question # 7

SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 8

What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?

A.

Link bandwidth.

B.

Round trip time.

C.

Hop count.

D.

Route preference.

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Question # 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of a static route?

A.

Responds in real time to network failures.

B.

Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

C.

Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

D.

Explicitly defines the next-hop based on operator input.

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Question # 10

Which application below would be likely to use UDP?

A.

Real-time audio application such as VoIP.

B.

Web browser.

C.

Email application.

D.

Telnet.

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Question # 11

What are the tasks of the Routing Table Manager (RTM)? (Choose two.)

A.

RTM selects the best route from among multiple routing protocols.

B.

RTM selects the best route using the metric as criteria

C.

RTM sends its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.

D.

RTM installs its best route in the routing table.

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Question # 12

Which of the following statements best characterize Distance Vector Routing? (Choose two.)

A.

Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

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Question # 13

The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have:

A.

An application and session layer.

B.

A network layer that provides a universal and consistent forwarding service.

C.

A transport layer with two protocols.

D.

An applications services layer with similar layering and service definitions.

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Question # 14

Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

A.

Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network.

B.

The size of the Layer 2 frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

C.

Provides error checking of the frame contents after transmission.

D.

All the above.

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Question # 15

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Question # 16

Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?

A.

TCP port 179.

B.

UDP port 179.

C.

TCP port 22.

D.

UDP port 22.

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Question # 17

What is the purpose of TCP flow control?

A.

It restricts the sender from sending too much data when there is congestion in the network.

B.

It allows the receiver to control the rate at which the sender transmits data.

C.

It forces the sender to send only one segment at a time.

D.

It allows the receiver to drop segments without the sender having to retransmit.

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Question # 18

Which of the following applications would be likely to use UDP?

A.

Real-time audio application, such as VoIP

B.

Web browser

C.

Email application

D.

Telnet

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Question # 19

Which of the following best describes a repeater?

A.

A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. It does not generate or amplify any signals.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.

C.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

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Question # 20

Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?

A.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.

B.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.

C.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

D.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

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Question # 21

In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. later it receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8. What does R7 do with the LSA received from R8?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8.

B.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8.

D.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Question # 22

Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), Router 1 installs the network D in its routing table, based on a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.1

B.

172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.2

C.

172.16.9.0.24 next-hop 10.10.10.3

D.

Any of the above

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Question # 23

Which field in the Routing Information Base (RIB) determines the direction frames will egress the node?

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Dest prefix

D.

Next-hop

E.

Cost

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Question # 24

Which of the parameters in Hello messages exchanged between two OSPF neighbors must be the same to keep the adjacency alive in OSPF? (Choose four.)

A.

Interface MTU.

B.

Area ID.

C.

Authentication password.

D.

Hello interval.

E.

Dead interval.

F.

Router priority.

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Question # 25

Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Nokia 7750 SR? (Choose two.)

A.

VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.

VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.

MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol

E.

VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

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Question # 26

Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1

4A0-100 question answer

A.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0

C.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Question # 27

What happens in a TCP session if a segment is not acknowledged within a certain time period?

A.

The missing segment is retransmitted.

B.

The TCP session is terminated.

C.

The sender sends the next segment.

D.

An ICMP destination unreachable message is sent.

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Question # 28

Which of the following SAP types can be associated to a VPWS? (Choose three.)

A.

Ethernet

B.

ATM

C.

Token Ring

D.

Frame Relay

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Question # 29

What are the tasks of a Routing Table Manager (RTM)? (Choose two.)

A.

To select the best route from among multiple routing protocols.

B.

To select the best route using the metric as criteria.

C.

To send its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.

D.

To install its best route in the routing table.

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Question # 30

From the CE perspective, how does a VPLS operate?

A.

A VPLS operates as if 2 sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single router.

D.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point routed connections.

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Question # 31

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

A.

Broadcast storms caused by redundancy in Layer 2 networks.

B.

Missing protocol field in the Ethernet header.

C.

Missing sequence number in the Ethernet header.

D.

Unreliable data transfer in Layer 2 networks.

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Question # 32

What is the next-hop for network 172.16.2.0/24 installed in router 1's routing table?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

10.10.10.0

B.

10.10.10.1

C.

10.10.10.2

D.

10.10.10.3

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Question # 33

Which of the routers is the iLER for LSP B?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

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Question # 34

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact flash?

A.

Console

B.

Session

C.

Memory

D.

File

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Question # 35

Which configuration edit mode does NOT give you access to the global candidate configuration?

A.

Private

B.

Global

C.

Read-only

D.

