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Practice Free CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the PMI CAPM Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free CAPM Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Question # 7

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

Question # 8

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

Question # 9

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

Question # 10

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Question # 11

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

Question # 12

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question # 13

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

Question # 14

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Question # 15

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

Question # 16

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Question # 17

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

Question # 18

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Question # 19

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Question # 20

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

Question # 21

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question # 22

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

Question # 23

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Question # 24

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

Question # 25

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Question # 26

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question # 27

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

Question # 28

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Question # 29

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question # 30

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Question # 31

When is a Salience Model used?

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

Question # 32

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 33

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Question # 34

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

Question # 35

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

Question # 36

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

Question # 37

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

Question # 38

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

Question # 39

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

Question # 40

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

Question # 41

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

Question # 42

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

Question # 43

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

Question # 44

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Question # 45

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

Question # 46

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Question # 47

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Question # 48

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

Question # 49

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Question # 50

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

Question # 51

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Question # 52

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Question # 53

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question # 54

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Question # 55

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Question # 56

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question # 57

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

Question # 58

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Question # 59

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Question # 60

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Question # 61

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Question # 62

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Question # 63

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Question # 64

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Question # 65

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Question # 66

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question # 67

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

Question # 68

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Question # 69

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

Question # 70

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Question # 71

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

Question # 72

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A.

Cyclic

B.

Progressive

C.

Repetitive

D.

Iterative

Question # 73

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

Question # 74

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Question # 75

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question # 76

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

Question # 77

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Question # 78

The definition of operations is a/an:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

Question # 79

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Question # 80

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

Question # 81

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

Question # 82

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Question # 83

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

Question # 84

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Question # 85

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question # 86

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question # 87

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

Question # 88

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

Question # 89

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Question # 90

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Question # 91

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

Question # 92

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Question # 93

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 94

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

Question # 95

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Question # 96

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

Question # 97

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

Question # 98

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Question # 99

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

Question # 100

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

Question # 101

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Question # 102

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Question # 103

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

Question # 104

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

Question # 105

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

Question # 106

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

Question # 107

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 108

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

Question # 109

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question # 110

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

A.

Plan Stakeholder Management

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Control Stakeholder Engagement

Question # 111

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Control Risks

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question # 112

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

A.

realigned.

B.

performed.

C.

improved.

D.

controlled.

Question # 113

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

Question # 114

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Question # 115

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Question # 116

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Question # 117

Project management processes ensure the:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

Question # 118

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

Question # 119

High-level project risks are included in which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

Question # 120

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

Question # 121

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question # 122

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

Question # 123

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

Question # 124

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

Question # 125

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

Question # 126

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

Question # 127

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM question answer

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

Question # 128

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Question # 129

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

Question # 130

Which element does a project charter contain?

A.

Management reserves

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Stakeholder list

D.

Stakeholder register

Question # 131

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

Question # 132

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

A.

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.

Contain the standard activity list.

C.

Document and support the project change requests.

D.

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Question # 133

A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Stakeholder participation.

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Question # 134

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

Question # 135

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

Question # 136

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

Question # 137

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

Question # 138

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Question # 139

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Question # 140

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

Question # 141

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

Question # 142

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

Question # 143

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Question # 144

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Question # 145

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM question answer

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

Question # 146

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

A.

tangible

B.

targeted

C.

organized

D.

variable

Question # 147

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

Question # 148

Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

A.

Level of control.

B.

Communication channels.

C.

Scope.

D.

Strategic alignment.

Question # 149

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

Question # 150

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

Question # 151

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

Question # 152

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Question # 153

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Question # 154

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Question # 155

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question # 156

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Question # 157

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Question # 158

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Question # 159

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Question # 160

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

Question # 161

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 162

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

Question # 163

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Question # 164

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Question # 165

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Question # 166

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Question # 167

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Question # 168

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

Question # 169

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

Question # 170

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

Question # 171

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Question # 172

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question # 173

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

Question # 174

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question # 175

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Question # 176

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Question # 177

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

Question # 178

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

Question # 179

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Question # 180

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Question # 181

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question # 182

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

Question # 183

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Question # 184

During project selection, which factor is most important?

