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  • Exam Name: CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst
  • Last Update: Sep 12, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 639
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CSQA Practice Exam Questions with Answers CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst Certification

Question # 6

For contracted software, detailing the obligations of both contractual parties within the contract addresses:

A.

What is done?

B.

Who does it?

C.

When it is done?

D.

How it is done?

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Question # 7

The optimal number of task force members is:

A.

1 - 3 members

B.

3 - 8 members

C.

8 - 10 members

D.

No limit

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Question # 8

To reduce the cost of quality, the QA Analyst could:

A.

Increase Build Cost

B.

Decrease Preventive Costs

C.

Increase Preventive Costs

D.

None of the above

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Question # 9

Process inventories can be developed by:

A.

Referencing existing manuals

B.

Conduct affinity group sessions

C.

Survey employees

D.

All of the above

E.

A and C above

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Question # 10

Which of the following Dynamic Testing techniques produces the highest defect yield?

A.

Sliver Testing

B.

Black-Box Testing

C.

White-Box Testing

D.

Thread Testing

E.

Incremental Testing

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Question # 11

If you were to read in a publication that an IT organization could build software at a rate of 4 lines of code per programmer hour, but in your organization you can only write 2 lines of code per programmer hour, what conclusion could you draw?

A.

My organization is less efficient than the other

B.

My organization’s programmers are not as well trained

C.

There is no accepted standard for lines of code

D.

My organization is a candidate for outsourcing

E.

My organization needs more experienced programmers

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Question # 12

The development of the approach for process deployment is much harder than the actual deployment of the process.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 13

Your CIO was very upset when she heard that the latest release of program X had 20% more defects found in production than was expected. She has ask you to identify what you believe caused this higher than expected level of defects. List the items you would include on a cause-and-effect diagram to help visualize, clarify, link, identify and classify possible causes of the high defect rate. Then, explain how you would use the diagram to get at root causes. (NOTE: You do NOT need to draw the diagram.)

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Question # 14

Describe the process for process management based on the PDCA cycle. List and explain the processes within each of the PDCA steps.

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Question # 15

Prior to TQM, the distinction between “little-Q” and “big-Q” was given by:

A.

Philip Crosby

B.

Edwards Deming

C.

Motorola

D.

Joseph Juran

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Question # 16

Auditors state that without strong environmental controls, the controls over processing business transactions probably will not be effective. Define the term “environmental controls”, give three examples of environmental controls, and then explain why weak environmental controls may cause the control over processing business transactions to be ineffective.

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Question # 17

If you were to download a software package, which had been developed and placed on the internet for general usage, the one thing you could not control is:

A.

Ability to test the software

B.

Defining the requirements

C.

Determining how the software will be used

D.

Training IT staff in how to use the software

E.

Deciding not to use the software

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Question # 18

Which of the following planning activities is associated with the quality planning question "where do we want to go"?

A.

Capabilities and Opportunity Planning

B.

Policies and Procedure Planning

C.

Priorities and Schedules Planning

D.

Objectives and Goals Planning

E.

Budgeting and Resource Planning

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Question # 19

How can quality be quantified? Provide an explanation and illustrate with an example.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

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Question # 20

Getting the right change installed at the right time is a responsibility of what type of software management?

A.

Software Risk Management

B.

Risk Management

C.

Defect Management

D.

Software Configuration Management

E.

Software Test Management

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Question # 21

Which of the following quality control activities is most effective in uncovering defects?

A.

Inspections

B.

Unit Testing

C.

Integration Testing

D.

System Testing

E.

Acceptance Testing

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Question # 22

What type of testing evaluates the completeness of the documentation associated with a software application?

A.

Verification testing

B.

Validation testing

C.

Testing by observing the demonstration of the software

D.

Parallel testing the operational COTS software versus the current method of processing

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Question # 23

Cause-and-effect graphing is a tool used to:

A.

Trace requirements

B.

Help determine root causes of problems in processes

C.

Determine what requirements have been covered

D.

Graph defects uncovered by cause

E.

Identifies the routines in which errors occur

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Question # 24

A good security mechanism should be:

A.

Complicated

B.

Complex

C.

Layered

D.

None of the above

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Question # 25

Special concerns during acceptance testing of software developed by a vendor are:

A.

Meets Specifications

B.

Adequate Test Data

C.

Preparation for Operation

D.

On Time

E.

All of the above

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Question # 26

Continuing process improvement techniques should be applied to which of the following IT work processes?

A.

Systems Development Process

B.

Software Testing Process

C.

Code Inspection Process

D.

Estimating Process

E.

All of the above

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Question # 27

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of Functional Testing?

A.

Potential of missing logical errors in software

B.

Its tests do not ensure that user requirements have been met

C.

Its tests may not mimic real-world situations

D.

None of the above

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Question # 28

Planning for system test process begins when:

A.

