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  • Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
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CAPM Practice Exam Questions with Answers Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification

Question # 6

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

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Question # 7

Which component of the project management plan should be updated if a change occurs?

A.

Project charter

B.

Project baseline

C.

Assumption log

D.

Schedule forecast

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Question # 8

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?

A.

Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process

B.

Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules

C.

Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

D.

Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

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Question # 9

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

CAPM question answer

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Question # 10

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

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Question # 11

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Question # 12

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Collaborate/problem solve

C.

Withdraw/avoid

D.

Force/direct

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Question # 13

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 14

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 15

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 16

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

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Question # 17

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 18

A business analyst is working on a project that follows an adaptive life cycle. Due to budgetary constraints, the sponsor asks the team to focus on critical requirements. What should the business analyst do?

A.

Prioritize requirements.

B.

Document requirements.

C.

Trace requirements.

D.

Validate requirements.

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Question # 19

Which sentence summarizes the salience model?

A.

Classifies stakeholders based on assessment ol Iheir power, urgency and legitimacy

B.

A chart in which the Stakeholders are ropiosented as dots according to then level ol power and influence

C.

A three-dimensional model that ran be useful to engage the stakeholder community

D.

Classifies stakeholders and the project toam by the impact of their work in the project

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Question # 20

Which of these is true of project integration management?

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

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Question # 21

Match each tool or technique with its corresponding Project Cost Management process.

CAPM question answer

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Question # 22

Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A.

Project scope statement and accepted deliverables

B.

Scope baseline and project documents update

C.

Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors

D.

Scope baseline and work performance information

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Question # 23

On which type of project.... only after the final iteration?

On wtiich type of project lite cycle is ihe deliverable produced trough a series of ileralrons considering thai the deliverable ts completed only after the Imal iteration?

A.

Incremental life cycle

B.

Predictive life cycle

C.

Iterative life cycle

D.

Adaptive life cycle

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Question # 24

A business manager wants to start a project to launch a new product. How should the manager initiate the project?

A.

Ask a small team to produce a prototype of the product before full-scale development.

B.

Assign a project manager to the project and ask them to document the project scope.

C.

Prepare a detailed business case to document project objectives and success criteria.

D.

Discuss the project requirements with the team for alternative products in the market.

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Question # 25

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

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Question # 26

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

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Question # 27

Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?

A.

Simple

B.

Multi-divisional

C.

Functional

D.

Project-oriented

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Question # 28

What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

A.

Expert judgment and data gathering

B.

Networking and storytelling

C.

Data analysis and decision making

D.

Prototypes and product analysis

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Question # 29

It’s time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Automated testing tools

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Question # 30

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 31

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Question # 32

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

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Question # 33

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

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Question # 34

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Question # 35

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Question # 36

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

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Question # 37

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

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Question # 38

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Question # 39

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Question # 40

What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

B.

Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational process assets

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Question # 41

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

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Question # 42

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

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Question # 43

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

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Question # 44

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Question # 45

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Question # 46

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Question # 47

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Question # 48

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

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Question # 49

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 50

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

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Question # 51

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Question # 52

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

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Question # 53

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Question # 54

Organizations perceive risks as:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Question # 55

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Question # 56

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 57

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Question # 58

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Question # 59

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

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Question # 60

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Question # 61

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

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Question # 62

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Question # 63

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Question # 64

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

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Question # 65

The diagram below is an example of a:

CAPM question answer

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Question # 66

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Question # 67

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Question # 68

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

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Question # 69

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Question # 70

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

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Question # 71

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

CAPM question answer

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

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Question # 72

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

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Question # 73

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Question # 74

When project requirements are documented in user stones then prioritized and refined just prior to construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?

A.

Iterative scheduling with backlog

B.

On-demand scheduling

C.

Life cycle scheduling with backlog

D.

Defining Iterative activities

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Question # 75

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

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Question # 76

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

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Question # 77

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Question # 78

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Question # 79

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

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Question # 80

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Question # 81

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Question # 82

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

A.

Hybrid methodologies

B.

Risk register updates

C.

Outsourced project resources

D.

Reliance on lessons learned documents

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Question # 83

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Process

C.

Project

D.

