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Practice Free CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the PMI CAPM Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free CAPM Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

Question # 7

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

Question # 8

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

Question # 9

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Question # 10

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager.

What should the project manager do to address this issue?

A.

Apply emotional intelligence (El) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team ' s issues.

B.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

C.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

D.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

Question # 11

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

Question # 12

A project team has completed the first iteration and the testing manager approved the test report, indicating that the acceptance criteria have been met. The manager of the business unit that will use the new product is asking for additional functionality before approving the rollout for their team.

What should the project manager do next?

A.

Escalate this issue to the project sponsor.

B.

Reschedule the rollout to start with another business unit.

C.

Reschedule the rollout to include the new requirements.

D.

Escalate this issue to the project management office (PMO).

Question # 13

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

Question # 14

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question # 15

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Question # 16

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question # 17

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

Question # 18

A project manager is assigned to a new project with a defined scope. The project requires advanced planning at the start of the project. Which approach should the project manager select for the project?

A.

Predictive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Kanban

D.

Adaptive

Question # 19

How is program success measured?

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program ' s projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

Question # 20

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Question # 21

A project team of telecommuters located in three different time zones regularly misses project deadlines Daily meetings often start and end with the same person talking and the rest of the team listening The project manager determines that communication among team members must be addressed.

What communication step is missing from the daily meetings?

A.

Interpersonal communication

B.

Feedback response communication

C.

Push communication

D.

Pull communication

Question # 22

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM question answer

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

16

Question # 23

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

Question # 24

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Question # 25

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Question # 26

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

Question # 27

For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Expected monetary value analysis

D.

Decision tree analysis

Question # 28

A project team is reviewing project performance. During the execution phase, the project team discovers that there is an off-the-shelf (OTS) product, which could reduce the timeline for development.

What should the project manager do next?

A.

Update the project management plan.

B.

Add the discovery to the assumptions.

C.

Evaluate the risk with the project team.

D.

Conduct an opportunity analysis with the team.

Question # 29

Which set of tools and techniques is useful for estimating activity durations for the project schedule?

A.

Brainstorming, Monte Carlo simulation, analogous estimation

B.

Three-point estimation, resources leveling, iteration burndown chart

C.

Milestone charts, parametric estimation, schedule baseline

D.

Parametric estimation, three-point estimation, meetings

Question # 30

During the execution of a predicted project, the need for a new product feature has been proposed by the customer. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Decline any request by the customer and continue the project as initially planned.

B.

Accept the customer ' s request and continue with elicitation of the new product features.

C.

Investigate the possibility of using the management reserve to pay for the extra hours the team will need to work.

D.

Investigate the effect that such an integration will have on the project plan and propose a change request.

Question # 31

A project manager is creating a project charter to provide a direct link between the project and the organization ' s strategic objectives. What must be considered when creating this document?

A.

High-level requirements and the project team

B.

Key stakeholder list and contingency reserve

C.

Detailed milestone schedule and project objectives

D.

Project purpose and high-level project description

Question # 32

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A.

Cyclic

B.

Progressive

C.

Repetitive

D.

Iterative

Question # 33

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question # 34

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question # 35

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Question # 36

Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description

CAPM question answer

Question # 37

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

Question # 38

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Question # 39

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

Question # 40

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

Question # 41

A project manager oversees a project in an adaptive environment. After each iteration, which type of meeting should the project manager conduct?

A.

Iteration planning

B.

Retrospective

C.

Backlog refinement review

D.

Daily standup

Question # 42

On a clinical trial project, the project manager is worried about maintaining control of the project. The project manager decides to use a requirements traceability matrix.

What is the advantage of using this tool?

A.

Scope creep will be prevented.

B.

Resource allocation will be kept to a minimum.

C.

Project closure will be established.

D.

Project costs will be controlled.

Question # 43

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

Question # 44

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

A.

Produce team performance assessments.

B.

Hold weekly meetings to engage every member

C.

Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member

D.

Provide recognition awards to team members

Question # 45

In addition to the project charter, what other artifact is produced as a result of the Develop Project Charter process ' ?

A.

Assumption log

B.

Milestone list

C.

Business case

D.

Risk register

Question # 46

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

Question # 47

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

Question # 48

Which of these statements is true of subsidiary management plans?

A.

Subsidiary management plans are mandatory for any project

B.

Subsidiary management plans use the project charier as input

C.

Subsidiary management plans can be independently managed

D.

Subsidiary management plans do not need regular updates

Question # 49

What tool or technique will establish expected behaviors for project team members?

A.

Ground rules

B.

Decision mating

C.

Power/influence grid

D.

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

Question # 50

A project is in its final stages when a competitor releases a similar product. This could make the project redundant. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Initiate change control.

B.

Address risk mitigation.

C.

Escalate this to the project sponsor.

D.

Initiate project closure.

Question # 51

What is purpose of using the building information model (BIM) in software tools in the construction field?

A.

Reduce significant amount of time and money

B.

Help manage risks in large projects

C.

Keep up with emerging trends

D.

Provide sellers with multiple sources for documents

Question # 52

Which of the following set of items belongs to the communications management plan?

