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  • Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician
  • Last Update: May 29, 2024
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PCCET Practice Exam Questions with Answers Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician Certification

Question # 6

A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?

A.

whaling

B.

phishing

C.

pharming

D.

spam

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Question # 7

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Dedicated Networks

C.

Dedicated Hosts

D.

Multiplexing

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Question # 8

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

A.

STIX

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

WildFire

D.

AutoFocus

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Question # 9

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

A.

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

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Question # 10

Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)

A.

They can be accessed by traffic from the internet.

B.

They are located in the internal network.

C.

They can expose servers in the internal network to attacks.

D.

They are isolated from the internal network.

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Question # 11

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

PCCET question answer

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Question # 12

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

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Question # 13

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

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Question # 14

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

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Question # 15

Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

A.

Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.

B.

Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.

C.

Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.

D.

Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.

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Question # 16

Which key component is used to configure a static route?

A.

router ID

B.

enable setting

C.

routing protocol

D.

next hop IP address

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Question # 17

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

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Question # 18

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

A.

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

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Question # 19

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

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Question # 20

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

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Question # 21

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

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Question # 22

What is required for a SIEM to operate correctly to ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake?

A.

connectors and interfaces

B.

infrastructure and containers

C.

containers and developers

D.

data center and UPS

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Question # 23

Match each tunneling protocol to its definition.

PCCET question answer

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Question # 24

Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?

A.

You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.

B.

You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.

C.

You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.

D.

You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.

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Question # 25

Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

A.

Statistical-based

B.

Knowledge-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Anomaly-based

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Question # 26

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

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Question # 27

Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

A.

UDP

B.

MAC

C.

SNMP

D.

NFS

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Question # 28

In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

On-premises

D.

IaaS

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Question # 29

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

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Question # 30

What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)

A.

It encrypts user data.

B.

It cannot be detected by antivirus because of its masking techniques.

C.

It takes control of the operating system.

D.

It steals personal information.

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Question # 31

Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.

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Question # 32

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

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Question # 33

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

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Question # 34

A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Question # 35

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

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Question # 36

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

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Question # 37

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

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Question # 38

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

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Question # 39

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

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Question # 40

Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

A.

North-South traffic

B.

Intrazone traffic

C.

East-West traffic

D.

Interzone traffic

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Question # 41

Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

A.

Benign

B.

Tolerated

C.

Sanctioned

D.

Secure

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Question # 42

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

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Question # 43

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

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Question # 44

Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

A.

technique

B.

patch

C.

vulnerability

D.

exploit

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Question # 45

At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?

A.

Network

B.

Physical

C.

Transport

D.

Data Link

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Question # 46

Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?

A.

Proxy

B.

Stateful

C.

Stateless

D.

Application

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Question # 47

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

A.

endpoint antivirus software

B.

strong endpoint passwords

C.

endpoint disk encryption

D.

endpoint NIC ACLs

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