PMI-SP Practice Exam Questions with Answers PMI Scheduling Professional Certification

The only tool and technique for controlling the schedule is a corrective action. You should always report problems to management, the project customers, or key stakeholders as defined in the Communications Management Plan, but you should also always present a solution to the problem. A corrective action is a change implemented to address a weakness identified in a management system. Normally corrective actions are implemented in response to a customer complaint, abnormal levels of internal nonconformity, nonconformities identified during an internal audit or adverse or unstable trends in product and process monitoring such as would be identified by SP

C. It is method of identifying and eliminating the causes of a problem, thus preventing their reappearance. Examples of a corrective action are : Improvements to maintenance schedules Improvements to material handling or storage

Answer option C is incorrect. Trimming the project scope, which is a change request, is not a tool and technique for control the scheduling. It is, however, an output of the control schedule process and is sometimes a valid decision if the project is slipping on schedule performance.

Answer option A is incorrect. Work performance measurements are not a tool and technique for controlling the project schedule.

Answer option D is incorrect. The causes of the variance can help you determine the best action to take, but it is not a tool and technique for schedule control.

The report performance process is used for gathering and distributing performance information. It consists of status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts. The report performance process contains the periodic collection and analysis of baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress and performance as well as to forecast the project results.

Answer option A is incorrect. Identify stakeholder process is used to identify all people or organizations impacted by the project and document relevant information regarding their interest, involvement, and impact on project success.

Answer option C is incorrect. Plan communication is the process of determining the project stakeholder information needs and defining a communication approach.

Answer option D is incorrect. Stakeholder analysis is the identification of stakeholder needs, wants and expectations. It involves the documentation, prioritization, and quantification of the needs to help define the project scope. Stakeholders' interests may be positively or negatively affected by execution or completion of the project and they may also exert influence over the project and its deliverables.

The characteristics of conflict and the conflict management process recognized by the project managers while handling conflict in a team environment are as follows: Conflict is natural and forces a search for alternatives. Openness resolves conflict. Conflict resolution should focus on issues, not personalities. Conflict is a team issue. Conflict resolution should focus on the present, not the past.

Activity I can actually take all the way to Day 30 to complete. Note in the figure that Activity I does not need to be completed before Activity K can begin. This allows Activity I to take until Day 30 to complete as its late finish.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the earliest Activity I may finish.

Answer options B and A are incorrect. These are not the valid calculation.

A Website is an example of a pull communication. This means the information is available, but the reader must go to the source and retrieve the information. Pull communication is defined by what the reader wants and what interests he has in retrieving the information. In other words, the information is available, but the reader must go to the source and retrieve the information. This type of communication is used by advertising agencies to draw clients into retail establishments to receive messages. Customers decide on when and how they will act on the messages in the pull model of communications. Some virtual examples of pull communication are:

Blogs

Wikipedia

Websites

Answer option D is incorrect. This does not describe the communication model or how information is distributed.

Answer option C is incorrect. Passive communication is a not a project management term to describe communications.

Answer option B is incorrect. Push communication describes the process of delivering the communication to the recipients, such as through email.

The consultant is an example of expert judgment, as he is helping you and the project team to create the project elements. Expert judgment is a technique based on a set of criteria that has been acquired in a specific knowledge area or product area. It is obtained when the project manager or project team requires specialized knowledge that they do not possess. Expert judgment involves people most familiar with the work of creating estimates. Preferably, the project team member who will be doing the task should complete the estimates. Expert judgment is applied when performing administrative closure activities, and experts should ensure the project or phase closure is performed to the appropriate standards.

Answer option A is incorrect. The consultant may be considered a direct expense because the fees can only be assigned to your project work, but this is not the best choice for the question.

Answer option B is incorrect. An external requirement is not a valid choice for this question.

Answer option C is incorrect. A temporary resource is not a valid project management term.

This is an example of three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc. Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates: TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6 Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. Here, it is, TE = ( 35 + 50*4 + 95) / 6 = 330/6 = 55

Soft logic can be completed in any order without affecting the outcome of the deliverables. Soft logic is also known as preferential logic, preferred logic, and discretionary dependency. It is defined on the basis of knowledge of best practices and standard procedures for the particular application area. Soft logic is defined by the project management team based on well- known practices in a specific desired sequence.

Answer options A, D, and C are incorrect. These are not valid definitions of soft logic.

Constructability analysis takes into account the location, logistics, resource availability analysis, the average price of general labor in the area, and labor productivity studies from previous similar projects in the area. Constructability analysis is a process that starts in the initial planning phases and persists all over the entire planning cycle and into the implementation phase of the project. Constructability analysis during the planning process examines the methods and cost of installed equipment and materials, technology, site conditions, resources, and related infrastructure. The benefit of constructability analysis is to reduce both the time and cost of a project. Constructability analysis is repeatedly performed throughout the life-cycle of a project in order to optimize cost, plan, and schedule while mitigating risk. It is a very important process that needs to be performed early in planning to allow alternatives to be considered and integrated into the design.

Answer option A is incorrect. This comes under the quality assurance phase.

The project's scope baseline is not derived or provided by the project's activity list. The scope baseline is made of the project's WBS, WBS Dictionary, and the Project Scope Statement. The activity list provides for estimating, scheduling, executing, and monitoring and controlling the project work. The scope baseline is an element of the project management plan. The contents of the scope baseline include the following: Project scope statement: It includes the product scope description and the project deliverables, and defines the product user acceptance criteria. WBS: It defines each deliverable and the decomposition of the deliverables into work packages. WBS dictionary: It contains the detailed description of work and technical documentation for each WBS element.

Answer option D is incorrect. Estimates do provide a basis for creating time and cost estimates.

Answer option B is incorrect. Activities are executed in the project.

Answer option C is incorrect. Activities are scheduled as part of project planning.