A.

Escalation processes and meeting management

B.

Project schedule and glossary of common terminology

C.

Escalation processes and stakeholder communication requirements

D.

Interactive communication model and information to be communicated

Question # 53

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

Question # 54

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

Question # 55

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

Question # 56

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

Question # 57

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

Question # 58

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

A.

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project ' s time and cost objectives.

Question # 59

Which of the following is an example of tacit knowledge

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

Question # 60

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

A.

When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

B.

When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit

C.

When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule

D.

When they are from the same unit of the organization

Question # 61

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

Question # 62

A project team is closing out a phase and updating the organizational knowledge base What organizational process asset (OPA) will the team update?

A.

Traceability matrixB Lessons learned

B.

Change control proceduresD Resource availability

Question # 63

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Question # 64

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

Question # 65

A project manager is preparing a monthly status report for the project, which includes project performance compared to the baseline schedule. How can the project manager calculate the schedule variance (SV) for tasks on the critical path?

A.

Earned Schedule + Actual Time

B.

Actual Time - Earned Schedule

C.

Planned Value - Earned Value

D.

Earned Value - Planned Value

Question # 66

A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?

A.

Diversity background

B.

Stakeholder ' s relationships

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Knowledge management

Question # 67

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Question # 68

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

Question # 69

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

Question # 70

A project is in the planning phase and ready for plan review and approval when a sponsor switch happens. What should the next course of action be?

A.

Plan Communications Management

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question # 71

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question # 72

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

Question # 73

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

Question # 74

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

Question # 75

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

Question # 76

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Question # 77

A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders. What is this an example of?

A.

Informal communication

B.

Internal communication

C.

Formal communication

D.

Horizontal communication

Question # 78

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

B.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery timeline.

Question # 79

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager ' s role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager ' s role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

Question # 80

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

Question # 81

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

Question # 82

An adaptive project manager is migrating the company ' s new website. The project manager must work with the team to invest full capacity on this project because it is the company ' s top-ranked project in the portfolio. In order to increase throughput and provide consistent delivery, the project manager needs to assign members who are currently involved with other projects.

How should the project manager assign the team members to this project?

A.

Task switching

B.

Multitasking

C.

Prediction

D.

Full allocation

Question # 83

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

Question # 84

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Question # 85

Project managers plan a key role performing integration on the project what are the three different levels of integration?

A.

Process, cognitive

B.

Complexity, understand and change

C.

Interact, insight and leadership

D.

Communication, knowledge and value

Question # 86

A project ' s business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won ' t have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

Question # 87

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Question # 88

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Question # 89

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

Question # 90

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Control Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Develop Team

Question # 91

A project team identifies defects that will require a modification to a tool ' s functionality. What process should the project manager follow to obtain stakeholder buy-in?

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Control Scope

Question # 92

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

Question # 93

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Question # 94

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Question # 95

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Question # 96

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Question # 97

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

Question # 98

A project manager needs to request outside support......manager need to create

A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement ot work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?

A.

Time and material (TandM)

B.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.

Fixed price

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Question # 99

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?

A.

Training and establishing ground rules

B.

Networking activities and estimating team resources

C.

Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

D.

Recruit new team members and training

Question # 100

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

Question # 101

A business case is being assembled. Which two elements are necessary to complete this process? (Choose two)

A.

Project management plan

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Business goals and objectives

E.

Risk register

Question # 102

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

Question # 103

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Question # 104

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

Question # 105

What tools or techniques are necessary to create the project management plan?

A.

Meetings and data analysis

B.

Expert judgment and data gathering

C.

Interpersonal skills and change control

D.

Data analysis and expert judgment

Question # 106

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

Question # 107

What does the creation of a project management plan accomplish?

A.

Defines the basis of all project work and how it will be performed

B.

Acknowledges the existence of a project and defines its high-level information

C.

Authorizes the project manager to apply organizational resources to project activities

D.

Provides the project manager with organizational standards, policies, processes, and procedures

Question # 108

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Question # 109

Which of these is true of project integration management?

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

Question # 110

Howls program success measured?

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program ' s projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-etfectiveness. and customer saDstaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

Question # 111

A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?

A.

Review stakeholder register and meeting

B.

Data analysis and communication skills

C.

Data gathering and data analysis

D.

Communication skills and cultural awareness

Question # 112

A project is at risk of delivering the solution late because of poor quality that prevents the user acceptance testing (UAT) from being finalized. The product owner does not want to sign off until all the Severity 1 (S1) defects are fixed. What should the project manager do to manage this risk?

A.

Create a risk in the risk register for each S1 defect and assign actions.

B.

Consult the risk register and implement the risk response actions.

C.

Ask the developers to work longer hours and resolve the defects.

D.

Review the organizational chart to find out who else can sign off UAT.

Question # 113

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question # 114

A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?

A.

Initiating Process Group

B.

Planning Process Group

C.

Executing Process Group

D.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Question # 115

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Question # 116

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Question # 117

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders ' needs and requirements and:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 118

A Project manager is using agile in a project. As development life cycle is adaptive, how does the project manager handle key stakeholder involvement?

