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  • Exam Name: Project Management Professional v5
  • Last Update: May 25, 2025
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PMI-001 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Project Management Professional v5 Certification

Question # 6

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

Full Access
Question # 7

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

Full Access
Question # 8

Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?

A.

Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure

B.

Activity list and Arrow Diagram

C.

Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets

D.

Project Management Plan and Resource Availability

Full Access
Question # 9

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

Full Access
Question # 10

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

Full Access
Question # 11

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

Full Access
Question # 12

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Full Access
Question # 13

An input to the Identify Risks process is the:

A.

Risk register.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Communications management plan.

D.

Risk management plan.

Full Access
Question # 14

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Full Access
Question # 15

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 16

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Question # 17

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

A.

Critical path

B.

Rolling Wave

C.

PDM

D.

Para metric

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Question # 18

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

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Question # 19

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

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Question # 20

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Full Access
Question # 21

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

A.

Product

B.

Cost-benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

Full Access
Question # 22

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

A.

Expert Judgment

B.

Project Management Methodology

C.

Project Management Information

D.

Project Selection Methods

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Question # 23

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

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Question # 24

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

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Question # 25

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 26

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Full Access
Question # 27

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

Full Access
Question # 28

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Full Access
Question # 29

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

Full Access
Question # 30

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

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Question # 31

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

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Question # 32

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

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Question # 33

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

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Question # 34

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Question # 35

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Full Access
Question # 36

In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?

A.

When the project charter is signed

B.

When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project

C.

When the project manager is appointed

D.

When the necessary finance or funding is obtained

Full Access
Question # 37

Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Define Activities

D.

Activity Attributes

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Question # 38

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

A.

Organizational Structure

B.

Organizational Process Assets

C.

Organizational Matrix

D.

Organizational Breakdown Structures

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Question # 39

Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?

A.

Project manager information systems

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Change control meetings

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 40

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

Full Access
Question # 41

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

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Question # 42

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Full Access
Question # 43

The specific technique for identifying a problem, discovering the causes that lead to it, and developing preventive actions is:

A.

Inspection

B.

Use of quality checklists

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Use of matrix diagrams

Full Access
Question # 44

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Full Access
Question # 45

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

Full Access
Question # 46

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

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Question # 47

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

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Question # 48

Organizations perceive risks as:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Full Access
Question # 49

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

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Question # 50

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

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Question # 51

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

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Question # 52

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

Full Access
Question # 53

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A.

negotiation

B.

organizational theory

C.

meeting

D.

networking

Full Access
Question # 54

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 55

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

Full Access
Question # 56

What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

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Question # 57

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B.

Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment

C.

Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

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Question # 58

The product scope description is used to:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

Full Access
Question # 59

Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project scope statement

Full Access
Question # 60

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

Full Access
Question # 61

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

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Question # 62

Create WBS is part of which of the following Knowledge Areas?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Cost Management

Full Access
Question # 63

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Full Access
Question # 64

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

Full Access
Question # 65

The organizational process assets that are of particular importance to Plan Communications are:

A.

Formal plans and procedures

B.

Lessons learned and historical information

C.

Guidelines and knowledge bases

D.

Stakeholder positions and their influence

Full Access
Question # 66

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

Full Access
Question # 67

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

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Question # 68

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Full Access
Question # 69

Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

Full Access
Question # 70

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Full Access
Question # 71

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

Full Access
Question # 72

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Full Access
Question # 73

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Full Access
Question # 74

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Full Access
Question # 75

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

Full Access
Question # 76

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

A.

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.

Contain the standard activity list.

C.

Document and support the project change requests.

D.

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Full Access
Question # 77

Which items are components of a project management plan?

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Full Access
Question # 78

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Full Access
Question # 79

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

Full Access
Question # 80

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

Full Access
Question # 81

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Full Access
Question # 82

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?

A.

Acquisitions

B.

Organizational theories

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Virtual teams

Full Access
Question # 83

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Full Access
Question # 84

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

Full Access
Question # 85

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Full Access
Question # 86

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Full Access
Question # 87

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

Full Access
Question # 88

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Full Access
Question # 89

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Full Access
Question # 90

Stakeholder management strategy is an output of:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Distribute Information.

C.

Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Full Access
Question # 91

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

Full Access
Question # 92

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Full Access
Question # 93

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Full Access
Question # 94

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

Full Access
Question # 95

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

Full Access
Question # 96

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Full Access
Question # 97

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

Full Access
Question # 98

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Full Access
Question # 99

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Full Access
Question # 100

What is Project Portfolio Management?

A.

Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.

C.

Management of all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Full Access
Question # 101

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Full Access
Question # 102

A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

Full Access
Question # 103

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

Full Access
Question # 104

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

Full Access
Question # 105

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Full Access
Question # 106

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

Full Access
Question # 107

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Full Access
Question # 108

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?

A.

Marketplace conditions and commercial databases

B.

Marketplace conditions and company structure

C.

