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  • Exam Name: Nokia Quality of Service
  • Last Update: May 22, 2024
  • Questions and Answers: 231
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4A0-107 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Nokia Quality of Service Certification

Question # 6

Based on queue usage, which of the following QoS-policies when combined will allow queue rates to be dynamically allocated? (Choose two)

A.

The slope-policy

B.

The SAP-ingress policy

C.

The network-queue policy

D.

The scheduler-policy

E.

The network-policy

F.

The WRED-policy

G.

The arbitrator-policy

Full Access
Question # 7

Forwarding subclasses are only relevant to, and are therefore applied within the context of, a _____________policy.

A.

network

B.

scheduling

C.

slope

D.

SAP-ingress

E.

network-queue

Full Access
Question # 8

Which of the following rate-limiting approaches are used on the Nokia 7750 SR? (Choose two)

A.

Shapeless policing at SAP-ingress only.

B.

Shapeless policing at SAP-ingress and egress.

C.

Biased round robin queuing at ingress only.

D.

Soft shaping at all network interfaces.

E.

Soft shaping at network ingress only.

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Question # 9

4A0-107 question answer

Based on the image shown above, and assuming that the default scheduler of the Nokia 7750 SR is on an IOM2 card, in which order will packets be scheduled?

A.

Queue 6 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 and queue 6 above-CIR packets in round-robin.

B.

Queue 6 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 and queue 6 above-CIR packets in biased round-robin.

C.

Queue 6 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 within-CIR packets, then queue 6 above-CIR packets, and finally queue 5 above-CIR packets.

D.

Queue 6 and queue 5 within-CIR packets in biased round-robin, then queue 5 and queue 6 above-CIR packets in round-robin.

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Question # 10

Which of the following self-generated traffic applications is considered “protocol” traffic, as opposed to “management” traffic?

A.

BGP

B.

Telnet

C.

ICMP

D.

SNMP

Full Access
Question # 11

Which of the following fields is in the MPLS header?

A.

802.1p bits

B.

Precedence

C.

DSCP

D.

EXP

Full Access
Question # 12

How many queues are available for use on service egress within a VPLS service?

A.

1 multipoint and 8 unicast.

B.

8 queues, regardless of traffic type.

C.

8 unicast and 24 multipoint.

D.

8 unicast and 8 multipoint.

E.

16 queues, distributed as desired.

Full Access
Question # 13

How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?

A.

8

B.

16

C.

6

D.

4

E.

3

Full Access
Question # 14

A queue is configured with the following attributes:

MBS = 10KB

CBS = 5KB

High-Priority-Only = 30%

Assume that there is no CBS overbooking and that the slope-policy is disabled. If the current queue depth is 8KB, what will happen to an in-profile packet arriving in the queue?

A.

It will be discarded because the high-priority-only threshold is exceeded.

B.

It will be queued but re-marked as "out-of-profile."

C.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and remain "in-profile."

D.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

E.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but may be dropped if the buffer utilization exceeds the start-average value of the low slope.

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Question # 15

Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1p? (Choose two)

A.

802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 2 header,

B.

802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 3 header.

C.

802.1p specifies 64 different priority levels.

D.

802.1p uses a field in the 802.1Q header.

E.

802.1p uses a field in the Layer 3 IP header

F.

802.1p defines a 3-bit Class of Service field.

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Question # 16

Click the exhibit button below. Given this scheduler-policy configuration, which of the following can be said about the scheduler called "high"? (Choose two)

4A0-107 question answer

A.

It is a parent scheduler.

B.

It is the top-level scheduler.

C.

It can allocate up to 50 Mbps of bandwidth to scheduler "low" since the bandwidth is not used by another Tier 3 scheduler.

D.

It is a child scheduler.

E.

It can only have queues as children.

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Question # 17

On the Nokia 7750 SR, what is a slope policy used for?

A.

Defining the slope of the TCP slow-start mechanism for self generated traffic.

B.

Defining the slope of the scheduling rate per forwarding class when using HQoS.

C.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for UDP traffic in the committed buffer pool.

D.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for TCP traffic in the shared buffer pool.

