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  • Exam Name: GRC Professional Certification Exam
  • Last Update: Sep 12, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 249
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GRCP Practice Exam Questions with Answers GRC Professional Certification Exam Certification

Question # 6

What type of incentives include appreciation, status, and professional development?

A.

Economic Incentives

B.

Contractual Incentives

C.

Personal Incentives

D.

Non-Economic Incentives

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Question # 7

What are the two dimensions that drive an organization's engagement with stakeholders?

A.

Compliance and Ethics

B.

Interest and Power

C.

Push and Pull

D.

Internal and External

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Question # 8

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

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Question # 9

Why is continual improvement considered a hallmark of a mature and high-performing capability and organization?

A.

Because it increases the organization's market share.

B.

Because it enables the capability and organization to evolve and enhance total performance.

C.

Because it ensures compliance with regulatory requirements.

D.

Because it reduces the likelihood of employee turnover.

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Question # 10

What is the significance of a vision statement in inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers?

A.

It specifies the organization's views on ethical issues facing it.

B.

It describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters, serving as a guidepost for long-term strategic planning and inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers.

C.

It details the organization's sales targets and revenue projections to motivate employees to work hard and meet those goals.

D.

It outlines the organization's succession planning and leadership development.

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Question # 11

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

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Question # 12

Who are key external stakeholders that may significantly influence an organization?

A.

Distributors, resellers, and franchisees.

B.

Competitors, employees, and board members.

C.

Marketing agencies, legal advisors, and auditors.

D.

Customers, shareholders, creditors and lenders, government, and non-governmental organizations.

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Question # 13

How does the IACM address unfavorable events related to obstacles?

A.

By focusing on opportunities

B.

By decreasing the ultimate likelihood and impact of harm

C.

By implementing a flat organizational structure

D.

By conducting regular employee satisfaction surveys

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Question # 14

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirementsare addressed

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Question # 15

What does the initialism GRC stand for?

A.

Governing risk and compliance

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance

C.

Governance, risk, and controls

D.

Government, regulation, and controls

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Question # 16

What type of incentives are established through compensation, reward, and recognition programs?

A.

Social Incentives

B.

Economic Incentives

C.

Management Incentives

D.

Individualized Incentives

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Question # 17

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

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Question # 18

In the context of assurance activities, what does the term "assurance objectivity" refer to?

A.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can adhere to industry standards and best practices in performing audits.

B.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can provide accurate and reliable information to stakeholders on which they can form an opinion about the subject matter themselves.

C.

The degree to which an Assurance Provider can be impartial, disinterested, independent, and free to conduct necessary activities to form an opinion about the subject matter.

D.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can minimize costs and maximize efficiency in performing audits.

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Question # 19

How does the GRC Capability Model define the term "enterprise"?

A.

The enterprise is the most superior unit that encompasses the entirety of the organization.

B.

The enterprise refers to the organization's sales and distribution channels.

C.

The enterprise refers to the organization's information technology infrastructure and systems.

D.

The enterprise refers to a starship that boldly goes where no man has gone before.

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Question # 20

What type of activities are typically included in post-assessments?

A.

Financial audits and budget reviews.

B.

Employee performance evaluations and appraisals.

C.

Market research and customer surveys.

D.

Lessons learned, root-cause analysis, after-action reviews, and other evaluative activities.

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Question # 21

What is the significance of assurance controls in the PERFORM component?

A.

To promote transparency and accountability in the organization's decision-making processes.

B.

To ensure that the organization's financial statements are accurate and reliable.

C.

To provide sufficient information to assurance providers when management and governance actions and controls are not enough.

D.

To establish a clear chain of command and reporting structure within the organization.

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Question # 22

Which is a potential consequence of information compression in layered communication?

A.

Uninformed decision-making by mid-level management

B.

No consequence of concern if the correct, undistorted information is always available in the information management systems

C.

Incorrect information content and information flow to superior units

D.