To answer this question, you'll first need to calculate the contingency reserve. Contingency reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with anticipated, but not certain, events. These events are "known unknowns" and are part of the project scope and cost baselines. The contingency reserve is calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact for the risk event value for each risk event. The sum of the risk events equals the contingency reserve for the project. The sum of the risk events equals the contingency reserve for the project. In this question, the value is $41,700. If Risk D happens, it'll cost the project $35,000. The difference of $35,000 and $41,700 is $6,700.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the impact of Risk Event

D.

Answer option D is incorrect. $14,000 is the risk event value of Risk Event

D.

Answer option B is incorrect. $41,700 is the amount of the contingency reserve.

The planned value is the worth of the project if it were on time. In this instance, the project should be 50 percent complete, so the planned value is half of the project budget - $2,250,000. Planned value (PV) is the authorized budget assigned to the schedule work to be accomplished for a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component. It serves as a baseline against which actual performance is measured. The theory of planned value is of vital importance to the project management team and it is important to keep careful track of this. The term planned value can also be in some situations referred to by the project management team and the project management team leader as the budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS).

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the budget at completion.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the earned value for the project.

Answer option B is incorrect. There is enough information to know.

Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows:

Schedule network analysis

Critical path method

Critical chain method

Resource leveling

What-if scenario analysis

Applying leads and lags

Schedule compression

Scheduling tool

Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.

The define activities process is the process that may begin once the project's WBS has been completed and approved. It is possible, in some projects, to complete the WBS and the activity list at the same time.

Answer option D is incorrect. Sequencing the activities cannot happen until the activity list has been created.

Answer option A is incorrect. Estimating activity resources is dependent on the activity list, so this choice is not valid.

Answer option C is incorrect. Estimate activity durations are dependent on the activity list, so this choice is not valid.

Contingency reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with anticipated, but not certain, events. These events are "known unknowns" and are part of the project scope and cost baselines. The contingency reserve is calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact for the risk event value for each risk event. The sum of the risk events equals the contingency reserve for the project. Note that Risk D is a positive risk amount.

Answer option C is incorrect. This value is the sum of the risk events if you did not include Risk D as a positive risk value.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is a sum of the risk event.

Answer option B is incorrect. This is a sum of the risk events without including Risk D as a positive risk event.

The critical path is the path in the project network diagram with the longest duration. In project management, a critical path is the sequence of project network activities which add up to the longest overall duration. This determines the shortest time possible to complete the project. Any delay of an activity on the critical path directly impacts the planned project completion date (i.e. there is no float on the critical path). This project actually has two critical paths. Path ACGIJ takes 23 days. Path ACGHJ also takes 23 days. When Activity I decreases by three days the critical will still take 23 days to complete as Path ACGHJ remains a critical path.

Answer option A is incorrect. The duration of the critical path did not increase.

Answer option D is incorrect. The duration of the path ACGIJ will decrease to 20 days but the critical path will remain at 23 days.

Answer option B is incorrect. The critical path did not reduce to 17 days.

The project will need $787,504 more to complete. This formula, the estimate to complete, is estimate at completion minus the actual costs. Here,

CPI = EV/AC =(0.40*1,258,456)/525000= 0.95882, and

ETC = EAC - AC

= (BAC/CPI) - AC

=(1,258,456/0.95882) - 525000

= 1,312,504- 525000

= 787,504

The estimate to complete (ETC) is the expected cost needed to complete all the remaining work for a scheduled activity, a group of activities, or the project. ETC helps project managers predict what the final cost of the project will be upon completion. The formula for the ETC is EAC- AC. The EAC is BAC/CPI.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the estimate at completion.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the planned value.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is not a valid value based on the current project performance.

The change in the amount of labor Ned is allowed to use will cause his project schedule to increase thereby affecting the project end date. Crashing the project will allow Ned to add more resources while still keeping each resource to a maximum of 25 hours per week.

Answer option D is incorrect. Ned likely does not have control over descoping decisions.

Answer option C is incorrect. Reducing the project labor is what resource leveling does.

Answer option B is incorrect. Adding risk mitigation won't necessarily help Ned finish the project faster.

This is an example of a fragment network. By adapting the network template to the current project and just using a portion of the template, the template is fragmented. A schedule network diagram template is used to speed up the preparation of networks of project activities. It comprises of the whole project, or a portion of the project activity. The various parts or portions of a project schedule network diagram are known as a subnetwork or a fragment network. When projects have related necessities and components, project managers can develop more efficient network diagrams by using the schedule network diagram templates.

Answer option D is incorrect. Parametric is an estimating technique that uses a parameter, such as $199 per installation, for a group of installation activities.

Answer option A is incorrect. Analogous estimates use historical information to predict the cost or duration of the current project.

Answer option B is incorrect. While this term, sometimes, describes a task within the project network diagram that does not connect to other paths, it is not a valid term.

Forecasting method is a technique used in generating performance reports. Forecasting is the process of estimating or predicting in unknown situations. Forecasting is about predicting the future as accurately as possible with the help of all the information available, including historical data and knowledge of any future events that might impact forecasts. The forecasting methods are categorized as follows: Time series method: It uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes. Causal/econometric method: This forecasting method is based on the assumption that it is possible to identify some factors that might influence the variable that is being forecasted. If the causes are understood, projections of the influencing variables can be made and used in the forecast. Judgmental method: Judgmental forecasting methods incorporate intuitive judgments, opinions, and subjective probability estimates. Other methods: Other methods may include probabilistic forecasting, simulation, and ensemble forecasting. It is one of the tools and techniques of the report performance process.

Answer option A is incorrect. Work performance information is the data gathered on the status of the project schedule activities that are performed to accomplish the project work. This data is collected as part of the Direct and Manage Project Execution processes. WPI includes the following: Deliverables status Schedule Progress Costs incurred It is used as an input in generating the report performance process.

Answer option C is incorrect. Work performance measurements are created from the work performance information. WPMs are an output of Control schedule, Control cost, and Control scope processes, which are monitoring and controlling processes. WPMs consist of planned versus actual performance indicators with respect to scope, schedule, and cost. They are documented and communicated to the stakeholders and are used to make project activity metrics, such as the following: Planned vs. Actual Technical performance and Scope performance Planned vs. Actual Schedule performance Planned vs. Actual Cost performance They are used as an input in generating the report performance process.