A.

Key stakeholders are regularly involved

B.

Key stakeholders are continuously involved

C.

Key stakeholders are involved at specific milestones

D.

Key stakeholders are always involved

Question # 119

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Question # 120

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

A.

Discussing with management

B.

Escalating to the sponsors

C.

Engaging regularly with stakeholders

D.

Engaging only with decision makers

Question # 121

A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?

A.

Representations of uncertainty

B.

Prompt lists

C.

Audits

D.

Risk categorization

Question # 122

A Scrum team has a product backlog and a sprint backlog. Which of the following is a correct statement related to these artifacts?

A.

The product backlog does not contain a prioritized list of requirements.

B.

The sprint backlog contains items to be completed during the current sprint.

C.

The sprint backlog contains the list of items prioritized by the product owner.

D.

The product backlog is a subset of the sprint backlog.

Question # 123

In the last two iterations, a project team failed to deliver all of the stories on time. What should the project manager do first in order to prevent this from recurring?

A.

Extend the delivery time for the product since the management reserve allows it.

B.

Temporarily use another team for the next iteration and evaluate their performance.

C.

Observe the project team ' s performance for the next two iterations before taking any action.

D.

Identify possible reasons for the delay and consult the risk register for corrective actions.

Question # 124

Match each Project Cost Management process with its appropriate keyword

CAPM question answer

Question # 125

What is the difference between verified and accepted deliverables?

A.

Accepted deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness; verified deliverables have been formally approved by the customer or authorized stakeholder.

B.

Accepted deliverables have been inspected by the quality team; verified deliverables are outputs from the Validate Scope process.

C.

Accepted deliverables have been formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder; verified deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness.

D.

Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are the outputs from the Control Quality process.

Question # 126

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Question # 127

A project manager has joined the sponsor to verify the last deliverable of the project. The sponsor is measuring and examining the deliverable to determine whether it meets the requirements and product acceptance criteria. Which activity is being performed?

A.

Inspection

B.

Prototyping

C.

Decision making

D.

Brainstorming

Question # 128

While executing a building construction project, the supplier may delay the delivery and increase the cost of materials due to new safety regulations. The team has identified an option to absorb the cost by reducing the lag for some of the tasks.

What should the team do to ensure that this situation is managed?

A.

Implement Appropriate Response

B.

Plan Project Risk Management

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question # 129

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

A.

Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF >

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF >

Question # 130

A regression line is used to estimate:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

Question # 131

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager ' s sphere of influence on a project?

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

Question # 132

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Question # 133

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

Question # 134

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Question # 135

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Question # 136

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

Question # 137

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

Question # 138

What is the equation to calculate cost variance (CV)?

A.

CV = EV / BAC

B.

CV = EV - AC

C.

CV = EV - BAC

D.

CV = EV / AC

Question # 139

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

Question # 140

A project team is evaluating criteria to determine project viability. Which of these activities will provide insight into making a go/no-go decision to start the project?

A.

Cost of quality (COQ)

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Benchmarking

Question # 141

Which are inputs for the Plan Quality Management process?

A.

Quality metrics, project documents, and financial performance

B.

Quality management plan, project documents, and quality metrics

C.

Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, quality metrics. and project documents

Question # 142

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Question # 143

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

Question # 144

A new game development process must have three versions. Each version is to be developed in approximately five iteration cycles with a duration of one month each. This will help this small enterprise to have a return on investment (ROI) as the project runs from the first cycle. Which methodology should the project manager adopt and implement in the project?

A.

Feature-driven development (FDD) as it will deliver product segments and the milestones are controlled by the development manager.

B.

Kanban as it will provide flexibility to the team for working at their own pace in the time frame requested.

C.

Scrum as it uses sprints and retrospectives, maximizing time delivery and the value of the product.

D.

Extreme Programming (XP) as it will help deliver more quickly since developers will work in pairs.

Question # 145

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 146

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

A.

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Terms of reference

D.

Change request

Question # 147

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM question answer

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

Question # 148

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Question # 149

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

Question # 150

A project manager is assigned to a project during the execution phase and consults the documents created by the previous project manager.

Which document should the project manager study to identify the ownership of the project outcome?

A.

The lessons learned repository

B.

The project charter

C.

The business case

D.

The organizational plan

Question # 151

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

Question # 152

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Question # 153

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

Question # 154

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

Question # 155

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

Question # 156

Which of the following best correspond to the organizational process assets (OPAs) that affect the project?

A.

Policies and lessons learned from other projects

B.

Information technology software and employee capability

C.

Resource availability and employee capability

D.

Marketplace conditions and legal restrictions

Question # 157

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

Question # 158

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

Question # 159

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

Question # 160

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?

A.

Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process

B.

Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules

C.

Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

D.

Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

Question # 161

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project.

Which of the following elements is the team using?

A.

Definition of ready (DoR)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

Question # 162

Why is a project undertaken?

A.

To create a unique product, service, or result

B.

To teach the discipline of program and portfolio management

C.

To increase the understanding of project management

D.

To achieve better management of resources

Question # 163

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question # 164

Which actions should a project manager follow to manage stakeholders?