Discovery of the need to remove layers so that the communications are more direct and distortion is avoided

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Question # 23

What is the term used to describe the measure of the negative effect of uncertainty on objectives?

A.

Risk

B.

Harm

C.

Obstacle

D.

Threat

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Question # 24

What is the purpose of implementing policies within an organization?

A.

To set clear expectations of conduct for key internal stakeholders and the extended enterprise.

B.

To meet regulatory requirements and establish compliance.

C.

To reduce the need for defined procedures and guidelines within the organization.

D.

To have individual regulation-specific policies instead of a generic Code of Conduct.

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Question # 25

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

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Question # 26

How do GRC Professionals apply the concept of ‘maturity’ in the GRC Capability Model?

A.

GRC Professionals apply maturity only to the highest level of the GRC Capability Model.

B.

GRC Professionals apply maturity at all levels of the GRC Capability Model to assess preparedness to perform practices and support continuous improvement.

C.

GRC Professionals use maturity to evaluate the performance of individual employees.

D.

GRC Professionals use maturity to determine the budget allocation for GRC programs.

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Question # 27

Which statement is FALSE?

A.

The organization should have an education plan for each target population indicating what they should know about the GRC capability and their responsibilities for GRC activities.

B.

Regardless of role, everyone in the organization should receive the same curriculum and the same education activities to ensure consistent understanding.

C.

The organization should conduct a needs assessment to determine the training that will address high-risk situations and develop a training plan for each job or job family.

D.

The organization should identify legally mandated education, including who must be educated, the content required, the time required, and methods that may be used for each required course.

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Question # 28

In the context of Total Performance, how is responsiveness measured in the assessment of an education program?

A.

The number of new courses added to the education program each year.

B.

The number of positive reviews received for the education program.

C.

The percentage of employees who pass the final assessment.

D.

Time taken to educate a department, time to achieve 100% coverage, and time to detect and correct errors.

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Question # 29

Why is it important to avoid "perverse incentives" in an incentive program?

A.

They encourage adverse conduct

B.

They are not tax-deductible

C.

They decrease employee satisfaction

D.

They violate anti-harassment laws

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Question # 30

What is the term used to describe an event that may have a negative effect on objectives?

A.

Risk

B.

Hazard

C.

Obstacle (Threat)

D.

Challenge

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Question # 31

What are some examples of technology factors that may influence an organization's external context?

A.

Market segmentation, pricing strategies, and promotional activities

B.

Research and Design activity, innovations in materials, mechanical efficiency, and the rate of technological change

C.

How the organization uses technology for employee recruitment, onboarding processes, and performance appraisals

D.

How the organization uses financial forecasting, budgeting, and cost control

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Question # 32

What considerations should be taken into account when protecting information associated with notifications?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to notification and follow-up information by the notifier so that they can see the organization is responding appropriately

B.

Knowing that any legal or regulatory requirements related to data privacy do not apply to hotline reports

C.

Ensuring pathways comply with mandatory requirements in the locale where the notification originates and the organization operates

D.

Knowing that confidentiality and anonymity rights are the same thing

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Question # 33

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

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Question # 34

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

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Question # 35

How can an organization know the concerns and needs of its stakeholder groups?

A.

By identifying and understanding the concerns and needs of both the organizations and specific people within them

B.

By requiring stakeholders to sign non-disclosure agreements then having conversations

C.

By conducting background checks on all stakeholders

D.

By hosting annual stakeholder appreciation events where executives can ask them what they want

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Question # 36

Why is monitoring important in the context of the REVIEW component?

A.

Because it generates financial reports for stakeholders.

B.

Because it contributes to employee performance evaluations.

C.

Because it is a required task for external regulatory compliance.

D.

Because it helps management and the governing authority understand progress toward objectives and whether opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are addressed.

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Question # 37

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

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Question # 38

What is the process of validating direction within an organization?

A.

Conducting a SWOT analysis to identify the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

B.

Communicating, negotiating, and finalizing direction with other organizational levels/units.