Program

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Question # 84

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 85

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

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Question # 86

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

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Question # 87

What is the role of project management in terms of organizational strategy?

A.

Project management aligns initiatives, prioritizes work, and provides resources.

B.

Project management provides the strategic vision (or an organization lo achieve its goals.

C.

Project management enables the achievement of organizational goals and objectives.

D.

Project management harmonizes components and controls interdependencies to realize specific benefits.

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Question # 88

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Question # 89

When is a project finished?

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

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Question # 90

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Question # 91

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

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Question # 92

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 93

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

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Question # 94

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

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Question # 95

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

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Question # 96

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

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Question # 97

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

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Question # 98

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

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Question # 99

A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?

A.

Informal

B.

Unofficial

C.

Formal

D.

Hierarchical

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Question # 100

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

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Question # 101

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 102

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

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Question # 103

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

A.

It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B.

It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.

C.

It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.

D.

It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

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Question # 104

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

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Question # 105

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

A.

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.

B.

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.

C.

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.

D.

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.

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Question # 106

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 107

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Question # 108

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

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Question # 109

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Question # 110

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

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Question # 111

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

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Question # 112

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

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Question # 113

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

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Question # 114

A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

A.

Identify Stakeholders

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Monitor Slakeholder Engagement

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Question # 115

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Question # 116

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

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Question # 117

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Question # 118

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Control Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Develop Team

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Question # 119

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

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Question # 120

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Question # 121

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Question # 122

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Question # 123

When is a Salience Model used?

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

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Question # 124

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 125

Which tools and techniques will a project manager use to develop a project charter?

A.

Project manager experience, expert judgment, scope statement, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned database. Interpersonal and team skills, cost baseline, and meetings

C.

Expert judgment, data gathering. scope statement, schedule baseline, and meetings

D.

Expert judgment, data gathering. interpersonal and team skills, and meetings

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Question # 126

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

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Question # 127

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Question # 128

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 129

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

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Question # 130

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Question # 131

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

A.

Suppliers

B.

Customers

C.

Governing bodies

D.

Project team

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Question # 132

What is the project manager's responsibility in Project Integration Management?

A.

Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan

B.

Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team

C.

Combining the results in all other knowledge areas, and overseeing the project as a whole

D.

Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication

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Question # 133

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

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Question # 134

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

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Question # 135

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Question # 136

At the beginning of an iteration, the team will work to determine how many of the highest-priority items on the backlog list can be delivered within the next iteration. Which of the following activities is done first?

A.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

B.

Create Scope Baseline

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Define Scope

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Question # 137

What method for categorizing stakeholders is suitable for small projects with simple relationships among stakeholders'?

A.

Prioritization

B.

Directions of influence

C.

Salience model

D.

Power/influence grid

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Question # 138

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Question # 139

Which of the following sets are inputs to the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Project charter and requirements documentation

B.

Project charter and business documents

C.

Project charter and stakeholder requirements

D.

Business documents and requirements traceability matrix

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Question # 140

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

A.

Product

B.

Cost-benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

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Question # 141

Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?

A.

The change control board is responsible for presenting the change for approval.

B.

The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule.

C.

The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration management systems.

D.

The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project.

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Question # 142

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A.

negotiation

B.

organizational theory

C.

meeting

D.

networking

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Question # 143

A sponsor asks a project manager to provide a project's expected total costs based on its progress. What formula should the project manager use to determine this?

A.

Earned value (EV) / actual cost (AC)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC) - AC

C.

Budget at completion (BAC) / cost performance index (CPI)

D.

EV - planned value (PV)

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Question # 144

Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?

A.

Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

B.

Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Control Quality and Control Costs

D.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management

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Question # 145

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 146

A company must implement sales software because it is opening a new branch in a foreign market. Although this software is used in every domestic branch, multiple changes are expected during the implementation because It is a foreign location.

Which type of life cycle would the project manager use in this case?

A.

Predictive life cycle

B.

Waterfall life cycle

C.

Hybrid life cycle

D.

Product life cycle

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Question # 147

The project manager is creating the communications management plan Which group of inputs Is required to begin?

A.

Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register

B.

Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Project charter, project management plan, and project documents

D.

Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan

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Question # 148

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

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Question # 149

During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?

A.

Change request

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Lessons learned

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Question # 150

A team was hired to develop a next generation drone. The team created a prototype and sent it to the customer for testing. The feedback collected was used to refine the requirements. What technique is the team using?

A.

Early requirements gathering

B.

Feedback analysis

C.

Progressive elaboration

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 151

Project reporting is a tool that is most closely associated with which process?

A.

Communicate Plan

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Report Performance

D.

Control Communications

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Question # 152

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

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Question # 153

When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process.

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Define Scope

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 154

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?

A.

Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer's satisfaction.

B.

Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.

C.

Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.

D.

Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

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Question # 155

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

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Question # 156

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

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Question # 157

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

Full Access
Question # 158

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

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Question # 159

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

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Question # 160

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

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Question # 161

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

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Question # 162

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

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Question # 163

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Question # 164

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

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Question # 165

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

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Question # 166

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Full Access
Question # 167

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Question # 168

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 169

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

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Question # 170

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 171

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

Full Access
Question # 172

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Full Access
Question # 173

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 174

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 175

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

Full Access
Question # 176

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Full Access
Question # 177

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Full Access
Question # 178

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

Full Access
Question # 179

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 180

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 181

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

Full Access
Question # 182

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

A.

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.

The scope management plan.

C.

Work performance reports.

D.

Change requests.

Full Access
Question # 183

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 184

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

Full Access
Question # 185

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

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Question # 186

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

Full Access
Question # 187

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

Full Access
Question # 188

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

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Question # 189

What does expert judgment provide as an input to the resource management plan?

A.

Geographic distribution of facilities and resources

B.

Physical resource management policies and procedures

C.

Estimated lead times based on lessons learned

D.

Templates for the resource management plan

Full Access
Question # 190

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Question # 191

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

Full Access
Question # 192

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM question answer

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

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Question # 193

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

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Question # 194

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

Full Access
Question # 195

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

Full Access
Question # 196

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

Full Access
Question # 197

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Full Access
Question # 198

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

Full Access
Question # 199

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

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Question # 200

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 201

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

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Question # 202

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

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Question # 203

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

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Question # 204

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

Full Access
Question # 205

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Efficient

B.

Effective

C.

Push

D.

Pull

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Question # 206

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

Full Access
Question # 207

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

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Question # 208

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Full Access
Question # 209

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Full Access
Question # 210

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Full Access
Question # 211

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 212

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Question # 213

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Question # 214

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

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Question # 215

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 216

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

Full Access
Question # 217

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Full Access
Question # 218

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

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Question # 219

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

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Question # 220

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

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Question # 221

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 222

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

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Question # 223

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

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Question # 224

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

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Question # 225

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

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Question # 226

A regression line is used to estimate:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

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Question # 227

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

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Question # 228

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

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Question # 229

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Question # 230

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Question # 231

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Question # 232

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

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Question # 233

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

Full Access
Question # 234

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Question # 235

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

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Question # 236

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 237

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Question # 238

What is a tool to improve team performance?

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

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Question # 239

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Question # 240

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 241

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

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Question # 242

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

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Question # 243

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

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Question # 244

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

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Question # 245

A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?

A.

Initiating Process Group

B.

Planning Process Group

C.

Executing Process Group

D.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

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Question # 246

A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion. Which communication method is described?

A.

Push communication

B.

Pull communication

C.

Interactive communication

D.

Stakeholder communication

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Question # 247

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

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Question # 248

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

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Question # 249

Project management processes ensure the:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

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Question # 250

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

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Question # 251

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Question # 252

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

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Question # 253

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

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Question # 254

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

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Question # 255

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A.

Cyclic

B.

Progressive

C.

Repetitive

D.

Iterative

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Question # 256

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 257

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

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Question # 258

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

Full Access
Question # 259

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

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Question # 260

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

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Question # 261

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 262

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

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Question # 263

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Full Access
Question # 264

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Full Access
Question # 265

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

Full Access
Question # 266

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

Full Access
Question # 267

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

Full Access
Question # 268

Match the influence with its corresponding category of influence.

