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Practice Free Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the Paloalto Networks Practitioner Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free Practitioner Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

What type of attack redirects the traffic of a legitimate website to a fake website?

A.

Watering hole

B.

Pharming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Whaling

Question # 7

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

A.

exploitation

B.

actions on the objective

C.

command and control

D.

installation

Question # 8

Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?

A.

Elastic scalability

B.

5G

C.

External dynamic lists

D.

Log export

Question # 9

Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?

A.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

Security as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Authentication as a Service

Question # 10

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?

A.

Virtual

B.

Container

C.

Physical

D.

SASE

Question # 11

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

Question # 12

Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?

A.

SIM

B.

SIEM

C.

UEBA

D.

SOAR

Question # 13

What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?

A.

Frequent database updates

B.

Support of a DLP device

C.

API integration with a sandbox

D.

Enabling quality of service

Question # 14

Which of these ports is normally associated with HTTPS?

A.

443

B.

5050

C.

25

D.

80

Question # 15

At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?

A.

Network

B.

Physical

C.

Transport

D.

Data Link

Question # 16

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.

Question # 17

In the network diagram below, which device is the router?

Practitioner question answer

A.

A

B.

C

C.

D

D.

B

Question # 18

What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?

A.

They enable companies to use cloud-native tools and methodologies.

B.

They are used for data storage in cloud environments.

C.

They serve as a template manager for software applications and services.

D.

They are used to orchestrate virtual machines (VMs) in cloud environments.

Question # 19

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

Question # 20

Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?

A.

3G

B.

Z-wave

C.

802.11ax

D.

C-band

Question # 21

On which security principle does virtualization have positive effects?

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

non-repudiation

Question # 22

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

Question # 23

In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

A.

Computer

B.

Switch

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Cloud

Question # 24

Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

A.

DNS Security

B.

URL Filtering

C.

WildFire

D.

Threat Prevention

Question # 25

What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)

A.

Lateral movement

B.

Communication with covert channels

C.

Deletion of critical data

D.

Privilege escalation

Question # 26

What is required for a SIEM to operate correctly to ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake?

A.

connectors and interfaces

B.

infrastructure and containers

C.

containers and developers

D.

data center and UPS

Question # 27

Match the description with the VPN technology.

Practitioner question answer

Question # 28

The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?

A.

physical

B.

platform

C.

data

D.

infrastructure

Question # 29

Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

Practitioner question answer

Practitioner question answer

Question # 30

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

A.

MineMeld

B.

AutoFocus

C.

WildFire

D.

Cortex XDR

Question # 31

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

Practitioner question answer

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Question # 32

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Question # 33

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

A.

STIX

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

WildFire

D.

AutoFocus

Question # 34

A native hypervisor runs:

A.

with extreme demands on network throughput

B.

only on certain platforms

C.

within an operating system’s environment

D.

directly on the host computer’s hardware

Question # 35

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

A.

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

Question # 36

You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

A.

Whaling

B.

Spamming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Phishing

Question # 37

What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?

A.

DHCP markings

B.

Decryption

C.

Port translation

D.

Traffic shaping

Question # 38

Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

A.

Hub

B.

Layer 2 switch

C.

Router

D.

Wireless access point

Question # 39

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

Question # 40

Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

A.

Event Viewer

B.

Timeline inspector

C.

Task Manager

D.

Task Scheduler

Question # 41

Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

A.

CSPM

B.

ASM

C.

EDR

D.

CVVP

Question # 42

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

Question # 43

What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

A.

Decreased connection quality within a local area network

B.

Increased sharing of data through the internet

C.

Higher attack surface due to mobility

D.

Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security

Question # 44

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

Question # 45

What are two functions of an active monitoring system? (Choose two.)

A.

Preventing specific changes from being affected in the system

B.

Determining system health using unaltered system data

C.

Detecting micro-services in a default configuration

D.

Using probes to establish potential load issues

Question # 46

What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

A.

Assessing severity levels

B.

Identifying misconfigurations

C.

Unifying cloud provider services

D.

Detecting and correlating anomalies

Question # 47

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

Question # 48

Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

Practitioner question answer

Question # 49

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

Question # 50

Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?

A.

Cloud

B.

Physical

C.

Virtual

D.

Containerized

Question # 51

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

Question # 52

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

Question # 53

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

Question # 54

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

Question # 55

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

Question # 56

Match each tunneling protocol to its definition.

Practitioner question answer

Question # 57

Which technique uses file sharing or an instant messenger client such as Meebo running over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?

A.

Use of non-standard ports

B.

Hiding within SSL encryption

C.

Port hopping

D.

Tunneling within commonly used services

Question # 58

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

A.

VPN Concentrator

B.

Content Identification

C.

Segmentation Platform

D.

Web Application Zone

Question # 59

Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?

A.

Application allow list

B.

DNS Security

C.

URL filtering

D.

Dynamic access control

Question # 60

Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?

A.

Group policy

B.

Stateless

C.

Stateful

D.

Static packet-filter

Question # 61

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Question # 62

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

A.

Frame

B.

Segment

C.

Packet

D.

Data

Question # 63

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

Question # 64

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?

A.

visibility, governance, and compliance

B.

network protection

C.

dynamic computing

D.

compute security

Question # 65

What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)

A.

Securing individual devices

B.

Matching risks to signatures

C.

Scanning for excessive logins

D.

Analyzing access management logs

Question # 66

What protocol requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network?

A.

EIGRP

B.

Static

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

Question # 67

Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

A.

North-South traffic

B.

Intrazone traffic

C.

East-West traffic

D.

Interzone traffic

Question # 68

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

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