A.

Identify the key stakeholders and keep them informed at all times.

B.

Identify the stakeholders, planning, managing and monitoring their engagement

C.

Meet and keep informed any person related to the project, at all times

D.

Identify the stakeholders and monitor their level of satisfaction

Question # 165

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

Question # 166

In what type of organizational structure does a project manager develop their role and work with a team assigned by job function?

A.

Matrix - strong

B.

Matrix - balanced

C.

Virtual

D.

Functional

Question # 167

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Question # 168

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

Question # 169

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

Question # 170

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

A.

Cultural influences

B.

Physical environmental elements

C.

Commercial databases

D.

Infrastructure

Question # 171

The project manager is leading a construction project that has been ongoing for eight years. The project manager needs to calculate the correct static payback period and consults the cash flow statement of the construction project investment.

What equation should the project manager use?

Cash Flow Statement of the Project Investment Unit: US$ Billion

Period: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

Cash inflow: 0, 0, 0, 0, 1200, 1200, 1200, 1200

Cash outflow: 0, 700, 800, 500, 700, 700, 700, 700, 700

Net cash flow (NCF): 0, -700, -800, 300, 500, 500, 500, 500, 500

Accumulative total of net cash flow: 0, -700, -1500, -1200, -700, -200, 300, 800, 1300

A.

Static payback period = 3 + |-1200| / 500 = 5.4

B.

Static payback period = 6 + |300| / 500 = 6.6

C.

Static payback period = 5 + |-200| / 500 = 5.4

D.

Static payback period = 4 + |-700| / 500 = 5.4

Question # 172

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

Question # 173

What is a characteristic of the relationship among projects, programs, and portfolios?

A.

A portfolio is a group of programs, and a program is a large project

B.

Portfolios often engage with the same stakeholders as the programs and projects in the portfolio.

C.

Programs focus on the internal interdependencies within each project in a portfolio

D.

Portfolios focus on program results and project deliveries

Question # 174

What is the purpose of the project management process groups?

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

Question # 175

A project manager held a meeting and listed all team members ' ideas for improving the product on a white board. What data gathering technique did the project manager apply?

A.

Focus groups

B.

Interviews

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Delphi technique

Question # 176

Which of the following can a project manager conduct if they have a stakeholder who is unresponsive and/or unsupportive?

A.

Interactive communications

B.

Pull communications

C.

Push communications

D.

Communication style assessment

Question # 177

What describes the relationship between projects, programs, and portfolios?

A.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the " right " programs and projects.

B.

Project management focuses on doing the " right " programs and portfolios.

C.

Program management focuses on doing the " specific " portfolios and projects.

D.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the ' ' specific’’ programs and projects.

Question # 178

When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process.

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Define Scope

D.

Collect Requirements

Question # 179

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

Question # 180

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

Question # 181

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

Question # 182

A project team is meeting to seek solutions on a new problem that occurred recently. The meeting is comprised of two parts: the first is a generation of ideas and the second is an analysis.

Which technique is the team using?

A.

Checklists

B.

Interview

C.

Focus group

D.

Brainstorming

Question # 183

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

Question # 184

Which of the following is part of the project sponsor ' s responsibility?

A.

Monitoring the business value

B.

Advocating the business value

C.

Tracking the business value

D.

Auditing the business value

Question # 185

What is an example of a technical project management skill?

A.

Managing a project schedule

B.

Developing a project delivery strategy

C.

Establishing a project team

D.

Understanding organizational objectives

Question # 186

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 187

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

Question # 188

What document gathers all of the lessons learned at the end of a phase or project

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Lessons learned list

C.

Lessons learned project asset

D.

Lessons learned repository

Question # 189

Which two of the following can be used as communication tools between the business analyst and the rest of the project team? (Choose two)

A.

Project management plan

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Responsible, accountable, consult, inform (RACI) matrix

E.

Process flows

Question # 190

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

Question # 191

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question # 192

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

Question # 193

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

Question # 194

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 195

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question # 196

A business analyst sent multiple meeting requests via instant message to a subject matter expert (SME) working in another country but did not receive a response. What should the business analyst do to reduce the likelihood of this occurring in the future with other stakeholders distributed across multiple locations?

A.

Ask each stakeholder for their preferred communication method.

B.

Confirm the time zone and work days in each location.

C.

Check with the IT department to see if there is a technical issue.

D.

Assume the meeting request is accepted unless declined.

Question # 197

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question # 198

A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Stakeholder participation.

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Question # 199

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

Question # 200

An organization is faced with increasing demand from the board of directors. They say budgets are flexible as long as the work gets completed.

What project management approach should the organization use?

A.

Predictive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Iterative

D.

Adaptive

Question # 201

An executive sponsor wants to be briefed on how the product will change over time. Which document should the business analyst use to prepare their presentation?

A.

Project charter

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product requirements

Question # 202

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Question # 203

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

Question # 204

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Question # 205

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Question # 206

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

Question # 207

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

Question # 208

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Question # 209

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

A.

The life cycle involves three project management process groups.

B.

Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.

C.

Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.

D.

The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.

Question # 210

Select two key benefits of the Control Procurements process

A.

Enables the development of make-or-buy decisions

B.

Ensures that contract performance meets the terms of the legal agreement

C.

Guarantees that legal agreements influence vendor selection

D.

Assures that legal agreements guide contract closings

E.

Helps determine whether a certain type of contract should be used

Question # 211

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

Question # 212

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Question # 213

When presenting a product roadmap to an adaptive team, which form of communication is the most appropriate?

A.

Requirements matrix

B.

Presentation slides

C.

Story map

D.

Project management plan

Question # 214

What is a key benefit of using virtual project teams?

A.

Ensures appropriate behavior, security, and the protection of proprietary information

B.

Reduces the risk of conflict due to interpersonal communications and other interactions

C.

Assures that all team members have a clear and common understanding of the project

D.

Reduces project cost by use of modern technologies allowing seamless team collaboration

Question # 215

Which is the appropriate tool to identify the possible correlation two elements in aprocess?

A.

Scatter diagram

B.

Cause and effect diagram

C.

Histogram

D.

Control charts

Question # 216

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question # 217

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Question # 218

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

Question # 219

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Question # 220

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

Question # 221

A construction project is underway, and during... tasks impacted the painting work

A construction project is underway, and during the progress review the painter complained that the task could not be started because the mason has not finished the plastering job What kind ot relationship between the tasks impacted the painting work?

A.

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

B.

Start-to-Finish (SF)

C.

Finish-to-Start(FS)

D.

Start-to-Slart(SS)

Question # 222

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Question # 223

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

Question # 224

Which of the following correctly explains the term " progressive elaboration ' ?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Question # 225

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

Question # 226

Which stakeholder approves a project ' s result?

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

Question # 227

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

Question # 228

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Question # 229

In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with changes?

A.

Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions

B.

Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints

C.

Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders

D.

Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team

Question # 230

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

Question # 231

A project manager needs to determine the schedule variance (SV). The project manager ' s latest schedule indicates 14 units of work completed against a plan of 23 units.

What is the SV?

A.

-9

B.

37

C.

9

D.

322

Question # 232

A project manager is reviewing a few techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to uncover whether the solution responds properly to unintended cases.

Which evaluation technique should be used here?

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Integration testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Day-in-the-life testing

Question # 233

A project is delivering an integrated solution to an external client on a fixed-price contract. The project has a significant technical component and has a dedicated technical project manager working with a business program manager and the client ' s project manager. The technical lead is requesting two new developers.

Which plan should the project manager use to identify who is responsible for finding the budget for additional developers?

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Business management plan

C.

Stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question # 234

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Question # 235

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

Question # 236

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Question # 237

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Question # 238

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

Question # 239

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Question # 240

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 241

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

Question # 242

In the business analysis aspect of a construction project, what is the purpose of the requirements validation process?

A.

Ensures a thorough unit test case coverage

B.

Ensures an accurate reflection of the stakeholders ' intentions

C.

Ensures that the business problem is solved

D.

Ensures the successful delivery of business value

Question # 243

Construction of a building has stopped due to a supplier ' s failure to deliver concrete. The project schedule is behind by three months.

What should the project manager do to overcome this problem and put the project back on track?

A.

Follow the risk response plan and allocate resources, if needed, to overcome the issue.

B.

Consult the legal department and subject matter experts (SMEs) regarding what to do to avoid failure.

C.

Extend the time of product delivery and use management reserve to cover any losses.

D.

Accept any penalties that might occur and continue working as initially planned.

Question # 244

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Question # 245

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (TandM)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Question # 246

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

Question # 247

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

Question # 248

A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?

A.

Informal

B.

Unofficial

C.

Formal

D.

Hierarchical

Question # 249

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Question # 250

Which of the following activities are included as part of a project manager ' s responsibilities?

A.

Direct, control, and focus on structure.

B.

Problem solve , achieve the bottom line, and focus on success.

C.

Control, maintain project status, and develop.

D.

Inspire, engage, and build relationships with people.

Question # 251

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Question # 252

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question # 253

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

Question # 254

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity ' s duration?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

Question # 255

A project manager has just consolidated the project risk management plan and sent it to the sponsor. The sponsor wants to reduce the likelihood of a specific risk.

Which approach should the project manager take?

A.

Escalate

B.

Mitigate

C.

Avoid

D.

Transfer

Question # 256

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

Question # 257

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

A.

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

Question # 258

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

Question # 259

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM question answer

The total float for the project is how many days?

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

Question # 260

What can a requirements traceability matrix enable regardless of the project methodology being used?

A.

Creation of a solid business case

B.

Investigation of the viability of a new product

C.

Identification of missing and superfluous requirements

D.

Evaluation of solution and system performance

Question # 261

What does an S-curve from a Monte Carlo analysis show?

A.

Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome

B.

Individual project risks or uncertainties that have the most potential impact on outcome

C.

Best alternative out of the possible solutions, incorporating associated risks and opportunities

D.

Diagram for all project uncertainties and their influence over a period of time

Question # 262

During a project team meeting, one of the team members suggested a product functionality that would immensely benefit the customer. The project manager documents the request for later analysis.