CAPM question answer

Full Access
Question # 269

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

Full Access
Question # 270

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

Full Access
Question # 271

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Qualify Management

D.

Project Risk Management

Full Access
Question # 272

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

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Question # 273

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

Full Access
Question # 274

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

Full Access
Question # 275

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Full Access
Question # 276

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Full Access
Question # 277

Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Affinity diagram

C.

Tree diagram

D.

Activity network diagram

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Question # 278

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Full Access
Question # 279

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

Full Access
Question # 280

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Full Access
Question # 281

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Question # 282

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

Full Access
Question # 283

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Question # 284

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

Full Access
Question # 285

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Full Access
Question # 286

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

Full Access
Question # 287

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Full Access
Question # 288

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Full Access
Question # 289

Which characteristic defines the Delphi technique of group decision-making?

A.

The participants must use their expertise to determine the best option.

B.

The decision is based on eliminating the options that are too expensive.

C.

The decision is based on a predefined algorithm and the highest score.

D.

The participants must create a list of options, rank them, and then vote.

Full Access
Question # 290

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Full Access
Question # 291

When a dynamic systems development method (DSDM) practitioner receives a new high-priority feature request, what should the practitioner do first?

A.

Develop the feature as a parallel work package.

B.

Shorten the current work period and begin the new work.

C.

Ask a dedicated team member to complete it immediately.

D.

Prioritize it in the requirements list for the next work period.

Full Access
Question # 292

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

Full Access
Question # 293

Which process uses expert judgment to manage project resources?

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Both A and B

Full Access
Question # 294

Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control process?

A.

Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and provedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

B.

Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

C.

Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same

D.

Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group

Full Access
Question # 295

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

Full Access
Question # 296

The activity tailoring is necessary because:

A.

the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide, this is required for all projects

B.

each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide

C.

the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects

D.

each project is unique, and the project team must plain how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide

Full Access
Question # 297

What is the main purpose of Project Quality Management?

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

Full Access
Question # 298

In the Control Quality process, which tools and techniques techniques can be applied to verify deliverable?

A.

Statistical sampling, inspection, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned register, control charts, and product evaluation

C.

Checklists, retrospective documents, and approved change requests

D.

Black box tests, questionnaires and surveys, and lessons learned register

Full Access
Question # 299

What characteristic of servant leadership supports resource management in an agile environment?

A.

Lecturing

B.

Construing

C.

Measuring

D.

Coaching

Full Access
Question # 300

A software development team is pulling work from its backlog to be performed immediately as they become available. What emerging practice for project scheduling is the team using?

A.

Iterative

B.

On-demand

C.

Interactive

D.

Quality

Full Access
Question # 301

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?

A.

Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and ream skills

B.

Data analysis, audits, and decision making

C.

Expert judgement, audits, and decision making

D.

Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

Full Access
Question # 302

A project team for a marketing company is acquiring leaflets and materials from competitors. The team is working on a project to release new products, and they are trying to get ideas on how to most efficiently market these new products.

Which activity is the project team conducting?

A.

Project execution

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Project initiation

Full Access
Question # 303

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Full Access
Question # 304

The project manager and project team are developing approximations of the cost of resources needed to complete the project work. On which process are they working?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Full Access
Question # 305

When presenting a product roadmap to an adaptive team, which form of communication is the most appropriate?

A.

Requirements matrix

B.

Presentation slides

C.

Story map

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 306

A new project manager is assigned to a high-visibility project. The project manager starts with the requirements analysis process. Who should the project manager onboard to assist with the requirements traceability matrix or analysis?

A.

Systems analyst

B.

Business analyst

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Technical consultant

Full Access
Question # 307

Which of the following is provided by the critical path method?

A.

Schedule float

B.

Earned value (EV)

C.

Total float

D.

Schedule value

Full Access
Question # 308

For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Expected monetary value analysis

D.

Decision tree analysis

Full Access
Question # 309

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Full Access
Question # 310

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

Full Access
Question # 311

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Full Access
Question # 312

What organizational process asset (OPA) might impact a project's outcome?

A.

Processes, polices, and procedures

B.

Legal restrictions

C.

Infrastructure, resource availability. and employee capability

D.