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

Question # 185

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

Question # 186

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Question # 187

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

Question # 188

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Question # 189

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question # 190

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question # 191

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question # 192

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Question # 193

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Qualify Management

D.

Project Risk Management

Question # 194

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question # 195

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

Question # 196

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

Question # 197

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Question # 198

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

Question # 199

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

Question # 200

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Question # 201

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

Question # 202

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Question # 203

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Question # 204

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Question # 205

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Question # 206

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

Question # 207

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

Question # 208

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project's components. What should be included in the WBS?

A.

Activity dependencies

B.

Work package risks

C.

Description of work

D.

Resource estimates

Question # 209

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

Question # 210

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

Question # 211

What are the objectives of Initiation processes?

A.

Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charier and Identify stakeholders.

B.

Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.

C.

Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify stakeholders' goals.

D.

Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.

Question # 212

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question # 213

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?

A.

Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.

B.

Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project.

C.

Train the team members in project skill sets.

D.

Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member.

Question # 214

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

A.

Produce team performance assessments.

B.

Hold weekly meetings to engage every member

C.

Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member

D.

Provide recognition awards to team members

Question # 215

A project manager is monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. Which output is the project manager using?

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Verified deliverables

C.

Lessons learned

D.

Work performance data

Question # 216

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

CAPM question answer

Question # 217

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

A.

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

Question # 218

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

A.

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.

B.

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.

C.

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.

D.

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.

Question # 219

What is a tool or technique used in the Control Quality process?

A.

Attribute sampling

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Expert judgment

Question # 220

A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project. Which analysis is the project manager using?

A.

What-if scenario analysis

B.

Simulation

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

Question # 221

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

Question # 222

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

Question # 223

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

A.

The life cycle involves three project management process groups.

B.

Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.

C.

Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.

D.

The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.

Question # 224

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?

A.

Collective decision making

B.

Multicriteria decision analysis

C.

Mind mapping

D.

Affinity diagram

Question # 225

A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?

A.

The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.

B.

Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.

C.

The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.

D.

Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.

Question # 226

Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?

A.

The change control board is responsible for presenting the change for approval.

B.

The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule.

C.

The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration management systems.

D.

The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project.

Question # 227

A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.

Which strategies should the project manager take into account for risk management in this environment?

A.

Occasionally identify, evaluate, and classify risks.

B.

Review requirements and cross-functional project teams.

C.

Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently.

D.

Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization.

Question # 228

Given the following information.

Activity A takes one week.

Activity B takes three weeks.

Activity C takes two weeks.

Activity D takes five weeks.

Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

A.

Eleven weeks

B.

Nine weeks

C.

Eight weeks

D.

Ten weeks

Question # 229

Responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) is an example of which of the following?

A.

Text-oriented formal

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Organization chart

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Question # 230

Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?

A.

Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase

B.

Define Activities and Acquire Resources

C.

Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements

D.

Monitor Communications and Control Costs

Question # 231

Which set of competencies should a project manager have?

A.

Leadership, strategic and business management, and technical project management

B.

Expertise in the Industry, leadership and business management, and bilingual skills

C.

Technical project management, expertise in every role, and PMP certification

D.

Expertise in every detail on project activities. PMP certification, and leadership

Question # 232

Match the influence with its corresponding category of influence.

Question # 233

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

Question # 234

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

Question # 235

It you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

Question # 236

What tool should a project manager use to efficiently manage project resources?

A.

List of project resources

B.

Resource breakdown structure

C.

Resources detailed in the project scope

D.

Resource requirements

Question # 237

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

Question # 238

Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?

A.

Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.

B.

Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.

C.

Create a social network and post news there.

D.

Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.

Question # 239

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

Question # 240

What does expert judgment provide as an input to the resource management plan?

A.

Geographic distribution of facilities and resources

B.

Physical resource management policies and procedures

C.

Estimated lead times based on lessons learned

D.

Templates for the resource management plan

Question # 241

According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:

A.

understand the high-level overview of the organization

B.

tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C.

work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery

D.

guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals

Question # 242

Which of the following sets are inputs to the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Project charter and requirements documentation

B.

Project charter and business documents

C.

Project charter and stakeholder requirements

D.

Business documents and requirements traceability matrix

Question # 243

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

Question # 244

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Question # 245

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

Question # 246

In a large organization, with projects of different types and sizes, what kind of approach or method would be best to use?