Exclusive

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Question # 36

A network with address 208.40.224.0/24 is divided into /28 subnets. What is the network address of the third subnet?

A.

208.40.224.16/28

B.

208.40.224.32/28

C.

208.40.224.48/28

D.

208.40.224.64/28

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Question # 37

Which of the following about transactional configuration is FALSE?

A.

Configuration changes are stored in a candidate configuration datastore.

B.

A router uses the running configuration datastore for its operation.

C.

Configuration changes are activated by committing the candidate configuration.

D.

A running configuration datastore consists of multiple candidate configuration datastores.

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Question # 38

Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a prefix length of /32?

A.

The subnet has only one address reserved for a loopback interface or the system interface.

B.

The subnet has a broadcast address.

C.

The subnet is configured for a point-to point link.

D.

The subnet is reserved for a multicast address groups.

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Question # 39

Which of the following statements about IP filters on a Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

A.

IP filters can be applied on inbound traffic, outbound traffic, or both.

B.

IP filters can be created to filter based on IP and MAC addressing.

C.

By default, no IP filter is applied to an interface.

D.

The default action of an IP filter is to forward packets.

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Question # 40

What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?

A.

MAC address of the default gateway.

B.

IP addresses of other DHCP clients.

C.

IP addresses offered to the client.

D.

IP addresses of all DHCP servers.

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Question # 41

Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Nokia 7750 SR?

A.

An IP filter is used to discard packets with checksum errors.

B.

An IP filter can allow IP packets into a network or deny IP packets from entering a network.

C.

Multiple ingress and egress filter policies can be applied to a network interface.

D.

Once an IP filter is applied, it cannot be modified.

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Question # 42

What type of MAC address is 01:00:5e:01:01:01?

A.

Unicast

B.

Multicast

C.

Broadcast

D.

Anycast

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Question # 43

Which of the following egress interfaces is used to forward a packet with destination IP address 140.10.0.110?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

System interface

B.

Interface “toC1”

C.

Interface “toP1”

D.

Interface “toP2”

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Question # 44

Which of the following statements best describe the purpose of UDP? (Choose two.)

A.

Provides a connectionless delivery service.

B.

Provides a connection oriented delivery service

C.

Provides an unreliable transmission service,

D.

Provides a reliable transmission service.

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Question # 45

When forwarding a packet, which field in the following table determines the egress interface?

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Next-hop

D.

Cost

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Question # 46

Which of the following statements about ARP request and ARP response messages is TRUE?

A.

Both ARP request and response messages are unicast messages.

B.

Both ARP request and response messages are broadcast messages.

C.

An ARP request is a broadcast message, while an ARP response is a unicast message.

D.

An ARP request is a unicast message, while an ARP response is a broadcast message.

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Question # 47

What is the next-hop for network 172.16.1.0/24 installed in router 2’s routing table?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

10.10.10.0

B.

10.10.10.1

C.

10.10.10.2

D.

10.10.10.3

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Question # 48

What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers?

A.

An Internet content provider

B.

An Internet service provider

C.

An enterprise

D.

A regional Internet registry

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Question # 49

What types of addresses are part of encapsulation at the transport layer?

A.

Source and destination MAC addresses

B.

Source and destination IP addresses

C.

Source and destination port numbers

D.

Source and destination email addresses

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Question # 50

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

A.

Broadcast storms caused by redundancy in Layer 2 networks.

B.

Missing protocol field in the Ethernet header.

C.

Missing sequence number in the Ethernet header.

D.

Unreliable data transfer in Layer 2 networks.

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Question # 51

Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet reaches the customer?

A.

The ingress LER

B.

The CE device

C.

The P router

D.

The egress LER

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Question # 52

Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"?

A.

PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a broadcast.

B.

PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a multicast.

C.

PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field is fixed.

D.

PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field can change dynamically since every station is assigned a PPP address.

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Question # 53

Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)

A.

OSPF

B.

BGP

C.

X.500

D.

IS-IS

E.

Ethernet

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Question # 54

At what stage in the packet forwarding process, is the IP packet header examined?

A.

When the router first receives a frame from a LAN.

B.

After the forwarding table is checked.

C.

After the IP datagram is extracted from the L2 frame.

D.

Immediately before the IP packet is encapsulated for transmission.

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Question # 55

Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two.)?

A.

Ethernet.

B.

Token-Ring.

C.

SONET/SDH.

D.

E1 carrier.

E.

PPP

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Question # 56

What operation is performed by an LSR when it receives an MPLS labeled packet?

A.

The LSR refers to its routing table and forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER without altering the MPLS label.

B.

The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, swaps the label and forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER.

C.