Financial considerations

Full Access
Question # 313

Which document can help a project manager to leverage historical project information?

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Schedule baseline

C.

Work performance data

D.

Deliverable acceptance forms

Full Access
Question # 314

A project manager is reviewing the change requests, deliverables, and the project plan in Which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Closes Project or Phase

D.

Perform itegrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 315

What can a project manager review to understand the status of a project?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) status

B.

Quality and technical performance measures

C.

Cost and scope baselines

D.

Business case completeness

Full Access
Question # 316

What can a requirements traceability matrix enable regardless of the project methodology being used?

A.

Creation of a solid business case

B.

Investigation of the viability of a new product

C.

Identification of missing and superfluous requirements

D.

Evaluation of solution and system performance

Full Access
Question # 317

A product owner asked for a change in one of the requirements during the elicitation phase. What should the business analyst do?

A.

Provide the information to the product manager for approval.

B.

Provide the information to the project manager to seek approval or rejection.

C.

Reject the change as the project scope has already been defined.

D.

Accept the modification and update the requirements traceability matrix.

Full Access
Question # 318

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

Full Access
Question # 319

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Three-point estimating

Full Access
Question # 320

A key project team member complains about being left out of the communication loop. In order to ensure that each key member is involved, who should review the business analysis communications management plan?

A.

Business analyst, project manager, and sponsor

B.

Business analyst, project manager, and stakeholders

C.

Business analyst and project manager

D.

Only the business analyst

Full Access
Question # 321

During a kickoff meeting, the project sponsor presents a very ambitious project. Unfortunately, the stakeholders are not very excited as the work associated with the new project seems inefficient.

What could be missing from the business case?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Approval from the stakeholders

C.

Feasibility study of the solution

D.

Root cause analysis of the problem

Full Access
Question # 322

Match the life cycle type to when its requirements are defined.

CAPM question answer

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Question # 323

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM question answer

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Full Access
Question # 324

Which item is a cost of conformance?

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

Full Access
Question # 325

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

Full Access
Question # 326

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

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Question # 327

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

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Question # 328

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

CAPM question answer

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

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Question # 329

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

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Question # 330

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM question answer

What is the critical path for the project?

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

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Question # 331

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

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Question # 332

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

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Question # 333

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

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Question # 334

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

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Question # 335

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM question answer

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

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Question # 336

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Policies and procedures

C.

Project files from previous projects

D.

Lessons learned from previous projects

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Question # 337

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 338

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Question # 339

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 340

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

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Question # 341

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Question # 342

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Question # 343

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

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Question # 344

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 345

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

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Question # 346

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

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Question # 347

What type of change requires the submission of a change request?

A.

Changes in assigned resources

B.

Changes in a technical solution

C.

Changes in status reporting

D.

Changes in the project's scope

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Question # 348

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

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Question # 349

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

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Question # 350

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Question # 351

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

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Question # 352

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

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Question # 353

A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?

A.

The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.

B.

Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.

C.

The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.

D.

Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.

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Question # 354

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

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Question # 355

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

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Question # 356

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM question answer

The total float for the project is how many days?

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

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Question # 357

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

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Question # 358

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM question answer

The total float for the project is how many days?

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

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Question # 359

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Question # 360

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Question # 361

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Question # 362

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Question # 363

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Question # 364

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 365

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

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Question # 366

A program consists of four agile teams. Each team has a separate daily standup. Later each day, there is another standup meeting attended by one member from each team.

Which Scrum technique is this?

A.

Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe®)

B.

Disciplined Agile® (DA™)

C.

Large Scale Scrum (LeSS)

D.

Scrum of Scrums

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Question # 367

At what stages of project should the identify Stakeholder process be performed?

A.

When beginning each phase of the project

B.

At the beginning of the project only

C.

Only when the project manager is concerned about stakeholder satisfaction

D.

When the project charter is produced, at the beginning of each phase, and when significant changes occur

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Question # 368

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float.

What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

A.

50-75%

B.

25-50%

C.

75-100%

D.

0-25%

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Question # 369

Construction of a building has stopped due to a supplier's failure to deliver concrete. The project schedule is behind by three months.

What should the project manager do to overcome this problem and put the project back on track?