A.

Predictive

B.

Adaptive

C.

A mix

D.

Agile

Question # 247

Which format can a network diagram take?

A.

Flow chart

B.

Control chart

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Cause-and-effect diagram

Question # 248

A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

A.

Identify Stakeholders

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Monitor Slakeholder Engagement

Question # 249

A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?

A.

Review stakeholder register and meeting

B.

Data analysis and communication skills

C.

Data gathering and data analysis

D.

Communication skills and cultural awareness

Question # 250

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

Question # 251

A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?

A.

Initiating Process Group

B.

Planning Process Group

C.

Executing Process Group

D.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Question # 252

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Control Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Develop Team

Question # 253

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

A.

Hybrid methodologies

B.

Risk register updates

C.

Outsourced project resources

D.

Reliance on lessons learned documents

Question # 254

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

Question # 255

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?

A.

Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process

B.

Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules

C.

Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

D.

Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

Question # 256

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

Question # 257

Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?

A.

Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.

B.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.

C.

Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.

D.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process.

Question # 258

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question # 259

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

Question # 260

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question # 261

An organizational structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques is referred to as:

A.

Project Management Information System

B.

Project Management System

C.

Project Management Office

D.

Project Management Knowledge Area

Question # 262

The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?

A.

Take control of all decisions and product planning.

B.

Build a team that can respond to changes within a collaborative, decision-making environment.

C.

Promote a team with a narrow specialization within a hierarchical environment.

D.

Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.

Question # 263

A project's business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won't have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

Question # 264

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

Question # 265

Which two of the following can be used as communication tools between the business analyst and the rest of the project team? (Choose two)

A.

Project management plan

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Responsible, accountable, consult, inform (RACI) matrix

E.

Process flows

Question # 266

In an interactive communication model, how is the sender ensured that the message was understood by the receiver?

A.

The receiver decodes the message

B.

The receiver responds to the message with feedback.

C.

The receiver transmits the message

D.

The receiver acknowledges their receipt of the message

Question # 267

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

A.

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.

Over budget, behind schedule

C.

Under budget, behind schedule

D.

Over budget, ahead of schedule

Question # 268

A project manager is in the process of onboarding resources to start work on a project. Which of the following components of a project management plan will the project manager update after completing this activity?

A.

Resource management plan and lessons learned register

B.

Resource management plan and cost baseline

C.

Resource management plan and procurement management plan

D.

Resource management plan and preassignment

Question # 269

Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?

A.

Hierarchical

B.

External

C.

Formal

D.

Official

Question # 270

What is the common factor among portfolios, programs, and projects, regardless of the hierarchy within an organization?

A.

Resources and stakeholders

B.

Operations and performance

C.

Subsidiary projects

D.

Project manager

Question # 271

Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?

A.

Market Share brand recognition

B.

Factory location

C.

Local government regulation

D.

Industry research

Question # 272

In one of the project meetings during project execution, a new stakeholder attends and highlights a new risk. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Ignore the risk from this stakeholder as this stakeholder never showed up at the start of the project.

B.

Make sure proper testing gets completed to minimize the risk highlighted.

C.

Add this risk to the lessons learned register on project completion.

D.

Add the stakeholder to the stakeholder register and add the risk to the risk register.

Question # 273

A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members. Which technique can result in a win-win solution?

A.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

B.

Compromise/Reconcile

C.

Smooth/Accommodate

D.

Withdraw/Avoid

Question # 274

An adaptive team is performing the kickoff meeting and planning the project management approach. After defining project events, one team member argues that the artifacts are missing. The project manager coaches the team to complete the planning.

Which two of the following items should be included in the planning? (Choose two)

A.

Daily scrum

B.

Sprint backlog

C.

Sprint review

D.

Increments

E.

Sprint retrospective

Question # 275

An adaptive team is in the process of merging a legacy system from an acquired company. In order to check the project status and manage the flow of work, they are using a scrum board for this project. What data should be included in this information radiator?

A.

Product and sprint backlog

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) and baseline

C.

Increments and bottlenecks

D.