After coding phase

B.

At start of system testing phase

C.

At project start

D.

After design phase

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Question # 29

Which of the following would be considered a verification technique?

A.

Boundary Analysis

B.

Equivalence Partitioning

C.

Code Inspections

D.

Thread Testing

E.

Regression Testing

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Question # 30

Which of the following is the primary objective of a quality improvement program?

A.

Ensure our users are adequately trained in their work processes

B.

Reduce the defect rate in IT products and processes

C.

Identify the individuals responsible for poor quality

D.

Train workers in how to do quality work

E.

Identify processes that no longer work

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Question # 31

The primary responsibility of a quality program, from a consumer's standpoint, is that the product should be:

A.

Gold plated

B.

Is completed on time

C.

Fit for use by the end user or consumer

D.

Does not exceed budgeted costs

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Question # 32

An objective measure is a measure that can be obtained by:

A.

An individual's perception

B.

Counting

C.

All the above

D.

None of the above

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Question # 33

The first question of the six basic quality planning questions is, "Where are we?". Describe what should be addressed in:

1. Business or Activity Planning

2. Environment Planning

3. Capabilities and Opportunities Planning

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Question # 34

Baselines should NOT be conducted:

A.

To determine where detailed investigation is required

B.

To identify problems / areas for quality improvement

C.

To evaluate individual performance

D.

To compare against external organizations

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Question # 35

When maturing the management process, movement will be from:

A.

Product Focus to Process Focus

B.

Process Focus to Product Focus

C.

Team Focus to Product Focus

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Question # 36

Which of the following tools category has a mathematical focus and is related to data collection or interpretation?

A.

Management Tools

B.

Presentation Tools

C.

Statistical Tools

D.

None of the above

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Question # 37

ISO / IEC 15504: Process Assessment is formerly known as:

A.

PDCA

B.

SPICE

C.

ITIL

D.

ISMS

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Question # 38

The objective of a Pareto Chart is to:

A.

Show the present value of money

B.

Identify the cause of problems

C.

Rank the cause of problems by frequency

D.

Determine the return on investment

E.

Show the root cause of problems

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Question # 39

_________ includes periodically assessing project status, reassessing the documented risks, examining executed strategies that succeeded or failed, and considering new risks.

A.

Risk Monitoring

B.

Risk Resolution

C.

Risk Response Planning

D.

Risk Prioritization

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Question # 40

Explain why risk prioritization is important and give two methods used to prioritize risk.

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Question # 41

Describe the phases of Quality Function Maturation and the typical time period for each phase.

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Question # 42

There are many benefits associated with maturing work processes. As work processes mature, which of the following would be expected to decrease:

A.

Training

B.

Management Support

C.

Defect Rates

D.

Customer Satisfaction

E.

Confidence in the Process

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Question # 43

Deming's quality principles include the elimination of fear. Explain three specific ways that the software quality assurance function might help to eliminate fear.

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Question # 44

As per the 'Quality Leader Behavior Model', quality leader should NOT:

A.

Empower others

B.

Supervise and identify defects

C.

Coach, train and educate

D.

Remove obstacles to performance

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Question # 45

The objective of estimation sampling is to select a sample, which represents the universe as closely as possible and is a snapshot of the universe. Estimation will permit the Quality Assurance Analyst to inform management of the size or severity of a problem without examining the entire universe. The data gathered in the sample is extrapolated to the entire universe.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 46

When should the Test Manager or Test Team Lead join the Software Project Team?

A.

By the beginning of the requirements phase

B.

After the requirements have been gathered

C.

When the design phase begins

D.

Before the developers start coding

E.

Before any testing starts

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Question # 47

A measure can be reliable, but invalid. An unreliable measure cannot be valid.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 48

The primary responsibility of a quality program, from a producer's standpoint, is that the product produced:

A.

Meets requirements

B.

Satisfies the customer

C.

Is completed on time

D.

Does not exceed budgeted costs

E.

All of the above

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Question # 49

As the management philosophy matures from 'authoritarian' to 'empowered teams', the role of a QA Analyst moves from 'quality control' to that of:

A.

Senior QA

B.

QA Manager

C.

Tester

D.

QA Consultant

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Question # 50

Desires and intents concerning intended objectives or products, should be set by:

A.

Management

B.

Quality Function

C.

Project Manager

D.

Quality Team

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Question # 51

Which of the following is NOT a QFD vertical deployment?

A.

Technology Deployment

B.

Reliability Deployment

C.

Customer Deployment

D.

Cost and Schedule Deployment

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Question # 52

Severity levels for defects should be defined at the start of the project:

A.

To maintain common understanding

B.

To assign severity of defects consistently

C.

To maintain common understanding and assign severity consistently

D.

None of the above

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Question # 53

For maturing the management process at Level 3, which of the following should be in focus?