Answer option B is incorrect. Change requests are requests to expand or reduce the project scope, modify policies, processes, plans, or procedures, modify costs or budgets or revise schedules. These requests for a change can be direct or indirect, externally or internally initiated, and legally or contractually imposed or optional. A Project Manager needs to ensure that only formally documented requested changes are processed and only approved change requests are implemented. It is an output of the report performance process.

Total float is the time you can delay an activity without delaying the project end date, whereas free float is on each activity and does not affect the early start date of successor activities. Float, also called slack, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting any subsequent activities. There are two types of floats available: Free Float: It is the amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities. Total Float: It is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating schedule constraint. Float is calculated by using the critical path method technique.

Answer options C, A, and D are incorrect. These are not accurate definitions of free float and total float.

Conformance to schedule is a required adherence for the project's schedule. In this instance, the project manager must not allow the schedule to slip more than five percent.

Answer option B is incorrect. This is the description of the schedule performance index.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is the description of the cost performance index.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the project performance.

An activity is an individual element of work that is logically linked to other activities to form the schedule. Its primary characteristics include an overall duration based upon the resources applied to it (manpower, material, and equipment), as well as a start and completion date that is tied to a work calendar. It also has a relationship with other activities (predecessors and successors).

Because the activities in Beth's project require Tim and his skills. This is an example of an activity resource requirement. A resource constraint would also have been an acceptable answer.

Answer option B is incorrect. This may be a matrix organization, but matrix network is not a valid project management term.

Answer option C is incorrect. Organizational process assets are things that have been created to help assist the management of the project.

Answer option A is incorrect. A resource calendar conflict is not a valid project management term.

Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. The CPI is calculated based on the following formula: CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target. In this instances it is $270,000 divided by $335,000 for a CPI of .81.

Answer option B is incorrect. .67 is actually the schedule performance index.

Answer option D is incorrect. -$65,000 is the cost variance for the project.

Answer option A is incorrect. -$135,000 is the schedule variance of the project.

The schedule variance is the earned value minus the planned value. In this instance, it is $938,260-$1,055,543 = -$117,282. Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is the cost variance for the project.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the variance at completion.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the inverse of the earned value.

According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project.

Answer option A is incorrect. The communications management plan is an output of communications planning.

Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder identification, but it is not the main output.

Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification process.

Noise is anything that disrupts the communication method such as static on the telephone line, distracting conversations, or misunderstandings.

Answer option A is incorrect. Static is an example of noise, but it is not part of the communication model.

Answer option D is incorrect. A barrier to communication is when communication cannot happen under the present conditions.

Answer option B is incorrect. A deterrent is not a valid part of the communication model.

Corrective actions should be taken to move the results of the project work back into alignment with the project scope. The project team must start their activities on time and finish on time. A corrective action is a change implemented to address a weakness identified in a management system. Normally corrective actions are implemented in response to a customer complaint, abnormal levels of internal nonconformity, nonconformities identified during an internal audit or adverse or unstable trends in product and process monitoring such as would be identified by SP

C. It is method of identifying and eliminating the causes of a problem, thus preventing their reappearance. Examples of a corrective action are :Improvements to maintenance schedulesImprovements to material handling or storage

Answer option C is incorrect. Management reserve is time and funds allotted for unforeseen issues and risks within the project.

Answer option A is incorrect. Padding each estimate may cause the project to succumb to Parkinson's Law: work expands to fill the amount of time allotted to it. In addition, the project team may still delay the start time of their project assignments.

Answer option B is incorrect. Disciplining the project team may be a good option if the problem continues. The best option is to first apply corrective actions.

The schedule performance index can be found by dividing the earned value by the planned value. In this project, it's $447,000 divided by the $558,750 for a value of 0.80. Schedule performance index (SPI) is the measure of schedule efficiency on a project. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance.

SPI is the ratio of earned value to planned value. The SPI is calculated based on the following formula:

SPI = Earned Value (EV) / Planned Value (PV)

If the SPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The SPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.

Answer option A is incorrect. "80" is not the same value as ".80".

Answer option B is incorrect. 1.02 is the cost performance index.

Answer option C is incorrect. 102 is not a valid calculation for this question.

This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three-point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc.

Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario

Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario

The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates:

TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6

Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows:

TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6

= 290/6

=48

Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

An analogous estimate is a form of expert judgment because it relies on historical information. The historical information, assuming that it is accurate, serves as the conduit to the expert that created the historical information.

Answer option C is incorrect. A bottom-up estimate creates an activity duration estimate for each work package in the WBS.

Answer option A is incorrect. Parametric estimating uses a parameter, such as 10 hours per fixture installation, as a base to predict the duration of the project.

Answer option D is incorrect. A definitive estimate, also known as a bottom-up estimate, accounts for the cost of each work package.

There is no float available for Activity G because it is on the critical path. Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates.

Answer options B, A, and C are incorrect. There is no float available for Activity G because it is on the critical path.

The communications management plan will define who will receive what information.

Answer option B is incorrect. The project sponsor may be a recipient but the project communications management plan is the best selection.

Answer option A is incorrect. Functional management is not the best choice in a projectized structure.

Answer option D is incorrect. The project customer may receive a copy of the report, but the project communications management plan should direct the communications.

Schedule data is an output of the Develop Schedule process. The nine inputs to the Develop Schedule process are: activity list, activity attributes, project schedule network diagrams, activity resource requirements, resource calendars, activity duration estimates, project scope statement, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

Answer options C, A, and D are incorrect. These are the inputs to the Develop Schedule process.

Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. The CPI is calculated based on the following formula: CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target. In this instances it is $270,000 divided by $335,000 for a CPI of .81.

Answer option B is incorrect. .67 is actually the schedule performance index.

Answer option D is incorrect. -$65,000 is the cost variance for the project.