Burndown and burnup charts

Question # 276

An adaptive team is working on a mobile banking application. The team conducted their sprint demo, which included 12 stories that were completed. This was the last sprint before the product was to be launched in the beta phase. One of the attendees from marketing noticed that a requested enhancement to share on social media was still in the product backlog.

Why was the product still determined to be ready for delivery?

A.

The development team ran out of time and did not pull the social media story from the backlog.

B.

The development team completed all of the stories identified by the product owner as having the highest customer value.

C.

The sprint demo went smoothly and the team did not find any open issues.

D.

The social media story is a marketing priority and less important than other priorities.

Question # 277

Project managers plan a key role performing integration on the project what are the three different levels of integration?

A.

Process, cognitive

B.

Complexity, understand and change

C.

Interact, insight and leadership

D.

Communication, knowledge and value

Question # 278

Which of these statements is true of subsidiary management plans?

A.

Subsidiary management plans are mandatory for any project

B.

Subsidiary management plans use the project charier as input

C.

Subsidiary management plans can be independently managed

D.

Subsidiary management plans do not need regular updates

Question # 279

During a kickoff meeting, the project sponsor presents a very ambitious project. Unfortunately, the stakeholders are not very excited as the work associated with the new project seems inefficient.

What could be missing from the business case?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Approval from the stakeholders

C.

Feasibility study of the solution

D.

Root cause analysis of the problem

Question # 280

It’s time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Automated testing tools

Question # 281

Which of the following set of items belongs to the communications management plan?

A.

Escalation processes and meeting management

B.

Project schedule and glossary of common terminology

C.

Escalation processes and stakeholder communication requirements

D.

Interactive communication model and information to be communicated

Question # 282

Which are the competing constrains that project manager should address when tailoring a project?

A.

Cost, scope, schedule

B.

Sponsorship, risk, quality

C.

Schedule, sponsorship, scope

D.

Resources, Quality, Communication

Question # 283

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

Question # 284

Match the process with its corresponding Process Group:

Question # 285

A project manager has a project schedule baseline. How can the critical path be determined from the finalized schedule?

A.

Identify the crashed project schedule to find the shortest duration to complete the project.

B.

Identify the longest activity path in the schedule with the shortest possible duration.

C.

Identify the tasks with float duration, which do not impact the duration of the project.

D.

Identify the path through the schedule with leveled resources and the shortest duration.

Question # 286

A quality management plan describes how the project and product scopes are managed in accordance with which of the following items?

A.

Product sponsor's expectation of organizational quality

B.

Historical quality standards and past organizational projects

C.

Organizational quality policies, stakeholder expectations, and historical data

D.

Organizational quality policies, standards, and methodologies

Question # 287

What prototyping technique shows a sequence or navigations through a series of images or illustrations?

A.

Storyboarding

B.

Wireframes

C.

Data simulation

D.

Report prototyping

Question # 288

Which subsidiary management plan.... during the project ilfe cycle?

Which Subsidiary management plan would a project manager create to manage Information dissemination during the project life cycle?

A.

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

B.

Quality Management Plan

C.

Communications Management Plan

D.

Scope Management Plan

Question # 289

How should the project manager obtain the maximum engagement from stakeholders that have recently changed to become more connected to social media?

A.

Adopt co-creation, sharing responsibilities with stakeholders

B.

Adopt participation of stakeholders in main meetings, listening to their opinion.

C.

Adopt social media tools, improving communication with stakeholders

D.

Adopt involvement of stakeholders in lessons learned sessions, sharing experiences with them

Question # 290

Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?

A.

Evaluates the differences between the communications management plan and the reality of communications in a project

B.

Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met

C.

Ensures that project information is created, collected, and distributed in a timely and appropriate manner

D.

Develops an appropriate approach and plan for communication of project activities

Question # 291

Given the following information, what is the schedule variance (SV) for this project?

Early start date (ES): 16 weeks

Actual time: 12 weeks

Schedule performance index (SPI): 1.3

A.

5

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question # 292

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure effective requirements elicitation. What should the business analyst do?

A.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

B.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

C.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

D.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

Question # 293

An adaptive project manager is handling a five-sprint cycle to deliver a minimum viable product (MVP). After the third sprint, the productivity of the team drops to 30% due to a change in the way the team operates.

Which of the following changes has caused this loss in productivity?