A.

Employee Suggestion System

B.

End-user Feedback System

C.

Employee Surveys

D.

Quality Planning

E.

None of the above

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Question # 54

Within ISO 9001, Resource Management includes:

A.

Only Human Resources

B.

Only Work Environment

C.

Human and Infrastructure Resources

D.

Human, Infrastructure, Work Environment, and Facilities

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Question # 55

A process that is effected by an organization's board of directors, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of operations, reliability and financial reporting and compliance with applicable law and regulations is called:

A.

Corporate Governance

B.

System of Internal Control

C.

Code of Ethics

D.

Software Security

E.

Risk Analysis

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Question # 56

Which of the following factors should NOT be considered when defining a Control Method?

A.

Risk Severity

B.

Cost, Effort, and Cycle Time Impact

C.

Strength of the Control Method

D.

Unavailability of Appropriate Resources and People

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Question # 57

A "leader" and a "manager" are two terms that basically mean the same thing.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 58

Statement Coverage is:

A.

White-Box Testing

B.

Black-Box Testing

C.

Tree Testing

D.

Static Testing

E.

Functional Testing

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Question # 59

Unit Testing is normally associated with:

A.

White Box Testing

B.

Black Box Testing

C.

Regression Testing

D.

Purchased Software

E.

Code Inspections

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Question # 60

When there is modification to the structure of a system, which testing type should be used?

A.

Recovery Testing

B.

Cycle Testing

C.

Regression Testing

D.

Equivalency Class Testing

E.

Structural Testing

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Question # 61

Determining that the COTS software selected is compatible with the acquiring organization's computer environment addresses:

A.

Compatibility with other COTS software packages

B.

Compatibility with the acquiring organization's computer language

C.

Compatibility with the SEI CMMI level of the organization that built the COTS software

D.

Compatibility of the acquiring organization's acceptance test process

E.

Compatibility with the acquiring organization's hardware and operating system

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Question # 62

Management expresses their commitment to quality through:

A.

Total Quality Management

B.

Cost-of-Quality

C.

Quality Policy

D.

Vision

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Question # 63

Your company has been considering sending some of its IT development offshore. Upper management has heard that as much as 50% of software developed by offshore organizations fails to meet the expectations of the contracting organization. Upper management has asked you to list several potential problems/issues associated with offshore development projects and to suggest a strategy to prevent or mitigate the problems.

Describe the potential problems/issues and your strategy to prevent or mitigate the problems.

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Question # 64

Though priority assigned to a defect is usually subjective, but are dependent on user input(s) or factor(s) such as:

A.

Importance of the defect

B.

Resources available to fix

C.

Risk

D.

A and B

E.

A, B, and C

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Question # 65

Before defining a new process, the scope of the process should be identified. Element(s) for process scope is(are):

A.

High-Level Process Flow

B.

Major Deliverables and Stakeholders

C.

High-Level Process Flow and Major Deliverables

D.

High-Level Process Flow, Major Deliverables, and Stakeholders

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Question # 66

Boundary analysis techniques are used to create test cases that divide equivalence partitioned groups.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 67

Which of the following is NOT a component of a workbench? (A workbench is a graphic representation of a process.)

A.

Entrance Criteria (Inputs)

B.

Exit Criteria (Deliverables)

C.

Work Procedures

D.

Check Procedures

E.

Process Contract

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Question # 68

The objective for having a common body of knowledge for quality assurance is:

A.

Define needed skills

B.

Define a profession

C.

Basis for developing the examination

D.

Lead a profession

E.

All of the above

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Question # 69

Statistical Process Control is used to measure:

A.

Productivity

B.

Variance in Processing

C.

Compliance to Standards

D.

Defect Rates

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Question # 70

Within COTS software, attributes designed to "get you out of trouble" when you get into trouble is which aspect of a COTS software?

A.

Knowledge to Execute

B.

Understandability

C.

Quality of Communication

D.

Effectiveness of Help Routines

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Question # 71

Process mapping identifies or maps relationships with all the below mentioned activities except?

A.

Between processes and the organization's mission and goals

B.

Its process exit criteria and work products

C.

Its deliverables (products and services)

D.

Its functional units or roles (people)

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Question # 72

The user of the software product is not the only customer of a software project. List three other customer categories or groups, and explain how their perspectives should be represented in the various phases of the project life cycle process.

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Question # 73

There are two definitions of quality. Define and describe those two definitions of quality. Then list four approaches that you believe, if implemented, would help reconcile those two definitions so that they, in fact, became the same definition of quality.

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Question # 74

Listed below are the five levels of maturing quality control processes. Describe each level and give an example of a specific process that occurs at that level.

Level 1 - Validation

Level 2 - Verification

Level 3 - Defect Management

Level 4 - Statistical Process Control

Level 5 - Preventive Management

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Question # 75

Briefly describe the three categories of Quality Tools and give two examples of tools in each of these categories.