E.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for TCP traffic in the committed buffer pool.

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Question # 18

How does a shaper rate-limit a traffic stream?

A.

Packets that arrive in a burst are immediately dropped; packets that arrive with the proper in between space are immediately.

B.

Packets are buffered on arrival and are forwarded at an average rate conforming with PIR, typically, with a reduced burstiness.

C.

Packets with an average arrival rate higher than PIR are immediately dropped; conforming packets are forwarded at the same rate at which they arrive.

D.

Packets with an average arrival rate higher than PIR are buffered for future processing; conforming packets are immediately forwarded.

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Question # 19

It is necessary for Tier 1 schedulers to obtain bandwidth from a higher tier scheduler.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 20

According to the SAP-ingress QoS policy shown, which of the following statements about processing of the packets by policers 3 and 4 is TRUE?

4A0-107 question answer

A.

Policer 3 forwards packets as out-of-profile when its PIR bucket has 4000 tokens.

B.

Policer 3 starts discarding low-priority packets when its PIR bucket has at least 3000 tokens.

C.

Policer 4 forwards all its packets as out-of-profile.

D.

Policer 4 starts discarding low-priority packets when its PIR bucket has at least 3000 tokens.

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Question # 21

On the Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following QoS-related policies can be configured on a SAP? (Choose three)

A.

The slope-policy

B.

The SAP-ingress policy

C.

The SAP-egress policy

D.

The network-queue policy

E.

The scheduler-policy

Full Access
Question # 22

Which of the following QoS functions does the slope policy perform?

A.

Classification

B.

Marking

C.

Buffer admission control

D.

Scheduling

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Question # 23

Which of the following is NOT a reason for configuring a slope policy on a queue?

A.

To have control over the amount of the low priority packets that enter the queue.

B.

To control any traffic flowing through the shared buffer space of the queue.

C.

To limit the number of the TCP sessions that go into slow start during congestion.

D.

To force the TCP algorithm to increase its transmission window upon detecting a congestion.

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Question # 24

An IOM3 card of a Nokia7750 SR is enabled with the default scheduler and the policy shown in the image is applied to an access port on this card. In which order will packets be scheduled out of the queues?

4A0-107 question answer

A.

Queue 3 within-CIR packets, then queue 4 within-CIR packets, then queue 3 and queue 4 above-CIR packets in round-robin.

B.

Queue 4 within-CIR packets, then queue 3 within-CIR packets, then queue 3 and queue 4 above-CIR packets in round-robin.

C.

Queue 3 within-CIR packets, then queue 4 within-CIR packets, then queue 3 above-CIR packets, and finally queue 4 above-CIR packets.

D.

Queue 4 within-CIR packets, then queue 3 within-CIR packets, then queue 4 above-CIR packets, and finally queue 3 above-CIR packets.

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Question # 25

4A0-107 question answer

Given the scheduler-policy parameters shown, and assuming the offered rate of each queue is 10 Mbps, what are the operational PIR and CIR for queue 3?

A.

PIR = 4 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

B.

PIR = 1 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

D.

PIR = 5 Mbps, CIR = 1.25 Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25 Mbps, CIR = 1.25 Mbps

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Question # 26

Which of the following statements regarding buffer pool allocation are FALSE? (Choose two)

A.

Each network egress port receives its own buffer pool.

B.

Each SAP-egress port receives its own buffer pool.

C.

All SAP-ingress ports on the same MDA share a buffer pool.

D.

All the network ingress ports on the same MDA share a buffer pool.

E.

Each network ingress port on the same MDA receives its own buffer pool.

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Question # 27

Click the exhibit button below. Given the scheduler-policy (below), how much bandwidth can the best-effort traffic receive (PIR and CIR) when the ingress rate of each queue is 10Mbps?

4A0-107 question answer

A.

PIR = 4Mbps. CIR = 1Mbps

B.

PIR = 1Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10Mbps, CIR = 1Mbps

D.

PIR = 5Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

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Question # 28

Which of the following statements about network QoS policies is FALSE?

A.

Classification rules must specify both an FC and a profile for the packets.

B.

A network policy is applied at a physical port.

C.

Classification is performed with behavior-aggregate statements only.