What is this an example of?

A.

Monitoring the traceability matrix

B.

Managing the scope

C.

Maintaining the product backlog

D.

Managing the cost benefit

Question # 263

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

CAPM question answer

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

Question # 264

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Question # 265

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

Question # 266

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question # 267

What is a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

A.

Validation and control

B.

Benefits

C.

Technology support

D.

Physical location

Question # 268

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

Question # 269

Recently, the government published a new tax law giving companies one year to implement the changes. A project was initiated to change the accounting system. Which delivery approach is most suitable in this context?

A.

Predictive, because of the high risk that the company can be fined.

B.

Predictive, because the requirements are clearly defined up-front.

C.

Adaptive, because the government will provide constant feedback.

D.

Adaptive, because the changes have never been implemented before.

Question # 270

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

Question # 271

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

Question # 272

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

Question # 273

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Question # 274

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Question # 275

Which three of the following are the most widely used techniques that a business analyst should implement to gather requirements? (Choose three)

A.

Current state analysis

B.

Facilitated workshops

C.

Scheduled interviews

D.

Shop floor observation

E.

Brainstorming sessions

Question # 276

What earned value (EV) measure indicates the cost efficiency of the work completed?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

To-complete performance index (TCPI)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

Question # 277

Which Process Group ' s purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Question # 278

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Question # 279

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Question # 280

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

A.

influencing

B.

leadership

C.

motivation

D.

coaching

Question # 281

What type of change requires the submission of a change request?

A.

Changes in assigned resources

B.

Changes in a technical solution

C.

Changes in status reporting

D.

Changes in the project ' s scope

Question # 282

An element of the project scope statement is:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

Question # 283

In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?

A.

The organization

B.

The project

C.

The industry

D.

The product

Question # 284

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

Question # 285

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent of staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to a volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question # 286

A project manager called for a team meeting...................method did the team use

A project manager called for a team meeting to estimate the project effort. During the session, the team went on to identify all the deliverables and analyzed the related work. Each of the analyzed deliverables were estimated. Which estimation method did the team use?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Expert Judgement

C.

Decomposition

D.

Data analysis

Question # 287

The project manager has following information about duration for an activity:

* Most likely [tM] - 15 days

* Pessimistic [tP] - 20 days

* Optimistic [tO] - 10 days

What is the estimated duration of this activity, according to the triangular distribution technique?

A.

10 days

B.

15 days

C.

12.5 days

D.

5 days

Question # 288

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Question # 289

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Question # 290

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Question # 291

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Question # 292

A company must implement sales software because it is opening a new branch in a foreign market. Although this software is used in every domestic branch, multiple changes are expected during the implementation because It is a foreign location.

Which type of life cycle would the project manager use in this case?

A.

Predictive life cycle

B.

Waterfall life cycle

C.

Hybrid life cycle

D.

Product life cycle

Question # 293

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Question # 294

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Question # 295

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

Question # 296

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

Question # 297

How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then in traditional projects?

A.

Less time spent on defining scope early on

B.

More time spent on defining scope early on

C.

Less time spent on scope management process

D.

Project scope management is the same in all projects

Question # 298

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

Question # 299

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Question # 300

Which items are components of a project management plan?

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Question # 301

Which document can help a project manager to leverage historical project information?

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Schedule baseline

C.

Work performance data

D.

Deliverable acceptance forms

Question # 302

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

Question # 303

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

Question # 304

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

Question # 305

The project manager and the project team are in the process of documenting procurement decisions. Which of the following will be the procurement strategy?

A.

Payment types, delivery methods, and procurement phases

B.

Procurement metrics, make-or-buy decisions, and procurement statement of work

C.

Vendor selection criteria, stakeholder roles and responsibilitys, and prequalified sellers

D.

Timetable procurement activities, product cost, and knowledge transfer schedule

Question # 306

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Question # 307

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

Question # 308

The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should plan the project manager consult?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan

Question # 309

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Question # 310

Which of the following items is a technique for data gathering?

A.

Facilitation

B.

Meeting management

C.

Conflict management

D.

Interviews

Question # 311

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

B.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery time line.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

Question # 312

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question # 313

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

Question # 314

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

Question # 315

When can we say that a project is completed?

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

Question # 316

Responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) is an example of which of the following?

A.

Text-oriented formal

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Organization chart

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Question # 317

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

Question # 318

What is the purpose of an adaptive standup meeting?

A.

To review what work has been completed, remove impediments, and calculate velocity

B.

To ask the team what work has been completed, calculate velocity, and determine what work will be completed

C.

To ask the team what work has been completed, ask what work will be completed, and report impediments

D.

To update the burndown chart, calculate velocity, and report impediments

Question # 319

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

Question # 320

Match the process with its corresponding Process Group:

CAPM question answer

Question # 321

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question # 322

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

Question # 323

A company is moving from a predictive to an adaptive approach. How should the company now translate the already planned work breakdown structure (WBS) to adaptive iterations?

A.