A.

Follow the risk response plan and allocate resources, if needed, to overcome the issue.

B.

Consult the legal department and subject matter experts (SMEs) regarding what to do to avoid failure.

C.

Extend the time of product delivery and use management reserve to cover any losses.

D.

Accept any penalties that might occur and continue working as initially planned.

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Question # 370

What is the equation to calculate cost variance (CV)?

A.

CV = EV / BAC

B.

CV = EV - AC

C.

CV = EV - BAC

D.

CV = EV / AC

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Question # 371

Drag the five stages of team development on the left onto the blocks on the right to place them in sequential order.

CAPM question answer

Full Access
Question # 372

A company is moving from a predictive to an adaptive approach. How should the company now translate the already planned work breakdown structure (WBS) to adaptive iterations?

A.

Create a product backlog with the information depicted in the WBS and prioritize the newly developed user stories into iterations.

B.

Accept this limitation and perform accordingly since the WBS can only be used in Scrum iterations.

C.

Consider reforming the structure of the company first as it is difficult for a company to transition from predictive to adaptive methods.

D.

Save the WBS in the historical data as the information can only be used for educational purposes and not as inputs for creating user stories.

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Question # 373

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager. What should the project manager do to address this issue?

A.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

B.

Apply emotional intelligence (EI) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team's issues.

C.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

D.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

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Question # 374

How does planning for prevention costs assist in meeting stakeholder needs and expectations, while still providing required performance and reliability?

A.

It details product or service failures experienced by the customer

B.

It clarifies the costs associated with assessing the quality of the product or service

C.

It accounts for costs used to avoid poor quality in the product or service

D.

It communicates product or service failures discovered by the project team

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Question # 375

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

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Question # 376

A project manager is performing a specific process and has..........is being referred to?

A project manager is performing a specific process and has a list of accepted deliverables One of the stakeholders points out that they have just reviewed the verified deliverables, and come up with the list of accepted deliverables Which process is being referred to?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Validate Scope

C.

Validate Quality

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 377

Company A’s accountant sends notification about a change in the company’s tax classification.

What would a project have to be initiated?

A.

To change business and technological strategies

B.

To improve processes and services

C.

To meet regulatory and legal requirements

D.

To satisfy stakeholder requests

Full Access
Question # 378

In which project risk management process is the data analysis technique not used?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Implement Risk Response

C.

Monitor Risks

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 379

A project team is reviewing project performance. During the execution phase, the project team discovers that there is an off-the-shelf (OTS) product, which could reduce the timeline for development.

What should the project manager do next?

A.

Update the project management plan.

B.

Add the discovery to the assumptions.

C.

Evaluate the risk with the project team.

D.

Conduct an opportunity analysis with the team.

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Question # 380

A project's business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won't have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

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Question # 381

How should the project manager obtain the maximum engagement from stakeholders that have recently changed to become more connected to social media?

A.

Adopt co-creation, sharing responsibilities with stakeholders

B.

Adopt participation of stakeholders in main meetings, listening to their opinion.

C.

Adopt social media tools, improving communication with stakeholders

D.

Adopt involvement of stakeholders in lessons learned sessions, sharing experiences with them

Full Access
Question # 382

What is an example of an emerging trend in procurement management?

A.

Online technology enable projects to postpone ordering long lead items until the items are needed

B.

Online technologies allow a project's progress to be viewed by all stakeholders to build better relations

C.

Online procurement tools provide buyers with multiple sources to advertise to sellers.

D.

Online procurement tools provide sellers with designated sources for procurement documents and the resources to complete them.

Full Access
Question # 383

How is program success measured?

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

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Question # 384

A new business analyst has joined the team in the middle of a project and the requirements traceability matrix has been updated. What should the business analyst do next?

A.

Review the project management plan.

B.

Share the requirements traceability matrix the same way it was shared previously.

C.

Consult the business analysis communications management plan.

D.

Ask the project manager to share the updated requirements traceability matrix at the next meeting.

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Question # 385

Typical outcomes of a project include:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

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Question # 386

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

Full Access
Question # 387

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

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Question # 388

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 389

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

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Question # 390

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Question # 391

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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