D.

Match criteria can be chosen from dot1p, DSCP, and EXP fields in the packet.

Full Access
Question # 29

Which of the following criteria is an IP multi-field classification option?

A.

prec

B.

lsp-exp

C.

src-ip

D.

do1p

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Question # 30

Which of the following components are NOT configured in a hierarchical scheduler policy?

A.

Queue parameters with which the queue will compete for bandwidth.

B.

The level of hierarchy with which a group of schedulers is associated.

C.

Bandwidth controls that limit each child scheduler or child queues associated with the scheduler.

D.

The maximum bandwidth that the parent scheduler can offer its child queues or schedulers.

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Question # 31

To manage the shared buffer space at network ports, slope policies are applied on _________ for the ingress direction, and on ________ or _________ for the egress direction.

A.

Interfaces, ports, SAPs

B.

Ports, ports, MDAs

C.

MDAs, MDAs, ports

D.

Interfaces, interfaces. MDAs

E.

MDAs, ports, interfaces

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Question # 32

Which priority-mode queue parameter may influence both the profile marking, and scheduling priority of a queue?

A.

PIR

B.

CIR

C.

MBS

D.

burst-limit

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Question # 33

Click the exhibit button below. A network operator has configured the SAP-ingress policy below. Ping traffic is expected in queue 3. However, the network operator notices that all traffic is placed in queue 1. What is the most probable reason for this?

4A0-107 question answer

A.

The default forwarding class for all traffic, including ICMP, is BE, which is placed in queue 1.

B.

The SAP has been shut down.

C.

The IP-match criteria has been misconfigured for ICMP traffic.

D.

Queue 3 has no rate or CIR configured and thus cannot hold any packets.

E.

The SAP-ingress policy has not been applied to the SAP.

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Question # 34

Which of the following self-generated traffic applications is considered “management” traffic, as opposed to “protocol” traffic?

A.

IS-IS

B.

RSVP

C.

ICMP

D.

BGP

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Question # 35

When we select the adaptation rule “min”, how are the operational CIR/PIR rates of a queue calculated?

A.

The administrative PIR values are ignored and both operational rates are set to the minimum residual rate allowed by the hardware.

B.

The administrative PIR value is ignored and both operational rates are set to the administrative CIR value.

C.

They are chosen as the largest multiple of the hardware rate step that is less than or equal to the corresponding CIR/PIR administrative value.

D.

They are chosen as the smallest multiple of the hardware rate step that is greater than or equal to the corresponding CIR/PIR administrative value.

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Question # 36

Which of the following statements about CIR of a queue is TRUE?

A.

It may exceed PIR of the queue.

B.

It may be exceeded by the average servicing rate of the queue.

C.

It varies depending on the traffic characteristics.

D.

It is the rate at which packets are forwarded out of the queue.

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Question # 37

Which of the following statements regarding egress FC and profile over-ride are TRUE? (Choose two)

A.

Packets can be classified into 16 different FCs when using priority mode queuing.

B.

This feature is available on egress SAPs within any service.

C.

MPLS EXP bits can be changed based on multi-field classification.

D.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, only the MF override parameters will take effect.

E.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, the BA classification can override the forwarding class while the MF classification can override the profile.

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Question # 38

Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Nokia 7750 SR? (Choose three)

A.

Microflow reservations using RSVP

B.

DSCP to EXP translation

C.

Traffic classification

D.

Automatic profiling and policy configuration

E.

Buffer memory management

F.

Traffic scheduling

Full Access
Question # 39

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the PE device in a QoS enabled network? (Choose two)

A.

A device that provides no differentiation between customer traffic flows.

B.

A device that classifies and marks customer traffic.

C.

A device that uses MPLS EXP bits to differentiate between traffic flows.

D.

A device that creates macroflows towards the core from multiple customer sites.

E.

A device that passes macroflows while optionally changing QoS markings.

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Question # 40

Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration value for a queue’s CIR parameter within a SAP-ingress policy?

A.

0

B.

min

C.

max D. 50000

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Question # 41

Which of the following should be performed if a service provider does not want packets to make use of the shared buffer space when queued?

