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Practice Free PDM_2002001060 CPM Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the Nokia PDM_2002001060 Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our CPM exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free PDM_2002001060 Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

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Question # 6

At a given point in time, a project has a CPI = 0.7 and SV = €1,000. The project is:

A.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

B.

over budget and behind schedule.

C.

below budget and ahead of schedule.

D.

below budget and behind schedule.

Question # 7

The WBS comprises several levels of decomposition of the total project. The lowest level of definition is always the:

A.

build cycle.

B.

planning element.

C.

working interface.

D.

work package.

Question # 8

Through which tool and what trigger is supplier work accepted for project business?

A.

IPM and the internal acceptance work item.

B.

IPM and the customer acceptance work item.

C.

ERM and the internal acceptance work item.

D.

SAP and the customer acceptance work item.

Question # 9

A project plan is a:

A.

formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.

B.

document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

C.

narrative description of products or services to be supplied.

D.

document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.

Question # 10

What is the duration of short term planning (STP) period?

A.

1 month.

B.

6 months.

C.

3 months.

D.

12 months.

Question # 11

The estimated value of the work actually accomplished is:

A.

earned value (EV).

B.

planned value (PV).

C.

actual cost (AC).

D.

cost variance (CV).

Question # 12

In 4C internal resources are planned as:

A.

man working days (MWD).

B.

headcount.

C.

monetary value.

D.

not planned.

Question # 13

For which of the following reasons can the cost baseline be updated?

A.

Due to cost savings.

B.

Due to delays in project execution.

C.

Due to customer driven scope change.

D.

Due to subcontractor's price change.

Question # 14

What is the best demonstration that you are in control of your financial processes?

A.

You can always explain the cost deviations.

B.

You do not exceed the total CBL, even though some services business lines have exceeded their respective baselines.

C.

There are no large deviations between forecast and actual costs.

D.

You delegate completely to the project controller.

Question # 15

What is NOT included in a basic project cost report?

A.

Total project cost baseline.

B.

Total project estimate at completion.

C.

Total actual costs.

D.

Year to date costs of goods sold.

Question # 16

What is a liable party?

A.

The party responsible for approving a change.

B.

The party responsible for implementing a change.

C.

The party responsible for bearing the costs of a change.

D.

The party initiating a change request.

Question # 17

Which resource type is handled by the tempus process?

A.

Locals.

B.

Visitors from Integrated SAP P20 countries.

C.

Visitors from non-integrated countries.

D.

Contractors.

Question # 18

Change requests should not occur due to:

A.

an external event such as a change in government regulation.

B.

an error or omission in defining the scope of the product.

C.

a software failure that prevents timely site integration.

D.

change in GIC structure.

Question # 19

If Net Sales are €150 and Cost of Goods Sold are €100, what is the Gross Profit in %?

A.

This cannot be determined without knowing Gross Sales.

B.

100%.

C.

50%.

D.

33%.

Question # 20

When should risk analysis be performed?

A.

Just before any major meeting with the client.

B.

On a regular basis prior to and throughout the project.

C.

Only when justified by the awareness of new risks becoming a possibility.

D.

When preparing the project plan.

Question # 21

What of the following options is the most appropriate course of action when the project subcontracting cost to date exceeds the plan in the CBL?

A.

Start opening NCC SvOs for the cost overruns as you can now expect further additional cost.

B.

Analyze the root cause of the cost increase and execute an action plan to get cost back on track, updating EAC if needed.

C.

Compensate for the unplanned extra costs by releasing part of the risk contingency.

D.

Stop raising subcontracting purchase orders so as to avoid incurring further excess cost.

Question # 22

A Project is:

A.

An ongoing endeavor to create repetitive products, services, or results.

B.

A unique service undertaken to create a temporary product or results.

C.

A unique endeavor undertaken to create a temporary product, service, or result.

D.

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

Question # 23

The project is not completed until:

A.

the assessment of overall project performance against plan is completed.

B.

final customer acceptance is received, and any other requirements for project closure as stated in the contract are met.

C.

the customer indicates their satisfaction and final payment is received.

D.

the lessons learned are completed.

Question # 24

The compilation and storage of lessons learned for a completed project can be used to:

A.

adjust the final project financials to reflect the cost benefits of this knowledge.

B.

determine the cost baseline and rollout plan for all future projects in the CT.

C.

highlight problems and determine potential risks in future similar project.

D.

complete employee performance evaluations for those who worked on the project.

Question # 25

What is typically NOT processed in the project cost management tool as a project change?

A.

Additional functions/applications/major volumes (e.g. sites) compared to the original contract scope.

B.

Materialized risk.

C.

So-called "unknown unknowns".

D.

Planned additional work.

Question # 26

Company A is working on a project. The project‘s budget is €10,000. The planned value as of date X is €4,000. The project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent to date X. The Earned Value (EV) of the project is:

A.

€600.

B.

€3,000.

C.

€5,000.

D.

€6,000.

Question # 27

What approval process is required when the EAC deviates >2% from the CBL?

A.

The CT starts the LoA approval process and if the LoA approves the cost increase, the initial CBL is updated.

B.

The CT starts the LoA approval process and if the LoA approves the cost increase, the initial CBL is not updated, but the EAC will be updated to reflect the change.

C.

The COM requests approval from CBC and if the CBC approves the cost increase, the initial CBL is not updated, but the EAC will be updated to reflect the change.

D.

The COM requests approval from CBC and if the CBC approves the cost increase, the initial CBL is updated.

Question # 28

Which of the following examples will cause a decline in project cost adherence (PCA)?

A.

Additional scope of work ordered by customer.

B.

Additional service effort caused by site unavailability for which the customer is liable.

C.

Delay in equipment delivery.

D.

Penalties paid to the customer.

Question # 29

What is NOT a key element for the lower level WBS structure set up in SAP from a cost and progress manager perspective?

A.

F&C requirement.

B.

Ability to execute customer orders.

C.

To support IPM setup.

D.

Cost reporting capability for identified project scope.

Question # 30

During project setup, an identified risk event with a 100% probability of occurrence is:

A.

a risk event with a high impact.

B.

not a risk and ought to be part of the base costs.

C.

very irritating.

D.

an issue and triggers the mitigation plan.

Question # 31

Which of the following KPIs is NOT reported by the cost and progress manager?

A.

PCA.

B.

ABCTA.

C.

NCC coverage.

D.

FSDI.