Answer option A is incorrect. -$135,000 is the schedule variance of the project.

When the project manager relies on consultants or the project team (or both), it is an example of expert judgment. Expert judgment is a technique based on a set of criteria that has been acquired in a specific knowledge area or product area. It is obtained when the project manager or project team requires specialized knowledge that they do not possess. Expert judgment involves people most familiar with the work of creating estimates. Preferably, the project team member who will be doing the task should complete the estimates. Expert judgment is applied when performing administrative closure activities, and experts should ensure the project or phase closure is performed to the appropriate standards.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is not an example of decomposition.

Answer option B is incorrect. This is not an example of rolling wave planning.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is not an example of using a project template.

The to-complete performance index can be found by using the formula (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC) for a value of 1.07. The higher the value is from 1, the less likely the project will meet the BAC.

To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC.

TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:

TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}

Answer option A is incorrect. 0.98 is the project's cost performance index.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is the project's schedule performance index.

Answer option B is incorrect. -$16,667 is the project's variance at completion.

Ben's project will have 140 more communication channels because of the five additional stakeholders. To solve the question, you will need to find the current stakeholder communication channels first, which is (26*25)/2= 325, and then find the difference of the number of channels for the five additional stakeholders. You can use the formula of N(N-1), where N is the number of stakeholders. In this example, the formula would read: Total number of communication channels that Ben will have next = ((31*30)/2)-((26*25)/2 =140

Answer option D is incorrect. Five is the number of additional stakeholders.

Answer option B is incorrect. 10 is the number of communication channels among just five stakeholders.

Answer option C is incorrect. 325 is the number of current communication channels.

When Holly adds resources to the project, as in this instance, she will need to update the activity attributes to reflect the new labor. Activity attributes are an output of the Define Activity process. These attributes refer to the multiple components that frame up an activity. The components for each activity during the early stages of the project are the Activity ID, WBS ID, and Activity name. At the later stages, the activity attributes include Activity codes, Predecessor activity, activity description, logical relationship, successor activity, leads and lags, imposed dates, and constraints and assumptions. Activity attributes are used for schedule development and for ordering, selecting, and sorting the planned schedule activities in a number of ways within reports. In project document updates, activity attributes are updated to include any revised resource requirements and other revision generated by the develop schedule process.

The project calendar defines the working hours for the project, including any days that project work will not happen due to the organizational calendar.

Answer option D is incorrect. The company calendar is not the correct choice for this question.

Answer option C is incorrect. The organizational calendar is not the correct choice for this question.

Answer option B is incorrect. The resource calendar defines whether resources the project needs will be available. The resources include people, facilities, equipment, and other things that project needs to be completed.

There is positive variance of $122,845 on Fred's project. Variances can be either positive or negative. Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the project's variance at completion.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is the cost variance for the project.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is not a valid answer for the project.

The various group creativity techniques are as follows: Brainstorming: It is a technique used to generate and collect multiple ideas related to the project and product requirements. Nominal group technique: It is a technique used to enhance brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or prioritization. Delphi technique: It is a techniques used to identify potential risk. In this technique, the responses are gathered via a questionnaire from different experts and their inputs are organized according to their contents. Idea/mind mapping: It is a technique used to map the ideas generated by brainstorming to reflect the commonality and differences in understanding and generating new ideas. Affinity diagram: It is a technique used to allow a large number of ideas to be sorted into groups for review and analysis.

Performance reports are distributed through the push technique. This means that the project manager distributes the reports regularly through a mechanism, such as email.

Answer option C is incorrect. One-to-one technique describes a conversation between two people.

Answer option B is incorrect. Many-to-many technique describes a conversation between many people.

Answer option D is incorrect. A pull technique describes the recipients of the report "pulling" the information, such as from a Website.

The schedule variance is found by subtracting the planned value from the earned value. The earned value is the percentage of the project completeness multiplied by the BA

C. Planned value is the percentage of where the project should be at this time multiplied by the BA

C. Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target. In this example, EV = 40% of BAC = 300,000, and PV = 50% of BAC = 375,000 SV = 300,000 - 375,000 = -75,000

Answer options C, B, and D are incorrect. These are not the correct values for the schedule variance.

The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong.

Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report.

Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

Crashing adds more workers to the project team. Crashing allows the project to complete faster because there are more people helping with the project work.

Answer option D is incorrect. Reducing the project scope is called descoping or project scope changes.

Answer option A is incorrect. Crashing does not consider the working hours.

Answer option B is incorrect. Resource leveling actually increases the project duration.

A statement of work (SOW) is a document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables and timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer. Detailed requirements and pricing are usually specified in it, along with many other terms and conditions. SOW is a narrative description of products or services to be supplied by the project. For internal projects, the project initiator or sponsor provides the statement of work based on business needs, product, or service requirements. For external projects, the statement of work can be received from the customer as part of a bid document.

Answer option A is incorrect. Scope of statement gives the narrative description of the project scope.

Answer option B is incorrect. Project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project manager to work on a project.

Answer option D is incorrect. WBS is a tool that defines a project and groups the project discrete work in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope.

The schedule variance is found by subtracting the planned value from the earned value. The earned value is the percentage of the project completeness multiplied by the BAC. Planned value is the percetage of where the project should be at this time multiplied by the BAC. Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula:

SV = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV)

If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target. In this example,

EV = 40% of BAC

= 300,000, and

PV = 50% of BAC

= 375,000

SV = 300,000 - 375,000

= -75,000

Answer options C, B, and D are incorrect. These are not the correct values for the schedule variance.

The cost variance for the project is -$51,000. You can find the cost variance by using the formula earned value minus planned value. In this instance, it is: CV = EV - AC = (0.60* 2,456,900) - 1,525,140 = -51,000

Answer option C is incorrect. -$85,000 is the project's variance at completion.

Answer option A is incorrect. $122,845 is the project's schedule variance.

Answer option D is incorrect. There is a cost variance on this project of -$51,000.