A.

Set the CBS to 0.

B.

Set the MBS equal to the CBS.

C.

Set the high-priority-only equal to the MBS.

D.

Set the MBS to 0.

E.

Set the high-priority-only to 0.

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Question # 42

Which of the following is an example of something that CAN be done with hierarchical policing (CFHP) but CANNOT be done with standalone policers?

A.

Limiting the maximum forwarding rate of each individual policer and, at the same time, marking, packets as in-profile or out-of-profile.

B.

Putting packets in a buffer as they are received, and marking packets as in-profile or out-of-profile as they are removed from the buffer.

C.

Rate-limiting the collective output of several policers, and to reallocate bandwidth that is not utilized by some policers to other policers that need to use it.

D.

Rate-limiting the collective output of several policers towards each egress FFPC, while maintaining control of the maximum overall forwarding rate.

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Question # 43

4A0-107 question answer

In the image shown above, the SAP-ingress policy is applied properly to a Nokia 7750 SR. A packet is received from an IP address of 192.168.2.2 with DSCP set to AF. Which forwarding class and priority level is assigned to this packet?

A.

NC, low

B.

NC, high

C.

BE, low

D.

BE, high

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Question # 44

Which of the following statements about behavior aggregate and multi-field classification in a Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?

A.

Multi-field classification can use both MAC criteria and IP criteria in the same SAP-ingress QoS policy.

B.

Behavior aggregate classification can use both lsp-exp and dscp in the same SAP-ingress QoS policy.

C.

Multi-field classification cannot use both IP criteria and IPv6 criteria in the same SAP-ingress QoS policy.

D.

Behavior aggregate classification cannot use both dot1p and lsp-exp in the same SAP-ingress QoS policy.

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Question # 45

Click the exhibit button below. Given the slope-policy (below), which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

4A0-107 question answer

A.

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before that of any in-profile traffic.

B.

The discard probability slope of an in-profile traffic is steeper than that of an out-of-profile traffic.

C.

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 55%, both in-profile and out-of-profile packets may be dropped.

D.

The maximum probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is higher than that of an in-profile packet.

E.

When the shared buffer utilization is at 61%, only in-profile packets are currently in the shared buffer pool.

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Question # 46

By default, how does a hybrid port on a Nokia 7750 SR share its allocated buffer space between access and network pools?

A.

All buffer space is initially allocated to access pools, and some of it is reallocated to network pools if network interfaces are configured on it.

B.

All buffer space is initially allocated to network pools, and some of it is reallocated to access pools if service SAPs are configured on it.

C.

Buffer space is allocated 50% for access pools and 50% for network pools.

D.

Buffer space is allocated 25% for access pools and 75% for network pools.

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Question # 47

Which of the following parameters is taken into account FIRST when a CFHP arbiter allocates bandwidth among its children policers?

A.

PIR

B.

CIR

C.

Level

D.

Weight

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Question # 48

What is an SLA? (Choose two)

A.

An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter across a provider's network.

B.

An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer traffic across the provider's network.

C.

An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their traffic over others as desired.

D.

An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement within the provider's network.

E.

An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.

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Question # 49

In which of the following scenarios is self-generated traffic QoS (sgt-QoS) useful?

A.

EXP markings on transit control traffic are not set correctly.

B.

The priority of all self-generated traffic needs to be lowered to allow all other traffic to take precedence.

C.

The priority of various control packets requires special treatment throughout the network.

D.

The BGP process is consuming too many CPU cycles and is impacting OSPF performance.

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Question # 50

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of deploying queue-groups on a network port?

A.

It enables fine-tuned SLA control that is not possible when using a common set of queues for all L2/L3 services.

B.

It enables CFHP and hierarchy scheduling (egress) for each network interface.

C.

It improves scalability by allowing the use of queues instead of the default set of policers used on network egress.

D.

It allows for enforcing bandwidth reservations of the LSPs that are used by the SDPs configured on the network interfaces.

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Question # 51

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of policing?

A.

It smooths out traffic bursts.

B.

It drops the packets when average peak rate is exceeded.

C.

It may additionally color the packets as they arrive.

D.

