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Practice Free Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Exam Questions Answers With Explanation

We at Crack4sure are committed to giving students who are preparing for the Paloalto Networks Practitioner Exam the most current and reliable questions . To help people study, we've made some of our Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) exam materials available for free to everyone. You can take the Free Practitioner Practice Test as many times as you want. The answers to the practice questions are given, and each answer is explained.

Question # 6

Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?

A.

You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.

B.

You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.

C.

You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.

D.

You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.

Question # 7

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

Question # 8

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

Question # 9

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

A.

MineMeld

B.

AutoFocus

C.

WildFire

D.

Cortex XDR

Question # 10

Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)

A.

It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.

B.

It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.

C.

It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.

D.

It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.

Question # 11

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

Question # 12

Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

A.

Knowledge-based

B.

Signature-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Database-based

Question # 13

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

A.

cybercriminals

B.

state-affiliated groups

C.

hacktivists

D.

cyberterrorists

Question # 14

Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

A.

DNS Security

B.

URL Filtering

C.

WildFire

D.

Threat Prevention

Question # 15

What does SIEM stand for?

A.

Security Infosec and Event Management

B.

Security Information and Event Management

C.

Standard Installation and Event Media

D.

Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring

Question # 16

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

Question # 17

Which option is a Prisma Access security service?

A.

Compute Security

B.

Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)

C.

Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)

D.

Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)

Question # 18

Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

A.

Impact

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Data exfiltration

D.

Persistence

Question # 19

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

Question # 20

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

Question # 21

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

A.

Cortex XSOAR

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

AutoFocus

D.

Cortex XDR

Question # 22

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

Question # 23

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

A.

Shortest Path

B.

Hop Count

C.

Split Horizon

D.

Path Vector

Question # 24

Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

A.

Event Viewer

B.

Timeline inspector

C.

Task Manager

D.

Task Scheduler

Question # 25

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.

Question # 26

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

Question # 27

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

Question # 28

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

Practitioner question answer

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Question # 29

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

Question # 30

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

Question # 31

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

A.

User-ID

B.

Device-ID

C.

App-ID

D.

Content-ID

Question # 32

Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?

A.

Group policy

B.

Stateless

C.

Stateful

D.

Static packet-filter

Question # 33

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

A.

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

B.

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

C.

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

D.

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

E.

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

Question # 34

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Question # 35

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

A.

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

Question # 36

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

Question # 37

Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

A.

Statistical-based

B.

Knowledge-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Anomaly-based

Question # 38

In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

A.

Computer

B.

Switch

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Cloud

Question # 39

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

A.

Evil twin

B.

Jasager

C.

Parager

D.

Mirai

Question # 40

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

Question # 41

Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

A.

Allowance

B.

Authorization

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

Question # 42

What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?

A.

DHCP markings

B.

Decryption

C.

Port translation

D.

Traffic shaping

Question # 43

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

Question # 44

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

Question # 45

How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?

A.

costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources

B.

slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development

C.

reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code

D.

prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code

Question # 46

A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.

Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

A.

Whaling

B.

Vishing

C.

Pharming

D.

Angler phishing

Question # 47

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

Question # 48

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

Question # 49

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

A.

STIX

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

WildFire

D.

AutoFocus

Question # 50

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

A.

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

Question # 51

In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

A.

False-positive

B.

True-negative

C.

False-negative

D.

True-positive

Question # 52

A native hypervisor runs:

A.

with extreme demands on network throughput

B.

only on certain platforms

C.

within an operating system’s environment

D.

directly on the host computer’s hardware

Question # 53

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

Question # 54

Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

A.

Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.

B.

Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.

C.

Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.

D.

Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.

Question # 55

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?

A.

Virtual

B.

Container

C.

Physical

D.

SASE

Question # 56

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

Question # 57

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

Question # 58

What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)

A.

Convincing an employee that they are also an employee

B.

Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive

C.

Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call

D.

Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page

Question # 59

What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

A.

requires the use of only one cloud service provider

B.

enables on-demand network services

C.

requires the use of two or more cloud service providers

D.

defines any network service

Question # 60

Match the description with the VPN technology.

Practitioner question answer

Question # 61

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

Question # 62

What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)

A.

Completely isolated system

B.

Scripting of manual tasks

C.

Consistent incident handling

D.

Long-term retention of logs

Question # 63

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

Question # 64

Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

A.

DLP

B.

CASB

C.

DNS Security

D.

URL filtering

Question # 65

Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

A.

CSPM

B.

ASM

C.

EDR

D.

CVVP

Question # 66

In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?

A.

weaponization

B.

reconnaissance

C.

exploitation

D.

delivery

Question # 67

Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

A.

Setting up a web page for harvesting user credentials

B.

Laterally transferring the file through a network after being granted access

C.

Embedding the file inside a pdf to be downloaded and installed

D.

Corruption of security device memory spaces while file is in transit

Question # 68

A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?

A.

whaling

B.

phishing

C.

pharming

D.

spam

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