The Project Staffing Management Plan will define how resources are brought onto the project team, how they are managed while on the project team, and how they may be released from the project team. The staffing management plan is part of human resources plan. It is a subsidiary plan of the overall project management plan and defines when project team members will be brought onto and released from the project. It describes when and how human resource requirements will be met. Depending upon the needs of the project, it can be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed. The staffing management plan may include the following items: Staff acquisition, resource calendars, staff release plan, training needs, recognition and rewards, compliance, and safety.

Answer option C is incorrect. The communications management plan defines project communication requirements and expectations.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is not a valid project management plan.

Answer option D is incorrect. The project schedule management will define when resources are needed and scheduled, but not how resources are allowed to be released from the project.

The path of ABDHJ will take 21 days to complete and cannot exceed 27 days or else the project will be late. If Activity B takes four additional days and Activity D takes two additional days, this adds (4+2= 6) six days to the path, bringing the path's duration to exactly (21+6 = 27) twenty seven days. There is no available float left for Activity E or H. Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates.

Answer options A, C, and B are incorrect. There is no float available because the path's duration has increased to 27 days.

In severe cases, new schedule duration estimates with new forecasted start and finish dates are needed. In these instances, it is an example of using the control schedule process. Control schedule process is a method of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and deal with the changes to the schedule baseline. It is concerned with: Determining the current status of the project Influencing the factors that create schedule changes Determining that the project schedule has changed Managing the actual changes as they occur Control schedule is a component of the Perform Integration Change Control process.

Answer option B is incorrect. The activity resources would only address the addition or replacement of resources needed to complete the project work.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is a tempting choice, but according to the PMBOK, new schedules are part of the control schedule process.

Answer option D is incorrect. Develop schedule is not the best choice for this question. It is a process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule.

The risk owner is the individual on the project team that is closest to the risk event. The risk owner can be an individual or an organization responsible for implementing risk responses or contingency plan. The risk owner should be empowered with the ability to respond to the risk as it was planned.

Answer option A is incorrect. Diane is the project manager and likely won't be the risk owner as well.

Answer option B is incorrect. The project sponsor authorizes the project but does not participate in the execution of the project.

Answer option D is incorrect. While a subject matter expert may be the risk owner on some occasions, he won't be the risk owner on every occasion.

Rolling wave planning is a technique to plan and do the most imminent project work before moving onto the details that are far off in the project schedule and project plan. Rolling wave planning is a technique for performing progressive elaboration planning where the work to be accomplished in the near future is planned in detail at a low level of the work breakdown structure. The work to be performed within another one or two reporting periods in the near future is planned in detail as work is being completed during the current period.

Answer option D is incorrect. Decomposition is the process of breaking down work packages into the activity list.

Answer options A and C are incorrect. These are not valid project management terms.

Project scope is the effort that must be required to gather a client's plan, goals for space, purpose, properties, impact, and stage of eminence. Scope management sets the boundaries for the project and is the foundation on which the other project elements are built. Scope management helps to organize the work responsibilities and their requirements for successful completion. Managing the project scope is primarily concerned with defining and controlling what is and what is not included in the project.

The project will need $1,087,497.74 more to complete. This formula, the estimate to complete, is estimate at completion minus the actual costs. Here,

CPI = EV/AC

= (0.40*2,208,456)/725,000

= 1.21846, and

ETC = EAC - AC

= (BAC/CPI) - AC

= (2,208,456/1.21846) - 725,000

= 1,812,497.74 - 725,000

= 1,087,497.74

The estimate to complete (ETC) is the expected cost needed to complete all the remaining work for a scheduled activity, a group of activities, or the project. ETC helps project managers predict what the final cost of the project will be upon completion. The formula for the ETC is EAC- A

C. The EAC is BAC/CPI.

This is an example of a preventive action as you're working with the team before they install the doors to train them on the installation. The checklist is a quality control tool but the question was asking for a project execution activity. Preventive and corrective actions are part of project execution.

Answer option D is incorrect. Quality control is a controlling and monitoring process, not an executing process.

Answer option B is incorrect. The defect repair validation comes after the project team has corrected an error - something that has not occurred in this instance.

Answer option C is incorrect. Corrective action is a response to something that needs to be corrected in the project.

Constructability analysis takes into account the location, logistics, resource availability analysis, the average price of general labor in the area, and labor productivity studies from previous similar projects in the area. Constructability analysis is a process that starts in the initial planning phases and persists all over the entire planning cycle and into the implementation phase of the project. Constructability analysis during the planning process examines the methods and cost of installed equipment and materials, technology, site conditions, resources, and related infrastructure. The benefit of constructability analysis is to reduce both the time and cost of a project. Constructability analysis is repeatedly performed throughout the life-cycle of a project in order to optimize cost, plan, and schedule while mitigating risk. It is a very important process that needs to be performed early in planning to allow alternatives to be considered and integrated into the design.

Answer option A is incorrect. This comes under the quality assurance phase.

The estimate to complete wants to know how much more money the project will need to complete its objectives. The estimate to complete (ETC) is the expected cost needed to complete all the remaining work for a scheduled activity, a group of activities, or the project. ETC helps project managers predict what the final cost of the project will be upon completion. The formula for the ETC is EAC- AC. The EAC is BAC/CPI.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the estimate at completion based on the current project performance.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the current schedule variance.

Answer option B is incorrect. 1.02 is the to-complete performance index based on the BAC.

According to the question, the cost variance of the project is 30, which is a positive figure. A positive value means that cost is less than planned. What is CV? Cost variance (CV) is a measure of cost performance on a project. The variance notifies if costs are higher than budgeted or lower than budgeted. The cost variance is calculated based on the following formula: CV = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC) A positive value means that spending is less than budgeted, whereas a negative value indicates that costs are higher than originally planned for the project.

Answer option C is incorrect. If the CV is zero, it shows that cost is right on target.

Answer option A is incorrect. This result is depicted by viewing the schedule variance (SV), not the CV.

Answer option B is incorrect. If the CV is a negative value, it depicts that the costs are higher than planned.

Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. The CPI is calculated based on the following formula: CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target. In this instance, the earned value is $234,000 as the project work is 100 percent. The actual costs are $245,000.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is the schedule performance index value.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the variance at completion for the project.

Answer option C is incorrect. There is enough information to find the answer.

The activity nodes of path ACFGJ equals 26 days and is the longest path to completion - it is the critical path.

ACFGJ= A(4)+C(8)+F(4)+G(6)+J(4)=26

What is a critical path?

A critical path is the sequence of project activities, which add up to the longest overall duration. This determines the shortest time possible to complete the project. Any delay of an activity on the critical path directly impacts the planned project completion date (i.e. there is no float on the critical path). A project can have several, parallel, near critical paths. An additional parallel path through the network with the total durations shorter than the critical path is called a sub-critical or non-critical path. These results allow managers to prioritize activities for the effective management of project completion, and to shorten the planned critical path of a project by pruning critical path activities, by "fast tracking" (i.e., performing more activities in parallel), and/or by "crashing the critical path" (i.e., shortening the durations of critical path activities by adding resources).

Answer option A is incorrect. ABEHJ takes only 22 days to complete; it is not the critical path. ABEHJ=A(4)+B(5)+E(2)+H(7)+J(4)=22

Answer option C is incorrect. ADGJ takes only 15 days to complete; it is not the critical path. ADGJ=A(4)+D(1)+G(6)+J(4)=15

Answer option B is incorrect. ACFIJ takes only 23 days to complete; it is not the critical path. ACFIJ=A(4)+C(8)+F(4)+I(3)+J(4)=23

Anna needs to create a power/interest grid. This grid groups the stakeholders based on their level of authority and level of concern regarding the project outcomes. The power/interest grid forms a group of the stakeholders based on their level of authority (power) and their level of interest in the project. Interest accounts to what degree the stakeholders are affected by examining the project or policy change, and to what degree of interest or concern they have about it. Power accounts for the influence the stakeholders have over the project or policy, and to what degree they can help to accomplish, or block, the preferred change. Stakeholders, who have high power and interests associated with the project, are the people or organizations that are fully engaged with the project. When trying to generate strategic change, this community is the target of any operation.

Answer option B is incorrect. A salience model classifies stakeholders based on their power, urgency, and legitimacy.

Answer option C is incorrect. A power/influence grid groups the stakeholders based on their power and influence.

Answer option D is incorrect. A communications matrix simply maps which stakeholder need to communicate with other stakeholders.

The schedule variance for a project can be found by subtracting the planned value from the earned value. In this instance, it would be as follows:

SV = EV - PV

=(0.85*9,850,400) - (0.95*9,850,400)

= 8,372,840 - 9,357,880

=-985,040

Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target.

Answer option B is incorrect. $130,901 is the cost variance.

Answer option A is incorrect. $163,626 is the variance at completion for this project.

Answer option D is incorrect. 0.16 is the difference between the schedule performance index of .84 and a perfect schedule.

The best answer is to make certain quality control happens in the project. This means reviewing past work and ensuring that future inspections are met.

Answer option A is incorrect. Removing the lag time does not solve the problem. It actually removes quality control requirements.

Answer option C is incorrect. Only inspecting future work for quality control ignores potential past quality issues in the project.

Answer option D is incorrect. While this answer is technically correct, it does not address the quality faults that may be creeping into the project deliverables.

The various group creativity techniques are as follows: Brainstorming: It is a technique used to generate and collect multiple ideas related to the project and product requirements. Nominal group technique: It is a technique used to enhance brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or prioritization. Delphi technique: It is a techniques used to identify potential risk. In this technique, the responses are gathered via a questionnaire from different experts and their inputs are organized according to their contents. Idea/mind mapping: It is a technique used to map the ideas generated by brainstorming to reflect the commonality and differences in understanding and generating new ideas. Affinity diagram: It is a technique used to allow a large number of ideas to be sorted into groups for review and analysis.

The integrated change control process reviews proposed changes and determines what effect the change will have on the entire project. This includes scope, time, cost, quality, human resources, communication, risk, and procurement. Integrated change control is a way to manage the changes incurred during a project. It is a method that manages reviewing the suggestions for changes and utilizing the tools and techniques to evaluate whether the change should be approved or rejected. Integrated change control is a primary component of the project's change control system that examines the affect of a proposed change on the entire project.

Answer option A is incorrect. Scope change control focuses only on the effect of the change on the project scope.

Answer option B is incorrect. Schedule change control focuses only on the effect of the change on the schedule.

Answer option D is incorrect. The Change Control Board is a committee of key stakeholders, usually management, the project manager, and the project customer, to evaluate proposed changes. This board, however, is not a project process.

The best answer for this question is a template. When projects adapt previous project plans for the current project, it is an example of a project template. Template is an activity list or a part of the activity list taken from the previous project and used in a new project.

Answer option D is incorrect. A parametric estimate is an estimate that uses a parameter to predict the costs of the project, such as cost per network drop or cost per software license. Parametric estimating technique utilizes the statistical relationship that exists between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables.

Answer option A is incorrect. Expert judgment is not the best choice for this question. Expert judgment is a technique based on a set of criteria that has been acquired in a specific knowledge area or product area. It is obtained when the project manager or project team requires specialized knowledge that they do not possess. Expert judgment involves people most familiar with the work of creating estimates. Preferably, the project team member who will be doing the task should complete the estimates. Expert judgment is applied when performing administrative closure activities, and experts should ensure the project or phase closure is performed to the appropriate standards.

Answer option B is incorrect. Analogous is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameter, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar activity as the basis for estimation of the same parameter for a future activity. It is a top-down estimating technique and is a form of expert judgment. It provides a lower degree of accuracy than other estimating techniques. This technique is primarily used when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project or program.

The application area is defined as a type of project that comprises common components important in such projects, but are not required or present in all projects. The application area is defined in terms of either the product or the type of customer or industry sector.