It buffers the packets at its output before sending them out.

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Question # 52

Which of the following statements about the default scheduler in the Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

A.

The default scheduler spends an equal amount of time servicing each queue that has traffic to be sent out.

B.

Queue-type can be configured as best-effort, expedite, or auto-expedite.

C.

A queue will be serviced as expedited if its type is configured as expedited, regardless of the forwarding classes mapped to it.

D.

A queue configured as auto-expedited will be an expedited queue as long as no Best Effort FC is mapped to it.

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Question # 53

Which of the following statements are TRUE when discussing self-generated traffic QoS? (Choose two)

A.

In order to mark Layer 2 traffic, sgt-qos will set various ToS bits.

B.

DSCP bits can be set per application, per routing instance.

C.

The DSCP marking stays nc1 for all applications. Only the internal FC is manipulated across different applications.

D.

In order to mark Layer 2 self-generated traffic, network interfaces must be set to dot1Q.

E.

The internal forwarding class for self-generated traffic is set once and applied to the base router and all VPRN instances.

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Question # 54

Which of the following statements regarding scheduling on the Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE? (Choose two)

A.

When using profile-mode queues, traffic that is marked as in-profile on ingress and scheduled in the above-CIR loop will still be considered as in-profile at egress.

B.

When an HQoS strategy using an egress port-scheduler has been deployed, Tier 1 receives its scheduling rates based on the amount of egress bandwidth available for each forwarding class.

C.

The greater the difference between PIR and CIR rates in a queue, the less likely a CIR will be provided.

D.

Packets scheduled out of high-priority queues in the default scheduler will have a lower chance of packet loss at the expense of incurring a higher probability of delay.

E.

When using priority-mode queues, traffic that is marked as in-profile on ingress and scheduled in the above-CIR loop will be considered as in-profile at egress.

Full Access
Question # 55

How many tiers of schedulers can be supported in hierarchical scheduling on the Nokia 7750 SR?

A.

8

B.

3

C.

5

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 56

How does an IOM3 improve the queue usage over an IOM2 in an Nokia 7750 SR? (Choose two)

A.

The IOM3 adds more memory to both forwarding complexes which increases the total number of queues available.

B.

The IOM3 only contains a single forwarding complex which reduces the number of queues used.

C.

The IOM3 allows multiple forwarding classes to be assigned to a single queue.

D.

The IOM3 allows queues to be dynamically allocated between ingress and egress.

E.

The IOM3 has a larger CPU capable of tracking active hardware queue utilization and adjusting memory allocation accordingly.

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Question # 57

Which of the following are the minimum requirements needed to classify traffic marked with DSCP AF11, AF12, and AF13 into the AF forwarding class and provide fair treatment to the drop precedence settings? (Choose three)

A.

Profile mode queues

B.

Priority mode queues

C.

1 queue

D.

3 queues

E.

3 forwarding classes

F.

1 forwarding class, with 2 subclasses

G.

1 forwarding class, with 3 subclasses

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Question # 58

Which of the following statements about configuring queues to use shared or reserved buffer space is FALSE?

A.

When queues use shared buffer space, buffers are more efficiently utilized.

B.

Queues that use reserved buffer space will have memory available for their reserved portion.

C.

When a queue is not using its reserved portion, other queues can use it.

D.

Using reserved buffer space prevents a queue from being starved of buffer resources by other queues.

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Question # 59

Which of the following about scheduling is TRUE?

A.

HQoS schedulers cannot be children of an egress port-scheduler.

B.

HQoS schedulers provide a dynamic method of allocating scheduling resources to queues.

C.

HQoS scheduler policies can be applied to an MDA to schedule network ingress traffic.

D.

A scheduler policy applied to multiple SAPs within the same service will result in a single hardware scheduler operating across all SAPs within the service.

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Question # 60

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

A.

The primary contributors to latency are distance, scheduling, and congestion.

B.

The weighted round robin scheduling algorithm will result in more delay for high priority traffic than the regular round robin algorithm.

C.

The round robin scheduling algorithm will result in less jitter for low priority traffic than a strict priority scheduler.

D.

Packet loss can be reduced by decreasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

E.