Commercial databases and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market place conditions

Full Access
Question # 109

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?

A.

Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B.

Force of nature, such as a flood

C.

Risk threshold target

D.

Crashing, front loading, or fast tracking

Full Access
Question # 110

Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?

A.

External

B.

Discretionary

C.

Mandatory

D.

Internal

Full Access
Question # 111

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Full Access
Question # 112

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

Full Access
Question # 113

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

Full Access
Question # 114

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Full Access
Question # 115

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

Full Access
Question # 116

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

Full Access
Question # 117

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Full Access
Question # 118

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Full Access
Question # 119

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Full Access
Question # 120

What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Full Access
Question # 121

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Full Access
Question # 122

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 123

Which of the following tools and techniques are utilized in the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Product analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Inspection

Full Access
Question # 124

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Full Access
Question # 125

What do composite organizations involve?

A.

Functional and project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

Full Access
Question # 126

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Full Access
Question # 127

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Full Access
Question # 128

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Full Access
Question # 129

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

Full Access
Question # 130

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

Full Access
Question # 131

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

Full Access
Question # 132

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

Full Access
Question # 133

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

Full Access
Question # 134

During which process would you obtain stakeholders’ formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A.

Quality control

B.

Scope verification

C.

Scope control

D.

Close project

Full Access
Question # 135

When is a project finished?

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

Full Access
Question # 136

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

Full Access
Question # 137

When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?

A.

When the project is initiated

B.

As an output of the scope verification process

C.

When the project is closing

D.

In the contract closure process

Full Access
Question # 138

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Full Access
Question # 139

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

Full Access
Question # 140

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

Full Access
Question # 141

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

Full Access
Question # 142

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Full Access
Question # 143

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Full Access
Question # 144

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Full Access
Question # 145

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

Full Access
Question # 146

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Full Access
Question # 147

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Full Access
Question # 148

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

Full Access
Question # 149

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Full Access
Question # 150

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Full Access
Question # 151

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

Full Access
Question # 152

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Full Access
Question # 153

Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?

A.

Procurement package

B.

Negotiated settlements

C.

Procurement file

D.

Procurement management plan

Full Access
Question # 154

Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

A.

Develop preliminary project scope statement

B.

Close Project or Phase

C.

Develop project charter

D.

Create WBS

Full Access
Question # 155

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Process

C.

Project

D.

Program

Full Access
Question # 156

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Full Access
Question # 157

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

Full Access
Question # 158

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Full Access
Question # 159

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

Full Access
Question # 160

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

Full Access
Question # 161

Which of the following is a measure of the value of work completed compared to the actual cost or progress made on the project?

A.

Schedule performance index (SPI)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Cost variance (CV)

D.

Planned value (PV)

Full Access
Question # 162

The end point of a project phase can be referred to as:

A.

project failure

B.

closing process

C.

stage gate

D.

lifecycle

Full Access
Question # 163

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Full Access
Question # 164

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Full Access
Question # 165

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

Full Access
Question # 166

Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

Full Access
Question # 167

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Full Access
Question # 168

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

Full Access
Question # 169

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

Full Access
Question # 170

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

Full Access
Question # 171

Schedule milestones and a predefined budget are examples of:

A.

Project constraints.

B.

Requirements documentation.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Activity cost estimates.

Full Access
Question # 172

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Full Access
Question # 173

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

Full Access
Question # 174

The cost performance baseline is typically displayed in the form of:

A.

An S-curve.

B.

A normal curve.

C.

A U-curve.

D.

A positive slope line.

Full Access
Question # 175

The chart below is an example of a:

PMI-001 question answer

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

Full Access
Question # 176

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

A.

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.

The scope management plan.

C.

Work performance reports.

D.

Change requests.

Full Access
Question # 177

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Full Access
Question # 178

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Full Access
Question # 179

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

Full Access
Question # 180

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

Full Access
Question # 181

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

Full Access
Question # 182

Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?

A.

Project management

B.

Program management

C.

Portfolio management

D.

Relationship management

Full Access
Question # 183

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Cost forecasting

C.

Cost variance

D.

Cost budgeting

Full Access
Question # 184

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

Full Access
Question # 185

Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A.

Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

B.

Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating

C.

Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts

D.

Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints

Full Access
Question # 186

Success is measured by benefits realization for a:

A.

strategic plan

B.

project

C.

portfolio

D.

program

Full Access
Question # 187

Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

A.

Level of control.

B.

Communication channels.

C.

Scope.

D.

Strategic alignment.

Full Access
Question # 188

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

Full Access
Question # 189

The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

Full Access
Question # 190

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Full Access
Question # 191

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Full Access
Question # 192

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Full Access
Question # 193

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

Full Access
Question # 194

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

Full Access
Question # 195

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

PMI-001 question answer

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Full Access
Question # 196

Which item is a cost of conformance?

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

Full Access
Question # 197

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

Full Access
Question # 198

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Full Access
Question # 199

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

A.

Performance Measure

B.