A.

Two of the team members have been working in silos using different methods to validate their performance.

B.

The team velocity was measured in the third sprint since the tool to measure velocity was introduced only in the third sprint.

C.

The team picked up technical debt items in the third sprint as technical debt can only be picked up after completing two sprints.

D.

Two of the team members were asked to do multitasking, which they did not do in the previous two sprints.

Question # 294

A key stakeholder has left the project management team. The team now has a new key stakeholder who is requesting project reports from team members out of sequence.

What should the project manager do first?

A.

Extend an iteration review invite to the new stakeholder.

B.

Perform qualitative risk analysis.

C.

Engage with the new stakeholder.

D.

Allow team members to share project status reports.

Question # 295

During the requirements verification process, stakeholders are finding many errors in the requirements definition. What could the business analyst have done to avoid these errors?

A.

Asked the stakeholders to write the requirements themselves

B.

Included the project manager in the elicitation sessions

C.

Confirmed the elicitation results after sessions

D.

Updated the requirements traceability matrix

Question # 296

A project manager needs information to finish their work on the project charter for a clinical trial.

Which procedure is used to obtain the requirements information?

A.

Forecasting

B.

Simulations

C.

Elicitation

D.

Quantitative analysis

Question # 297

What specific quality considerations should be examined while completing Quality Management plan?

A.

Risk registerB Stakeholder engagement

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Standards and regulatory compliance

Question # 298

How can a project manager ensure effective project stakeholder engagement?

A.

Build a stakeholder responsibility matrix

B.

Hold weekly project staff meetings

C.

Improve interpersonal and team leadership skills

D.

Create detailed project reports for stakeholders

Question # 299

The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should plan the project manager consult?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan

Question # 300

Which of the following is the key construction to controlling the costs and achieving the schedule in projects with high variability?

A.

Learn methods

B.

collaborative teams

C.

Generalizing specialists

D.

Knowledge sharing

Question # 301

A project manager is calculating the current budget. The earned value (EV) of the project is lower than the actual cost (AC) of the project.

How should the project manager report the status of the project?

A.

The project is at risk as the cost variance (CV) is negative.

B.

The project is within budget and within schedule.

C.

The project is within budget but is delayed.

D.

The project is tracking well as the cost variance (CV) is negative.

Question # 302

A project lead asks the team to create a work breakdown structure (WBS) of the project's scope. The team is confused about how far they should break down the scope.

What should the project lead tell the team?

A.

Decompose to the activity or task level.

B.

Decompose until all of the risks are identified.

C.

Decompose to the work package level.

D.

Decompose until a WBS dictionary is obtained.

Question # 303

A business analyst sent multiple meeting requests via instant message to a subject matter expert (SME) working in another country but did not receive a response. What should the business analyst do to reduce the likelihood of this occurring in the future with other stakeholders distributed across multiple locations?

A.

Ask each stakeholder for their preferred communication method.

B.

Confirm the time zone and work days in each location.

C.

Check with the IT department to see if there is a technical issue.

D.

Assume the meeting request is accepted unless declined.

Question # 304

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Question # 305

A practitioner organized a requirements workshop with the client's frontline application users. The users explained that one of the challenges of the current application is that they must click on each input before entering data, which happens thousands of times a day.

Which technique did the practitioner use to identify this pain point?

A.

System thinking

B.

User acceptance testing

C.

Decision-making

D.

Active listening

Question # 306

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

A.

Elicit product requirements.

B.

Verify product functionality.

C.

Manage the project schedule.

D.

Allocate project resources.

Question # 307

During a project's execution phase, the project manager reviews the communications management plan for communication technology factors. What can affect the choice of communications?

A.

Legal requirements

B.

Politics and power structures

C.

Internal information needs

D.

Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information

Question # 308

How can working in iterations increase the quality of the product being built?

A.

Teams have to do less planning and focus more on quality.

B.

The project manager has more time to document goals in advance.

C.

Less testing is required since it is done at the end of the project.

D.

Requirements are frequently clarified by users of the product.

Question # 309

A Project manager is using agile in a project. As development life cycle is adaptive, how does the project manager handle key stakeholder involvement?

A.

Key stakeholders are regularly involved

B.