C.

Conducting a comprehensive audit of the organization’s financial records to ensure they are showing movement in the right direction.

D.

Implementing a performance management system to evaluate employee performance and alignment to established direction.

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Question # 39

Which category of actions and controls in the IACM includes human factors such as structure, accountability, education, and enablement?

A.

Technology

B.

Policy

C.

Information

D.

People

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Question # 40

What is the role of sensemaking in understanding the internal context?

A.

Sensemaking involves analyzing the organization’s supply chain to identify potential bottlenecks and make any necessary changes in how it is managed.

B.

Sensemaking involves evaluating the organization’s sense of all aspects of its culture so that improvements can be made.

C.

Sensemaking involves conducting financial audits to make sense of the financial condition of the organization and ensure compliance with accounting standards.

D.

Sensemaking involves continually watching for and making sense of changes in the internal context that have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization.

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Question # 41

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to result in harm?

A.

Hazard

B.

Prospect

C.

Opportunity

D.

Obstacle

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Question # 42

What is the difference between "Change the Organization" (CTO) objectives and "Run the Organization" (RTO) objectives?

A.

CTO objectives are based on subjective measures, while RTO objectives are based on objective measures

B.

CTO objectives are only relevant for change management planning, while RTO objectives are relevant for operational managers

C.

CTO objectives focus on producing new value and improving performance, while RTO objectives focus on preserving existing value and maintaining service levels

D.

CTO objectives are determined by the board of directors, while RTO objectives are determined by front-line managers

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Question # 43

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the likelihood and impact of an event?

A.

Consequence

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

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Question # 44

What is the difference between prescriptive norms and proscriptive norms?

A.

Prescriptive norms are optional guidelines, while proscriptive norms are mandatory rules.

B.

Prescriptive norms are related to financial performance, while proscriptive norms are related to ethical behavior.

C.

Prescriptive norms are established by government regulations, while proscriptive norms are established by industry standards.

D.

Prescriptive norms encourage behavior the group deems positive, while proscriptive norms discourage behavior the group deems negative.

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Question # 45

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

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Question # 46

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

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Question # 47

What is the significance of ensuring the visibility of objectives across different levels of the organization?

A.

It showcases the achievements of the organization's leadership team

B.

It creates a competitive environment among different units within the organization

C.

It identifies underperforming employees and takes corrective action

D.

It allows for the coordination of activities

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Question # 48

In the IACM, what is the role of Promote/Enable Actions & Controls?

A.

To increase the likelihood of favorable events

B.

To establish clear lines of communication within the organization

C.

To set performance metrics for all actions and controls

D.

To establish and enable controls that mitigate potential security threats

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Question # 49

What is the role of the Second Line in the Lines of Accountability Model?

A.

The Second Line is responsible for conducting external audits and providing assurance to stakeholders

B.

The Second Line is responsible for making strategic decisions and setting the overall direction of the organization, deciding on objectives and issuing decision-making guidance

C.

The Second Line establishes performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line, and provides oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques

D.

The Second Line focuses on the day-to-day operational activities of the organization to address risk and compliance requirements

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Question # 50

Which of the following best describes the overall process of analyzing risk culture in an organization?

A.

Determining the level of risk-taking that each employee is comfortable with.

B.

Assessing the organization's ability to attract and retain top talent that is willing to take risks to achieve objectives.

C.

Evaluating the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance levels for each type of risk.

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce perceives risk, its impact on work, and its integration with decision-making.

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Question # 51

Can the Second Line provide assurance over First Line activities, and under what conditions?

A.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it is focused on strategic planning and long-term goals, not on assurance activities

B.

Yes, the Second Line can provide assurance over First Line activities regardless of the design or performance of the activities because it has a higher level of authority and the necessary skills

C.