The LSR refers to its MPLS label table forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER without altering the MPLS label.

D.

The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, pops the label and forwards the packet to the next IP router.

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Question # 57

In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 2002?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

IGP

B.

IBGP

C.

EBGP

D.

EGP

E.

BGP cannot be run between routers in the same AS.

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Question # 58

Host A is transmitting data to host B on a TCP connection. What is the purpose of the ACK sent by host B?

A.

The ACK tells the host A that host B wishes to establish a session.

B.

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the segment that was just received by host B.

C.

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the next segment that host B expects to see.

D.

The ACK is flow control from host B and tells host A to reduce its transmission rate.

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Question # 59

What capability of TCP/IP allows two hosts to have multiple TCP sessions to each other simultaneously?

A.

The combination of IP source and destination address and TCP source and destination port uniquely identifies each session.

B.

The combination of IP source and destination address and the IP protocol field uniquely identifies each session.

C.

The hosts can identify the sessions using each others MAC addresses.

D.

Two hosts can not have multiple TCP sessions simultaneously.

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Question # 60

Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select three)?

A.

Ethernet.

B.

ATM.

C.

Frame Relay.

D.

Token Ring.

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Question # 61

What are some of the characteristics of BGP? (Choose three.)

A.

BGP is an exterior gateway protocol.

B.

BGP routing is based on distance vector.

C.

BGP sends periodic updates to its neighbors.

D.

A router running BGP protocol needs an Autonomous system number

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Question # 62

If a customer requires a point-to-point layer 2 VPN service between two locations which VPN service would be typically suited for this customer?

A.

Virtual Private Wire Service .

B.

Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.

Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.

Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Full Access
Question # 63

Which statement best describes a SAP?

A.

The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.

B.

The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the service.

C.

The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the service.

D.

The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to the service.

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Question # 64

Which of the following is characteristic of a static route?

A.

Responds in real time to network failures.

B.

Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

C.

Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

D.

Explicitly defines the next hop based on operator input.

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Question # 65

If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?

A.

Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

Virtual Private LAN Service

C.

Virtual Private Routed Networks

D.

Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service

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Question # 66

Which of the following fields is not a field in the TCP header used for the establishment and termination of a TCP connection?

A.

TTL

B.

ACK

C.

FIN

D.

SYN

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Question # 67

Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.

config router default-route 10.2.3.2

E.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Question # 68

Which two protocols are used for the dynamic signaling of MPLS labels (Choose two.)?

A.

RSVP-TE

B.

CSPF

C.

PNNI

D.

LDP

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Question # 69

Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?

A.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.

B.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services

C.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.

D.

The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or HTML.

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Question # 70

Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?

A.

116.14.17.16

B.

116.14.17.31

C.

116.14.17.192

D.

116.14.17.189

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Question # 71

What must occur for a LAG to become operational?

A.

There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG.

B.

All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same characteristics.

C.

Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

D.

All of the above.

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Question # 72

Which of the following is not supported on the Nokia 7450 ESS?

A.

Support for IPv6.

B.

Support for POS.

C.

Upgrade path to the Nokia 7750 SR.

D.

Support for IS-IS

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Question # 73

Given the Mac Address 00-20-60-ce-2b:28, which part is the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)?

A.

2b:28

B.

00-20

C.

ce-2b:28

D.

00-20-60

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Question # 74

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol?

A.

POS

B.

IP

C.

ATM

D.

Frame Relay

E.

Ethernet

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Question # 75

Click the Exhibit Button below:

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram below:

How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

B.

3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

C.

3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains.

D.

1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains.

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Question # 76

Which Ethernet frame field does the receiver use to verify the integrity of the received bits?

A.

Destination address

B.

Frame check sequence

C.

Preamble

D.

Length field

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Question # 77

Which of the following is a feature of a VLAN?

A.

A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single broadcast domain.

B.

A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single collision domain.

C.

A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains.

D.

A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different collision domains.

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Question # 78

Which of the following statements is TRUE of Layer 3 addressing?

A.

Internet devices on the same network can have the same Layer 3 address in different broadcast domains.

B.

Every Host device must have a unique Layer 3 address in order to access the Internet.

C.

Internet devices need unique Layer 3 addresses to communicate directly with upper layers.

D.

A router must have only one address to allow it to be uniquely identified.

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Question # 79

When entering a command on the Nokia 7750 SR from the Command Line Interface (CLI), what would you use to list all the options for the command?

A.

?

B.

tab character

C.

space character

D.

info

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Question # 80

How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?

A.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical separation of traffic.

B.

ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.

C.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical separation of traffic.

D.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical separation of traffic.