Project monitoring should be worked out to verify all the working actions, including investments. Project monitoring helps the project staff to know how things are going, as well as giving early warnings of possible troubles and difficulties. The methods used in monitoring a project are as follows:

1.Reports: Reports will help to identify the progress and problems easily and early. Reports must be completed in a standardized form at regular, predetermined intervals by all the team members. Reports should be short and brief.

2.Diaries: It is a helpful way of recording information.

3.Finances: An understanding of the basic concepts of project fianance are important in making a project. Careful budgeting and planning will provide a great help in finance. 4.Meeting: There should be periodic meeting of team members to resolve the issues. This will help to monitor the problems easily and efficiently.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is the information that is used for monitoring to be useful. It is not a monitoring method.

The resource calendar defines when and how long a resource will be utilized. Not all resources are human - facilities, equipment, and other things are resources that must be scheduled. A resource calendar is used to make sure that work resources (people and equipment) are scheduled only when they are available for work. They affect a specific resource or category of resources. By default, the working time settings in the resource calendar are the same as in the project calendar. However, a user can customize the resource calendar to show individual schedule information, such as vacations, leaves of absence, or equipment maintenance time.

Answer option B is incorrect. The project scope would not address resource utilization.

Answer option A is incorrect. The project schedule is not the best answer for this question. The project schedule is an in depth plan of the important project phases, activities, milestones, tasks, and the resources allocated to each task.

Answer option C is incorrect. The project calendar documents when the project work will take place, not the utilization of resources.

The Identify Stakeholders process identifies all people or organizations that are impacted by the project. It also documents relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, and impact on project success. Stakeholder register and stakeholder management strategy are outputs of this process.

Answer option C is incorrect. Project charter is one of the inputs of the Identify Stakeholders process.

Answer option A is incorrect. Scope baseline is one of the outputs of the Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) process.

Answer option B is incorrect. Project scope statement is one of the outputs of the Define Scope process.

The judgmental forecasting method incorporates intuitive judgments, opinions and subjective probability estimates. Some examples of judgmental forecasting are as follows:

Composite forecasts

Surveys

Delphi method

Scenario building

Technology forecasting

Forecast by analogy

Answer option C is incorrect. Autoregressive moving average is an example of the causal/econometric method.

The risk owner is the individual on the project team that is closest to the risk event. The risk owner can be an individual or an organization responsible for implementing risk responses or contingency plan. The risk owner should be empowered with the ability to respond to the risk as it was planned.

Answer option B is incorrect. Harry is the project manager and likely would not be the risk owner as well.

Answer option C is incorrect. The project sponsor authorizes the project but does not participate in execution of the project.

Answer option D is incorrect. While a subject matter expert may be the risk owner on some occasions, he would not be the risk owner on every occasion.

Terri is using the critical path method in this example. The question acknowledges that Terri has identified float and the critical path, but it makes no mention of the availability of project resources - something the critical chain method focuses on. Critical Path Method, abbreviated CPM, or Critical Path Analysis, is a mathematically based algorithm for scheduling a set of project activities. It is an important tool for effective project management. It provides the following benefits: Provides the graphical view of the project. Predicts the time required to complete the project. Shows which activities are critical to maintain the schedule and which are not. CPM models the activities and events of a project as a network. Activities are depicted as nodes on the network, and events that signify the beginning or ending of activities are depicted as arcs or lines between the nodes.

Answer option A is incorrect. The question does not indicate that Terri is concerned with the availability of project resources - as she would be if she were using the critical chain method.

Answer option B is incorrect. The risk analysis method is not a valid scheduling technique.

Answer option C is incorrect. Activity on the arrow method is not being described in this question.

The schedule performance index can be found by dividing the earned value by the planned value. In this instance, it is $180,000 / $247,500 for a value of .73. Schedule performance index (SPI) is the measure of schedule efficiency on a project. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. SPI is the ratio of earned value to planned value. The SPI is calculated based on the following formula: SPI = Earned Value (EV) / Planned Value (PV) If the SPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The SPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is the schedule variance formula of EV-PV.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the TCPI formula of 1.04.

Answer option B is incorrect. This is the VAC formula with a result of -$27,500.

An external dependency is any nonproject activity that is external to the project but has a direct impact on the project activities. An external dependency may be an inspector or any agency that may have to give prior approval before the project can move forward.

Answer option B is incorrect. Required dependency is not a valid term to describe a dependency.

Answer option A is incorrect. Mandatory dependencies describe the required order in which the project work must take place - such as foundation before framing, or the operating system installed before the application may be installed.

Answer option C is incorrect. Discretionary dependencies describe the optional order of the project work, such as painting the walls before installing the carpet.

According to the PMBOK, automated scheduling tools expedite the scheduling process. The scheduling tool is used in combination with manual methods or further project management software to carry out the schedule network analysis to produce an updated project schedule.

Answer option C is incorrect. The project management information system is the complete project management software package beyond just the scheduling portion.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is not a valid answer.

Answer option A is incorrect. While the software may be made available as a part of organizational process assets, the best answer is the scheduling tool.

Fred should add lag time to each painting activity. Since lag time is waiting time, Fred will have to wait twenty-four hours after the priming is finished before he can start painting. What is a lag? A lag directs a delay in the successor activity. Lags require the dependent activity to have added either to the start date or to the finish date of the activity. For example, in a project of making radio-controlled airplanes, after applying glue and pasting stickers, it requires twenty-four hours to dry the glue. Any activity can be started after that only. This period, of twenty-four hours, is a lag.

Answer option C is incorrect. There is no reason to add an intermediary task as waiting. Adding lag time is the most appropriate as there are fewer activities to manage.

Answer option D is incorrect. Priming all of the room first and then painting all of the rooms would cause Fred to readjust the entire sequencing of activities. In addition, we do not know the reason why Fred has scheduled all the rooms to be primed and then painted. There may be successor activities in the project that need to enter each room, such as carpeting, as soon as a room has been painted. If that were the case the additional activities would have to wait for all of the priming to be completed and then the sequential rooms to be painted before they could start.