Yes, the Second Line may provide assurance over First Line activities so long as the activities under examination were not designed or performed by the Second Line, and the Second Line personnel have the required degree of Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence relative to the subject matter and desired Level of Assurance

D.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it lacks the necessary authority and jurisdiction

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Question # 52

In the IACM, what is the role of Assurance Actions & Controls?

A.

To assist assurance personnel in providing assurance services

B.

To assess new products and services for the market

C.

To analyze financial statements and prepare budgets

D.

To create a positive organizational culture and work environment

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Question # 53

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

A.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization’s decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost

B.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries

C.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations

D.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed

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Question # 54

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to eventually result in benefit?

A.

Venture

B.

Objective

C.

Prospect

D.

Target outcome

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Question # 55

In the IACM, what is the role of Compound/Accelerate Actions & Controls?

A.

To identify and address any potential conflicts of interest that may compound or accelerate enforcement actions against the company.

B.

To enhance the brand image and reputation of the organization.

C.

To accelerate and compound the impact of favorable events to increase benefits and promote the future occurrence.

D.

To accelerate and compound the benefits of reducing costs.

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Question # 56

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

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Question # 57

What are some examples of economic factors that may influence an organization's external context?

A.

Growth, exchange, inflation, and interest rates

B.

Profitability of each line of business

C.

Supply chain management, inventory control, and distribution logistics

D.

Employee retention, job satisfaction, and career development

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Question # 58

How do detective actions and controls contribute to managing performance?

A.

They provide investigative capabilities in every part of the organization.

B.

They detect and correct unfavorable events, which will lead to an increase in favorable events.

C.

They indicate progress toward objectives by detecting events that help or hinder performance.

D.

They focus on promoting favorable events, which will lead to the reduction of unfavorable events.

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Question # 59

The Critical Disciplines skills of Audit & Assurance help organizations through which of the following?

A.

Managing mergers and acquisitions, evaluating investment opportunities, conducting due diligence, and integrating acquired businesses

B.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

C.

Prioritizing assurance activities, planning and performing assessments, using testing techniques, and communicating to enhance confidence

D.

Identifying critical physical and digital assets, assessing related risks, addressing related risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and performing crisis response

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Question # 60

The Critical Discipline skills of Compliance & Ethics help organizations through which of the following?

A.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

B.

Planning for risks, identifying risks, assessing risks, addressing risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and using decision science

C.

Identifying mandatory and voluntary obligations, assessing risk, setting policy, educating the workforce, and shaping ethical culture

D.

Fostering creativity, encouraging innovation, facilitating brainstorming, supporting idea generation, and promoting design thinking

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Question # 61

What is the term used to describe the level of risk in the absence of actions and controls?

A.

Uncontrolled Risk

B.

Inherent Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Residual Risk

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Question # 62

What are some examples of action and control categories as described in the IACM?

A.

Policy, process change, punishment, incentives, and employee education

B.

Policy, people, process, physical, informational, technological, and financial actions and controls

C.

Outsourcing, downsizing, and automation as the primary means of control

D.

Random selection, trial and error, and reliance on intuition and experience

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Question # 63

How do the four dimensions of Total Performance contribute to a comprehensive assessment of an organization’s GRC capability?

A.

By determining the budget allocation for GRC programs and where resources should be applied

B.

By evaluating the performance of departments and individual employees in the context of GRC needs in their roles

C.

By ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements across the organization as a whole and by department

D.

By providing a holistic view of an organization’s GRC capability, evaluating its soundness, cost-effectiveness, agility and ability to withstand disruptions

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Question # 64

What is the duality of compliance, and how does it relate to risk?

A.

The duality of compliance refers to the distinction between domestic and international regulations that an organization must follow.

B.

The duality of compliance refers to the trade-off between investing in compliance measures and allocating resources to other business areas.

C.

The duality of compliance involves addressing both compliance with obligations and compliance-related risks. Compliance involves meeting mandatory and voluntary obligations, while compliance-related risks involve addressing the risk of negative outcomes associated with non-compliance.

D.