Key stakeholders are continuously involved

C.

Key stakeholders are involved at specific milestones

D.

Key stakeholders are always involved

Question # 310

What three strategies are used to respond to threats?

A.

Escalate, accept, and mitigate

B.

Accept share, and avoid

C.

Escalate, transfer, and exploit

D.

Mitigate, accept, and prioritize

Question # 311

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager.

What should the project manager do to address this issue?

A.

Apply emotional intelligence (El) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team's issues.

B.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

C.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

D.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

Question # 312

Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description

Question # 313

Which additional considerations should the project manager make when managing risks in an agile/adaptive project?

A.

Add more risk categories

B.

Identify, analyze, and manage risk during each iteration of the project

C.

Add new values to the probability and impact matrix

D.

Increase the reserves because of the high variability environment

Question # 314

What is the purpose of the Manage Quality process?

A.

To translate the quality management plan into executable quality activities

B.

To monitor and record the results of executed quality management activities

C.

To determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies.

D.

To identify project deliverables and quality requirements and/or standards

Question # 315

A project team working on an automobile manufacturing project is detailing the parts needed for a car door design. The door is composed of several parts that have to be developed in sequence, as the frame is needed before other parts can be designed and built. What activity is the team involved in?

A.

Creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Identifying risks and issues in the project

C.

Developing a stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Developing a communications management plan

Question # 316

When paying a consultation fee to a technical expert, what type of contract is often used'?

A.

Time and materials (T&M)

B.

Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)

C.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Question # 317

Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?

A.

Verify Deliverables

B.

Validate Deliverables

C.

Review Deliverables

D.

Analyze Deliverables

Question # 318

The project team is inspecting the completed project scope to determine if the requirements have been satisfied. What is the result of this inspection?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

planning packages

C.

Verified deliverables

D.

Work packages

Question # 319

What should a project manager consider to address the full delivery life cycle for large projects?

A.

A range of techniques utilizing a plan driven approach, adaptive approach or a hybrid ot both

B.

Only techniques of an agile/adaptive approach in large organizations

C.

Change the role of the project manager to managing pro|ci I in adaptive nuviionin-

D.

Splitting larger projects into two or more smaller project is which can be addressed in an adaptive method

Question # 320

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

Question # 321

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Question # 322

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

Question # 323

After an internal deliverable review session with the team, the project manager indicates some issues that need to be fixed before submitting the deliverable for formal approval. The project manager will need to manage the additional costs and the required network. How would the project manager define extra costs?

A.

Appraisal costs

B.

Management reserves

C.

Cost of nonconformance

D.

Cost of conformance

Question # 324

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question # 325

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Question # 326

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

Question # 327

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

Question # 328

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Question # 329

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Question # 330

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

Question # 331

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question # 332

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Question # 333

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

Question # 334

The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

Question # 335

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 336

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

Question # 337

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

Question # 338

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

Question # 339

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

Question # 340

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question # 341

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question # 342

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question # 343

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Question # 344

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

Question # 345

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

Question # 346

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

Question # 347

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Question # 348

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

Question # 349

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question # 350

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Question # 351

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

Question # 352

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

Question # 353

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

Question # 354

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

Question # 355

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

Question # 356

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Question # 357

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

Question # 358

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

Question # 359

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Question # 360

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

Question # 361

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

Question # 362

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

Question # 363

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

A.

Benchmarking.

B.

Context diagrams.

C.

Brainstorming.

D.

Prototyping.

Question # 364

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

Question # 365

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Question # 366

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question # 367

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Question # 368

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Question # 369

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

Question # 370

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question # 371

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

Question # 372

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

Question # 373

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Question # 374

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

Question # 375

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Question # 376

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

Question # 377

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question # 378

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

Question # 379

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Question # 380

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

Question # 381

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Question # 382

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Question # 383

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

Question # 384

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

Question # 385

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

Question # 386

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Question # 387

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

Question # 388

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

Question # 389

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.

Project Scope Management

Question # 390

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Question # 391

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A.

expert judgment and change requests

B.

work performance information and change requests

C.

project management plan updates and work performance information

D.

issue logs and organizational process assets updates

Question # 392

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

Question # 393

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question # 394

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

Question # 395

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

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