Baseline Schedule

C.

Schedule Comparison

D.

Variance Analysis

Full Access
Question # 200

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

Full Access
Question # 201

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

Full Access
Question # 202

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Full Access
Question # 203

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Full Access
Question # 204

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Full Access
Question # 205

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

Full Access
Question # 206

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Full Access
Question # 207

Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process?

A.

Risk response planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Manage stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 208

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Full Access
Question # 209

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

Full Access
Question # 210

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

Full Access
Question # 211

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

Full Access
Question # 212

What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers become more involved.

Full Access
Question # 213

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Full Access
Question # 214

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

Full Access
Question # 215

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

Full Access
Question # 216

Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and cost are:

A.

Contingency reserves.

B.

Management reserves.

C.

Authorized budgets.

D.

Cost baselines.

Full Access
Question # 217

Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for Opportunities

C.

Decision Tree Analysis

D.

Risk Data Quality Assessment

Full Access
Question # 218

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Full Access
Question # 219

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

Full Access
Question # 220

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Full Access
Question # 221

An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:

A.

deliverable

B.

assumption

C.

constraint

D.

exclusion

Full Access
Question # 222

PMI-001 question answer

Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?

A.

Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-D

B.

Begin-A-B-C-D-E-End

C.

Begin-A-B-D-E-End A-C-D

D.

Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-C

Full Access
Question # 223

Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project’s scope, plans, and environment is an activity included in which of the following project management processes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

Full Access
Question # 224

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

Full Access
Question # 225

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

Full Access
Question # 226

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Full Access
Question # 227

What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Full Access
Question # 228

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Network diagrams

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Full Access
Question # 229

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

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Question # 230

Which of the following tools will be used to produce performance reports that provide information to stakeholders about project cost, schedule progress, and performance?

A.

Communications methods

B.

Reporting systems

C.

Forecasting methods

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 231

Typical outcomes of a project include:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

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Question # 232

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

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Question # 233

What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

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Question # 234

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Question # 235

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Question # 236

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

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Question # 237

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

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Question # 238

Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Question # 239

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A.

Teaming agreements

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

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Question # 240

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

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Question # 241

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Question # 242

Which process group contains the processes performed to finalize all activities?

A.

Planning Process Group

B.

Executing Process Group

C.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

D.

Closing Process Group

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Question # 243

Projects can intersect with an organization’s operations at various points during the product life cycle such as:

A.

When there is an operations shutdown (i.e. a strike).

B.

When developing new products, upgrading products, or expanding outputs.

C.

When a project transitions from a temporary to a permanent status.

D.

When the project manager is promoted to operations manager.

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Question # 244

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Question # 245

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

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Question # 246

Which of the following is an input of the Define Activities process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Milestone list

C.

Resource calendars

D.

Activity list

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Question # 247

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?

A.

Records management system

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Project management software

D.

Issue log

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Question # 248

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

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Question # 249

A Pareto chart is a specific type of:

A.

control chart

B.

histogram

C.

cause-and-effect diagram

D.

scatter diagram

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Question # 250

The cost of nonconformance in a project includes:

A.

testing

B.

rework

C.

inspections

D.

training

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Question # 251

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

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Question # 252

What’s budget?

A.

Monitoring & Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Question # 253

Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?

A.

Recommended corrective actions

B.

Recommended preventive actions

C.

Risk audits

D.

Risk reassessments

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Question # 254

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 255

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Question # 256

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

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Question # 257

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

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Question # 258

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

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Question # 259

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Question # 260

What are assigned risk ratings based upon?

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Assessed probability and impact

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Risk Identification

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Question # 261

Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?

A.

Portfolio manager

B.

Project sponsor

C.

Project manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 262

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$200

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Question # 263

Which of the following is a tool or technique for the Plan Procurements process?

A.

Bidder conferences

B.

Proposal evaluation techniques

C.

Contract types

D.

Contract change control systems

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Question # 264

Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?

A.

Project document update

B.

Control chart

C.

Cost performance baseline

D.

Organizational process asset update

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Question # 265

Which of the following is an example of push communication?

A.

Intranet sites

B.

Video conferencing

C.

Knowledge repositories

D.

Press releases

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Question # 266

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

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Question # 267

Within project integration management, the statement of work (SOW) references which aspects of the project?

A.

Strategic plan, business need, and product scope description

B.

Contract, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Business plan, project management plan, and project schedule

D.

Product lifecycle, business objective, and management strategy

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Question # 268

The project manager for XYZ stationers is sequencing the activities for the project to set up a new office. It is known from knowledge of best practices that it is better to wait for the painters to finish painting the walls before the new floors are installed. This is an example of which of the following types of dependency?

A.

Precedence

B.

Discretionary

C.

External

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 269

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

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Question # 270

What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?

A.

Work Packages

B.

Activities

C.

Schedules

D.

Tasks

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Question # 271

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Question # 272

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

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Question # 273

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

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Question # 274

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Question # 275

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

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