Create a product backlog with the information depicted in the WBS and prioritize the newly developed user stories into iterations.

B.

Accept this limitation and perform accordingly since the WBS can only be used in Scrum iterations.

C.

Consider reforming the structure of the company first as it is difficult for a company to transition from predictive to adaptive methods.

D.

Save the WBS in the historical data as the information can only be used for educational purposes and not as inputs for creating user stories.

Question # 324

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders ' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

Question # 325

Which of the following are outputs of define scope process in project scope management

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project Scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

Question # 326

A team is feeling pressured to begin development work due to tight project deadlines. There are stakeholders with similar functions located in multiple countries. To accelerate the process, the business analyst has limited the requirements elicitation sessions to times that work for stakeholders in one time zone.

To reduce the risk with this approach, which step should the business analyst take?

A.

Add the risk to the risk register so other stakeholders are aware of the approach.

B.

Distribute the documented requirements to relevant stakeholders in all time zones for review and comment.

C.

Ask the stakeholders in the elicitation sessions to speak on behalf of stakeholders in other time zones.

D.

Request the project sponsor to approve this requirements elicitation approach for this project.

Question # 327

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Question # 328

Most experienced project managers know that:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Question # 329

Which sentence summarizes the salience model?

A.

Classifies stakeholders based on assessment of their power, urgency and legitimacy

B.

A chart in which the Stakeholders are ropiosented as dots according to then level ol power and influence

C.

A three-dimensional model that ran be useful to engage the stakeholder community

D.

Classifies stakeholders and the project toam by the impact of their work in the project

Question # 330

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question # 331

Which statement is related to the project manager ' s sphere of influence at the organizational level?

A.

A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts between their projects.

B.

A project manager facilitates communication between the suppliers and contractors on the project.

C.

A project manager considers the current industry trends and evaluates how they can impact or be applied to the project.

D.

A project manager may inform other professionals about the value of project management.

Question # 332

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Question # 333

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Question # 334

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

Question # 335

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

Question # 336

A project veers off track due to scope creep. The project management team requests an immediate response from the major stakeholders.

What should the project manager do next to avoid project failure?

A.

Adopt a change management approach and delay the project to decide on the direction.

B.

Develop a focus group to face the issue and decide on the appropriate direction.

C.

Request a meeting with top management to state concerns about their ability to handle the situation.

D.

Delay the project by adopting a fast-fail approach, mitigating the risk of having a bigger impact on the company.

Question # 337

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Question # 338

A project manager is in the process of onboarding resources to start work on a project. Which of the following components of a project management plan will the project manager update after completing this activity?

A.

Resource management plan and lessons learned register

B.

Resource management plan and cost baseline

C.

Resource management plan and procurement management plan

D.

Resource management plan and preassignment

Question # 339

What communications management process enables an effective information flow among project stakeholders ' ?

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question # 340

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders ' tolerances.

Question # 341

A project team member is estimating the cost of activity and is checking documentation from previous similar projects. Which estimation method is the project manager using to complete this task?

A.

Bottom-up estimating

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Parametric estimating

Question # 342

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

Question # 343

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

Question # 344

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Question # 345

Which are required to create the schedule management plan?

A.

Scope baseline, work breakdown structure (WBS), estimated costs, and milestone list

B.

Resource management plan, organizational process assets, activity list, and business case

C.

Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project charter, and project management plan

D.

Activity list, project statement of work, project charter, and communications management plan

Question # 346

Projects programs subsidiary portfolios.... objectives refer to?

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives refers to?

A.

Operations Management

B.

Project Management

C.

Program Management

D.

Portfolio Management

Question # 347

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

Question # 348

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Question # 349

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

Question # 350

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

Question # 351

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

A.

0.88

B.

1.12

C.

0.58

D.

1.58

Question # 352

A stakeholder asked the project manager to add an additional feature to the project scope. The project manager is unsure whether the project budget will allow this additional scope.

What component of the project management plan should the project manager reference to determine whether the budget will allow a new feature to be added?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Cost estimate

C.

Risk register

D.

Cost management plan

Question # 353

Which of the following lists of tools and techniques is used when conducting procurements?

A.

Expert judgement, procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation advertising and independent estimates

B.

Budgeting procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising, and seller ' s proposal C. Expert judgement, procurement negotiations bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising, and make-or-buy decisions

C.

Agreements procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising selected seller

Question # 354

A project manager is reviewing some techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to determine if the solution provides the functionality for typical usage by a stakeholder with in-depth business knowledge.

Which evaluation technique is most effective for this situation?

A.

Day-in-the-life testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Integration testing

Question # 355

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Question # 356

What organizational process asset (OPA) might impact a project ' s outcome?

A.

Processes, polices, and procedures

B.

Legal restrictions

C.

Infrastructure, resource availability. and employee capability

D.

Financial considerations

Question # 357

The table represents the possible durations of a specific project task.

Using the three-point estimating technique what is the expected number of days it should take to complete the task?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

6

Question # 358

A project manager has been assigned to a project with a short duration and given funding to form a small team. The project manager needs to choose team members based on their availability and other aspects.