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Question # 81

What is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each other?

A.

Devices on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.

B.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as they are connected to the same switch.

C.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as the switches they are attached to are connected to each other with an Ethernet connection.

D.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is an IP router to connect the VLANs.

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Question # 82

Which of the following is a File command in the File System context of the Command Line Interface (CLI)?

A.

time-display

B.

help

C.

type

D.

terminal

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Question # 83

Which of the following is a characteristic of the system address?

A.

A physical interface address.

B.

A logical address on the router not corresponding to any specific interface.

C.

May have any prefix value.

D.

A management IP address.

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Question # 84

Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

A.

172.16.224.255/18

B.

255.255.255.255/32

C.

224.1.2.1/8

D.

192.168.24.59/30

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Question # 85

What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers?

A.

A large corporation.

B.

An ISP.

C.

A home based business.

D.

A content provider.

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Question # 86

Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?

A.

The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980’s following the US military’s adoption of TCP/IP in 1983.

B.

The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.

C.

The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000 when the world wide web was conceived.

D.

Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into research and education based networks.

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Question # 87

Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:

A.

Allowing a contiguous block of network addresses to be represented by one network prefix.

B.

Increasing the number of addresses in the routing table.

C.

Summarizing addresses in the network into smaller routing tables.

D.

Not advertising directly connected routes.

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Question # 88

Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?

A.

ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).

B.

The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks, making an international network of networks.

C.

ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on the University of Hawaii campus.

D.

ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.

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Question # 89

Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

A.

Same host numbers.

B.

Same IP address.

C.

First two bits of the IP address are set to 01.

D.

Same network prefix.

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Question # 90

A network administrator is creating a subnet plan for the address 172.16.0.0/16. The network must support 459 hosts on each subnet while providing the maximum number of subnets. What subnet mask should be used?

A.

255.255.0.0

B.

255.255.128.0

C.

255.255.224.0

D.

255.255.254.0

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Question # 91

Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two.)

A.

Controls distribution of IP addresses.

B.

Simplifies protocol functionality.

C.

Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D.

Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

E.

Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

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Question # 92

Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?

A.

The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data.

B.

Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS processing.

C.

The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data appropriately.

D.

The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and provides some minimal buffering.

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Question # 93

What is NOT a function of the IOM?

A.

It forwards the data to the switch fabric.

B.

It discards excess data packets.

C.

It converts the incoming data to an internal format.

D.

It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.

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Question # 94

Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

A.

Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

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Question # 95

Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?

A.

IBM.

B.

US Military.

C.

Nokia.

D.

NASA.

E.

Bell Labs

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Question # 96

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

A.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

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Question # 97

Which of the following is NOT a valid log source in a Nokia 7750 SR?

A.

Main

B.

Security

C.

Syslog

D.

Debug

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Question # 98

Which of the following is IANA responsible for?

A.

The allocation of enterprise IP address space

B.

The allocation of residential IP address space

C.

The allocation of global IP address space

D.

The allocation of North American IP address space

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Question # 99

Which of the following statements are TRUE about the Nokia SR 7750? (Choose two.)

A.

It can boot without a compact flash in the CF3 slot.

B.

It cannot boot without a compact flash in the CF3 slot.

C.

It can operate without a compact flash in the CF3 slot once it has booted.

D.

It cannot operate without a compact flash in the CF3 slot once it has booted.

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Question # 100

What must be configured before a LAG becomes operational?

A.

The cost must be statically configured on all ports in the LAG.

B.

The speed and duplex setting on all ports in the LAG must be the same.

C.

Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

D.

The duplex setting on all the ports in the LAG must be forced to half.

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Question # 101

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button). Router 1 installs network D in its routing table following a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.1

B.

172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.2

C.

172.16.9.0.24 next-hop 10.10 10 3

D.

0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 172.16.9.1

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Question # 102

Router R5 receives four route updates for the same prefix 10.10.10.1/32. Which of the four routes will be installed in R5’s routing table?

4A0-100 question answer

A.

Route learned from router R1.

B.

Route learned from router R2.

C.

Router learned from router R3.

D.

Route learned from router R4.

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Question # 103

What is the function of Layer 2?

A.

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media.

B.

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them.

C.

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages.

D.

Layer 2 is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

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Question # 104

Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for providing the user’s interface to the network?

A.

the application services layer

B.

The transport layer

C.

The Internet protocol layer

D.

The network interface layer

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Question # 105

Which of the following Nokia 7750 SR components is NOT part of the data plane?

A.

The Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)

B.

The Input/ Output Module (IOM)

C.

The eXpandable Media Adapter (XMA)

D.

The Control Processor Module (CPM)

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