The duality of compliance refers to the balance between financial gains and ethical considerations in business decisions.

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Question # 65

What is the difference between an organization’s mission and vision?

A.

The mission is a financial target, while the vision is a non-financial target.

B.

The mission is an objective that states who the organization serves, what it does, and what it hopes to achieve, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be and why it matters.

C.

The mission is a short-term goal or set of goals, while the vision is a long-term goal or set of goals.

D.

The mission is focused on external stakeholders, while the vision is focused on internal stakeholders.

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Question # 66

Who has ultimate accountability (plenary accountability) for the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance in the Lines of Accountability Model?

A.

The Fifth Line, or the Governing Authority (Board).

B.

The Second Line, or the individuals and teams that establish performance, risk, and compliance programs.

C.

The First Line, or the individuals and teams involved in operational activities.

D.

The Third Line, or the individuals and teams that provide assurance.

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Question # 67

What is the importance of gaining subordinate buy-in when setting the direction for an organization?

A.

To determine the organization’s expansion and growth plans without internal conflict

B.

To establish the organization’s brand identity and image without conflict

C.

To ensure that the organization has sufficient staff to take on defined tasks

D.

To help subordinate units understand and define ways to contribute to the organization’s success, reducing the risk of strategic misalignment and engagement decay

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Question # 68

How does budgeting for regular improvement activities contribute to capability maturation?

A.

It ensures that resources are available when opportunities to improve arise

B.

It increases the organization’s profitability and revenue

C.

It minimizes the risk of legal disputes and litigation

D.

It reduces the need for external audits and assessments

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Question # 69

What are some key practices involved in managing policies within an organization?

A.

Having internal audit design standard policy templates to make assessment of their effectiveness easier

B.

Delegating policy management to each unit of the organization so there is a sense of accountability established

C.

Implementing, communicating, enforcing, and auditing policies and related procedures to ensure that they operate as intended and remain relevant

D.

Establishing policy management technology that has pre-populated templates so the organization’s policies meet industry standards

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Question # 70

How do mission, vision, and values work together to describe an organization's highest purpose?

A.

The mission describes the organization's reason for existing; the vision describes the organization's plans for the next few years; and values describe the organization's performance evaluation criteria.

B.

The mission describes who the organization serves, what it does, and its goals; the vision describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters; and values describe what the organization believes and stands for. Together, they define the organization's highest purpose.

C.

The mission describes the organization's financial targets, the vision describes the organization's marketing strategy, and the values describe the organization's pricing model.

D.

The mission outlines the organization's legal obligations, the vision outlines the organization's ideas about meeting those obligations, and the values outline the organization's code of conduct.

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Question # 71

How can an organization evaluate the adequacy of current levels of residual risk/reward and compliance?

A.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by looking at the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions.

B.

The organization can use analysis criteria to evaluate the adequacy of current levels and determine if additional analysis is required.

C.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by removing controls and seeing if the levels change.

D.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by hiring an outside auditor to make an assessment.

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Question # 72

What is the purpose of reviewing information from monitoring and assurance?

A.

To determine the effectiveness of strategies

B.

To identify opportunities for improvement

C.

To assess the financial stability of the organization

D.

To evaluate employee performance

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Question # 73

What types of actions and controls are included in the PERFORM component of the GRC Capability Model?

A.

Internal, external, and hybrid actions and controls.

B.

Mandatory, voluntary, and optional actions and controls.

C.

Proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls.

D.

Reactive, preventive, and corrective actions and controls.

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Question # 74

What are some considerations that should be taken into account when examining an organization’s internal context?

A.

Regulatory compliance, legal disputes, and contractual obligations on a unit-by-unit or division-by-division basis

B.

How any changes to the internal context might affect supplier relationships, distribution channels, and pricing strategies

C.

Mission and vision, values, value propositions and operating models, organizational charts and operating model mapping, key department scope and purpose, and potential perverse incentives

D.

Market share, employee and customer satisfaction, and brand reputation

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