What other features should the project manager consider?

A.

Skill set, expertise, and training readiness

B.

Past project performance, wage rate, and network base

C.

Collaborative skills, quality focus, and political connections

D.

Priorities, resource demand, and expertise

Question # 359

What is the key benefit of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Ensures that the informational needs of the project and its stakeholders are met through implementation and the development of artifacts

B.

Ensures that the project includes all the work required and only the work required—to complete the project successfully

C.

Increases the probability and/or impact of positive risks, and decreases the probability and/or Impact of negative risks or issues

D.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves

Question # 360

An organization that is being interviewed online has recently experienced a severe network outage. Consequently, the organization has stated that it is required to have a working data network.

Which classification should be assigned to data network requirements?

A.

Customer requirement

B.

Transition requirement

C.

Solution requirement

D.

Business requirement

Question # 361

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Question # 362

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Question # 363

Two members of the team are having a conflict..............or partially resolve the problem

Two members of the team are having a conflict. The project manager decides that, in this case, the best solution is to bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties, in order to temporarily or partially resolve the problem.

Which technique should the project manager use?

A.

Withdraw/Avoid

B.

Smooth/Accommodate

C.

Compromise/Reconcile

D.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

Question # 364

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Question # 365

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Question # 366

What is the primary benefit of the Manage Quality process?

A.

Increases the probability of meeting quality objectives

B.

Enhances the performance of the product berg created

C.

Defines quality roles and responsibilities

D.

Ensures that the project is completed as originally planned

Question # 367

An adaptive team is working on a mobile banking application. The team conducted their sprint demo, which included 12 stories that were completed. This was the last sprint before the product was to be launched in the beta phase. One of the attendees from marketing noticed that a requested enhancement to share on social media was still in the product backlog.

Why was the product still determined to be ready for delivery?

A.

The development team ran out of time and did not pull the social media story from the backlog.

B.

The development team completed all of the stories identified by the product owner as having the highest customer value.

C.

The sprint demo went smoothly and the team did not find any open issues.

D.

The social media story is a marketing priority and less important than other priorities.

Question # 368

A project manager is managing a small project that has a time constraint. What should the project manager do to ensure the delivery is on time?

A.

Expand the scope of the project.

B.

Schedule the tasks in sequence.

C.

Increase quality review cycles.

D.

Schedule the tasks in parallel.

Question # 369

According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:

A.

understand the high-level overview of the organization

B.

tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C.

work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery

D.

guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals

Question # 370

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

Question # 371

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question # 372

In which of the risk management processes is the processes is the project charter used as an input?

A.

Palm Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Question # 373

How does a requirements traceability matrix help to determine whether a product is ready for delivery?

A.

It captures assigned tasks and their estimated durations.

B.

It confirms the completion of all stories in the backlog.

C.

It assesses the quality of test cases and expected results.

D.

It tracks links between the approved requirements and each work product.

Question # 374

The handoff of the first version of a software application to the operational team has taken a month longer than anticipated. How could this extended transition time have been avoided?

A.

If the operation team members were trained externally

B.

If the transition process was agreed upon during the build

C.

If the end-user documentation was more thorough

D.

If the operations manager was invited to all sprint reviews

Question # 375

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

Question # 376

What is the discipline that focuses on the interdependences between projects to determine the optimal approach for managing them?

A.

Project Management

B.

Program Management

C.

Portfolio Management

D.

Operations Management

Question # 377

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question # 378

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

Question # 379

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

Question # 380

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

Question # 381

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

Question # 382

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Question # 383

It you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

Question # 384

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Question # 385

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Question # 386

The project manager is leading a construction project that has been ongoing for eight years. The project manager needs to calculate the correct static payback period and consults the cash flow statement of the construction project investment.

What equation should the project manager use?

A.

Static payback period = 6 + 1300 / 500 = 6.6

B.

Static payback period = 3 + 1200 / 500 = 5.4

C.

Static payback period = 5 + 700 / 500 = 5.4

D.

Static payback period = 5 + 200 / 500 = 5.4

Question # 387

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

A.

Resource calendar.

B.

Project organization chart.

C.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

Question # 388

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

Question # 389

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

Question # 390

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question # 391

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

Question # 392

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Question # 393

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Question # 394

In the Control Quality process, which tools and techniques can be applied to verify deliverable?

A.

Statistical sampling, inspection, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned register, control charts, and product evaluation

C.

Checklists, retrospective documents, and approved change requests

D.

Black box tests, questionnaires and surveys, and lessons learned register

Question # 395

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Question # 396

An adaptive project manager is handling a five-sprint cycle to deliver a minimum viable product (MVP). After the third sprint, the productivity of the team drops to 30% due to a change in the way the team operates.

Which of the following changes has caused this loss in productivity?

A.

Two of the team members have been working in silos using different methods to validate their performance.

B.

The team velocity was measured in the third sprint since the tool to measure velocity was introduced only in the third sprint.

C.

The team picked up technical debt items in the third sprint as technical debt can only be picked up after completing two sprints.

D.

Two of the team members were asked to do multitasking, which they did not do in the previous two sprints.

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