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Practice Free PMI-100 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)® Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the PMI PMI-100 Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)® exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free PMI-100 Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Question # 7

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Question # 8

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Question # 9

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Question # 10

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question # 11

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

Question # 12

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question # 13

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

Question # 14

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

Question # 15

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question # 16

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Question # 17

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

Question # 18

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

Question # 19

The diagram below is an example of a:

PMI-100 question answer

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question # 20

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

Question # 21

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Question # 22

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question # 23

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Question # 24

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question # 25

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 26

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

Question # 27

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

Question # 28

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

Question # 29

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

Question # 30

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

Question # 31

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question # 32

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Question # 33

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

Question # 34

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

Question # 35

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Question # 36

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

Question # 37

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

Question # 38

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

Question # 39

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

Question # 40

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Question # 41

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

Question # 42

Portfolio Management is management of:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Question # 43

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Question # 44

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

Question # 45

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

Question # 46

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question # 47

When is a project finished?

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

Question # 48

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question # 49

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

Question # 50

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

Question # 51

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

Question # 52

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Question # 53

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

Question # 54

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Question # 55

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

Question # 56

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

Question # 57

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question # 58

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Question # 59

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

Question # 60

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Question # 61

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

Question # 62

The following is a network diagram for a project.

PMI-100 question answer

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Question # 63

The following is a network diagram for a project.

PMI-100 question answer

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

Question # 64

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

Question # 65

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

A.

recognition and rewards

B.

compliance

C.

staff acquisition

D.

training needs

Question # 66

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

Question # 67

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

Question # 68

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

Question # 69

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

Question # 70

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Question # 71

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question # 72

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

Question # 73

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Question # 74

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

Question # 75

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

Question # 76

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Question # 77

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question # 78

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Question # 79

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Question # 80

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

PMI-100 question answer

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Question # 81

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Question # 82

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question # 83

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

Question # 84

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

Question # 85

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Question # 86

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Question # 87

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

Question # 88

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question # 89

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Question # 90

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

Question # 91

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Question # 92

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

Question # 93

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

Question # 94

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Question # 95

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

Question # 96

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

Question # 97

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

Question # 98

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

Question # 99

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Question # 100

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

Question # 101

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

Question # 102

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

Question # 103

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

Question # 104

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Change requests

D.

Deliverables

Question # 105

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Question # 106

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

Question # 107

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

Question # 108

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

Question # 109

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Question # 110

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Question # 111

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

A.

There is a cost underrun.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

The project may not meet the deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Question # 112

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

Question # 113

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Question # 114

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 115

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

Question # 116

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question # 117

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A.

Cyclic

B.

Progressive

C.

Repetitive

D.

Iterative

Question # 118

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Question # 119

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

A.

Project team

B.

Focus group

C.

Change control board

D.

Project stakeholders

Question # 120

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

Question # 121

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

Question # 122

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Question # 123

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

Question # 124

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Question # 125

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

Question # 126

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Question # 127

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question # 128

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

Question # 129

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question # 130

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question # 131

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

Question # 132

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

Question # 133

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Question # 134

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

Question # 135

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

Question # 136

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

Question # 137

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

Question # 138

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

Question # 139

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

Question # 140

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

Question # 141

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Question # 142

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

Question # 143

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question # 144

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Question # 145

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question # 146

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Question # 147

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

Question # 148

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Question # 149

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Question # 150

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

Question # 151

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Question # 152

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Question # 153

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Question # 154

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question # 155

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Question # 156

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Question # 157

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

Question # 158

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

Question # 159

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Question # 160

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

Question # 161

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Question # 162

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

Question # 163

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Question # 164

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

Question # 165

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question # 166

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Question # 167

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question # 168

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Question # 169

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Question # 170

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question # 171

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Question # 172

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

Question # 173

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question # 174

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

Question # 175

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

Question # 176

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

A.

Benchmarking.

B.

Context diagrams.

C.

Brainstorming.

D.

Prototyping.

Question # 177

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Question # 178

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question # 179

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Question # 180

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Question # 181

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Question # 182

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question # 183

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Question # 184

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

Question # 185

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Question # 186

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

Question # 187

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Question # 188

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

Question # 189

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Question # 190

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Question # 191

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

Question # 192

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Question # 193

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

Question # 194

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

Question # 195

Which item is a cost of conformance?

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

Question # 196

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

Question # 197

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

Question # 198

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

Question # 199

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Question # 200

The following is a network diagram for a project.

PMI-100 question answer

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

16

Question # 201

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

Question # 202

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

PMI-100 question answer

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Question # 203

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

Question # 204

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question # 205

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Question # 206

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

Question # 207

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Question # 208

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

Question # 209

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question # 210

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

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