Latency can be reduced by increasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

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Question # 61

4A0-107 question answer

According to the SAP-ingress QoS policy shown, which of the following statements about packets processed by policer 6 is TRUE?

A.

All forwarded packets will be in-profile

B.

Packets forwarded above CIR will be marked out-of-profile and the rest will be in-profile

C.

Excess packets that arrive within a burst larger than CBS will be forwarded as out-of-profile

D.

All forwarded packets will be out-of-profile

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Question # 62

In which of the following scenarios is the egress port scheduler useful? (Choose two)

A.

A customer is complaining that his VoIP traffic is being dropped even though it is sending the correct DSCP markings. Packets are not being dropped on ingress.

B.

A customer is complaining that his VoIP traffic is being dropped even though it is sending the correct DSCP markings. Packets are being dropped on ingress.

C.

A commercial builder has requested numerous dot1Q epipes, VPRNs, and VPLS services to a business park and is only paying up to a maximum 200Mbps.

D.

An equipment manufacturer has requested a NULL epipe service that will transparently pass dot1Q between the new location and national headquarters.

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Question # 63

Click the exhibit button below. Each router is interconnected by a single GigE link, as shown in the diagram below.

4A0-107 question answer

Note: The arrows show the direction of traffic flow.

Traffic from Customer A and Customer B that is classified to the same forwarding class is queued together at the ingress of Router B.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 64

Which following statements about the four-step QoS process (classification, queuing, scheduling, and marking/remarking) executed for every packet entering a Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?

A.

The process happens only before the packet goes through the switching fabric.

B.

The process happens only before the packet goes onto the egress port.

C.

Marking/remarking the packets is for future classification.

D.

Marking/remarking the packets will occur right after classification of the packet.

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Question # 65

Click the exhibit button below.

4A0-107 question answer

At router PE1, customer packets are arriving tagged with a dotlp value of 6 and marked with a DSCP value of EF.

Based on the configuration shown below for a VPLS service, what will be the DSCP and EXP marking for the packet egressing the network port on this PE router? (Choose two)

A.

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.

The DSCP value will be set to af23.

C.

The DSCP value will remain as ef.

D.

The EXP value, in the MPLS headers, will be set to 4.

E.

The EXP value, in the MPLS headers, will be set to 3.

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Question # 66

Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)

A.

DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.

B.

DSCP is a 6-bit field.

C.

DSCP specifies eight different priorities.

D.

DSCP specifies four precedence levels.

E.

DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header

F.

DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.

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Question # 67

When allocating scheduling resources, which of the following statements BEST describes how the egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth?

A.

The egress port scheduler takes the ratio of requested bandwidth to total bandwidth request from all children. It allocates bandwidth fairly, using these percentages and not exceeding the egress interface speed.

B.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth based on a WRR distribution method that takes into account the CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max speed, either default or configured, on egress.

C.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth on a first come, first served distribution method that takes into account the total CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max PIR requested from a single level.

D.

The egress port scheduler will limit the bandwidth offered to the egress port based on the over-subscription factor, provisioned under the router interface, while using a WRR scheduler for the remaining bandwidth.

E.

The egress port scheduler will use the Russian Dolls Method to allocate bandwidth to each level of requested bandwidth. HPO-Only is automatically set to 100%, allowing only high priority traffic to be buffered during congestion.

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Question # 68

Which of the following statements describe the operation of WRED on the Nokia 7750 SR? (Choose three)

A.

WRED monitors the shared buffer space utilization over a period of time.

B.

WRED disables the TCP slow-start congestion control mechanism.

C.

WRED uses two configurable slopes for each buffer pool: a high slope and a low slope.

D.

WRED uses the shared buffer utilization, instead of the individual queue depth, to get a better picture of the average resource utilization of the shared buffer space.

E.

WRED polices the shared buffer pool and marks all packets above a certain rate as "discard eligible."

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Question # 69

Which of the following entities can scheduler policies be applied to? (Choose two)

A.

Network ingress port

B.

Epipe ingress SAP

C.

ES egress SAP

D.

Ingress MDA

E.

VPRN ingress interface

F.

Shared buffer space

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