Answer option A is incorrect. Lead time actually moves activities closer together rather than farther apart. Lead time would cause the painting and priming activities to overlap, something that Fred does not want to happen. What is a lead? A lead allows an acceleration of the successor activity. It works just the opposite of lag. For example, in a software application project, before designing is fully completed for first phase, a program development group can start this phase programming. This overlapping of timing is a lead.

The estimate to complete is about knowing how much more money the project will need to complete its objectives. The estimate to complete (ETC) is the expected cost needed to complete all the remaining work for a scheduled activity, a group of activities, or the project. ETC helps project managers predict what the final cost of the project will be upon completion. The formula for the ETC is EAC- AC. The EAC is BAC/CPI. Here it is,

CPI = EV/AC

= (0.20*2,816,000)/495,000

= 563200/495,000

= 1.1378

EAC = BAC/ CPI

= 2,816,000/1.1378

= 2,474,952 (Approx)

ETC = EAC - AC

= 2,474,952 - 495,000

= 1,979,952

Answer options C and A are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

Answer option D is incorrect. This is the estimate at completion based on the current project performance.

The schedule performance index is found by dividing the earned value by the planned value. In this instance, the planned value is ten percent more than where the project is forty percent of the budget at completion. Schedule performance index (SPI) is the measure of schedule efficiency on a project. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. SPI is the ratio of earned value to planned value. The SPI is calculated based on the following formula: SPI = Earned Value (EV) / Planned Value (PV) If the SPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The SPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.

Answer option C is incorrect. 0.95 is the project's cost performance index.

Answer options A and D are incorrect. An index is a decimal value.

A stakeholder analysis matrix is a simple table that identifies stakeholders, their attitude towards the project, their perceived threats and concerns, and strategies the project manager can use to gain stakeholder support and remove obstacles.

Answer option A is incorrect. Stakeholder identification tools are not a precise answer for this question.

Answer option D is incorrect. The communications management plan is a broad plan and may reference the stakeholder analysis matrix, but it is not the best answer for this question.

Answer option B is incorrect. In some cases the project manager could rely on expert judgment, but in all projects the project manager can use a stakeholder analysis matrix.

Parkinson's Law states that the work will expand to fulfill the time allotted to it. When you allow five percent additional time per activity the work will expand to consume the additional time that has been allotted to the project task. In other words, activities will not be completed early even if there are no errors or risks.

Answer options B, D, and C are incorrect. These are not the valid definitions of Parkinson's Law.

What-if scenario analysis explains the analysis of the question "What if the situation represented by scenario 'X' happens?". This What-If Scenario Analysis shortly named as WIS

A. A schedule network analysis is performed using the schedule to compute the different scenarios, such as extending specific engineering durations, or delaying a major component delivery. Businesses use what-if scenarios to determine the effect different costs or investments have on profit and other financial indicators.

Answer option A is incorrect. The schedule analysis is the review of the schedule, but does not examine other possibilities for completing the project work.

Answer option D is incorrect. The root cause analysis helps to determine the reasons why the project is running late.

Answer option B is incorrect. The resource leveling causes the project's duration to increase. It is a technique that resolves resource conflicts by delaying tasks within their slack allowances. The resource leveling is the process in which project teams come across problems when developing their project schedules.

The stakeholder register does not contain the project management team's classification information. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project.

Answer options D, C, and A are incorrect. These are the parts of the stakeholder register.

The level of effort term describes the ongoing maintenance associated with the project work, but not a contribution to the deliverables of the project work. Level of Effort (LOE) is a project activity which must be done to support other work activities or the entire project effort. It usually consists of short amounts of work which must be repeated periodically. LOE is used to define the amount of work performance within a period of time and is measured in man days or man hours per day/week/month.

Answer option B is incorrect. Discrete effort describes the activities that can be linked directly to the project work packages.

Answer option A is incorrect. Project management overhead is an example of apportioned effort.

Answer option D is incorrect. The cost of conformance to quality describes the dues, such as the subscription for the anti-virus software that must be spent, so the project can reach its objectives.

If Activity B uses seven days of float, which it can, it does not allow Activity D, G, or J to have any float available. This is because the total duration of path ABDGJK cannot exceed 30 days, the duration of the project. If Activity B uses the seven days of float, then the path meets the project's duration at Day 30.

Answer options B and A are incorrect. These are not the valid calculation.

Answer option C is incorrect. Seven represents the amount of float available on Activity G before Activity B uses the available float.

A scheduler schedules the constraints for the project into phases with respect to the time and resources available. He can be hired from outside a company, or from within a company. The basic roles of a scheduler are as follows: Feasibility Planning: A scheduler is the time management expert who paints a picture of the project. He develops a strategy for delivery and to gain consensus. Execution Schedule: A scheduler works with the project team to optimize and refine the schedule until an agreed schedule has been developed. Performance Control: A schedule is maintained by the scheduler who optimizes outcomes and instructs the project team on their presentation. It is important that the scheduler be aware of the changes and trends related to the project delivery.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the skill possessed by the project manager.

The milestone list is the best answer. A milestone list provides a sequence of indicators about project progress to date and achievements or goals, which are to be achieved. The milestone list is used in project management as an indication of progress through the achievement of a major project accomplishment. It is a project document that is not part of the project management plan. The list contains all the project milestones along with information indicating whether they are mandatory to achieve or not.

Answer option A is incorrect. The scope baseline is a collection of the project scope, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary.

Answer option D is incorrect. The project schedule management plan is not the best answer, as the milestone list is the most direct result.

Answer option C is incorrect. The project charter is not the best answer for identifying the milestones.

The to-complete performance index shows the likelihood of reaching the project objectives based on the current performance. The formula is (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC) for a result of 1.02. The higher the value over 1 the less likely the project is to reach its objectives based on the current performance.To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EA

C. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows: TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}

Answer option B is incorrect. This is the cost performance index for this project.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the expected variance at completion.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a valid answer for this question.