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Question # 76

The objective of integrating business and quality planning in a single planning cycle is to ensure that:

A.

Resources should be involved in both strategic and tactical planning

B.

Adequate resources and time are available to perform the quality activities.

C.

Individuals executing the business plan cannot differentiate the quality planning from the business planning.

D.

Both business staff and the quality staff should be involved in IT planning

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Question # 77

Acceptance Testing is normally designed and performed by:

A.

The Developer

B.

The Quality Control Manager

C.

The Product Development Manager

D.

The User

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Question # 78

Which level(s) of the organization should be involved in both establishing and using processes in their daily work?

A.

Senior

B.

Mid-level

C.

Junior

D.

All of the above

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Question # 79

Quality Assurance methods are usually considered:

A.

Detective

B.

Corrective

C.

Preventive

D.

Protective

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Question # 80

The following types of controls, which are designed to alert individuals to a process problem such as control totals assuring data transmissions are complete, are called:

A.

Preventive Controls

B.

Detective Controls

C.

Corrective Controls

D.

Quality Controls

E.

All of the above

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Question # 81

Which is the best positioning of a quality manager within the IT organization?

A.

Senior IT Manager

B.

Manager of Systems Programming

C.

Manager of Computer Operations

D.

Outside of the IT Function

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Question # 82

Which layer of management is the weakest link in a successful quality management program?

A.

Top

B.

Quality Champion

C.

Middle

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Question # 83

Risk has two attributes. One is magnitude and the other is:

A.

Frequency

B.

Cause

C.

Type

D.

Use

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Question # 84

When building a quality environment, one of top management's major responsibilities must be:

A.

Setting the ground rules of who can participate

B.

Developing the vision / values and mission statement for the company

C.

Determining who should sit on each of the quality boards

D.

Ensuring that the quality meetings do not last more than one hour

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Question # 85

Which of the following is / are level(s) for maturing the Deliverables Processes?

A.

Constraint Requirements

B.

Business Requirements

C.

Relational Requirements

D.

All of the above

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Question # 86

Which of the following is considered a subjective measure?

A.

Lines of code

B.

Customer satisfaction

C.

Mean time to failure

D.

Hours to write a thousand lines of code

E.

Defect removal efficiency

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Question # 87

Process ___________ allows priorities to be set for defining or improving processes.

A.

Execution

B.

Management

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring

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Question # 88

The theory of levels of maturity is that organizations can skip a level if business needs require them to be at a higher maturity level.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 89

In which company was the concept known as "Just in Time" first implemented?

A.

Toyota

B.

Motorola

C.

Honda

D.

Microsoft

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Question # 90

Which of the following is not a process within Level 4 for maturing Quality Assurance Processes?

A.

Processes Aligned to Objectives

B.

Processes Integrated

C.

Process Optimization

D.

Process History Database

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Question # 91

A questionnaire has a question that rates "satisfaction" on a scale of 1 to 5 where 1 is poor satisfaction and 5 is high satisfaction. The data type for the variable "satisfaction" is:

A.

Ratio

B.

Ordinal

C.

Nominal

D.

Interval

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Question # 92

Which party(s) is responsible to ensure protection of intellectual property rights included within a contract for software development?

A.

The contracting organization

B.

The organization that will develop software

C.

Both the contracting organization and the organization that will develop the software

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Question # 93

-- Exhibit –

CSQA question answer

-- Exhibit --

The diagram is called a:

A.

Run Chart

B.

Pie Chart

C.

Bar Chart

D.

Pareto Chart

E.

Control Chart

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Question # 94

The purpose of a security awareness program is to achieve all of the following objectives, EXCEPT:

A.

Have individuals understand their security roles or responsibility

B.

Have individuals understand the organization's security policy

C.

Have individuals implement security practices into their software

D.

Have individuals understand the security controls in place to protect IT resources

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Question # 95

During a review, both the producer and product are reviewed.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 96

It is very easy to distinguish between accidental loss and intentional loss, with respect to security activities.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 97

In transaction processing, the accuracy and completeness of database storage, data security and privacy, error handling, backup, recovery, and retention is governed by:

A.

Transaction Origination Controls

B.

Transaction Processing Controls

C.

Transaction Output Controls

D.

Database Storage and Retrieval Controls

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Question # 98

Laws and regulations affecting the products produced and operated are generally addressed in which planning activity:

A.

Business or Activity Planning

B.

Environment Planning

C.

Capabilities Planning

D.

Assumptions Planning

E.

Policies Planning

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Question # 99

As the continuum of work processes move or evolve towards creative processes, the mix of written procedures and people skills change.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 100

Which is generally considered the most important step in the process of contracting for software development?

A.

Selecting an outside organization as a contractor

B.

Contract negotiations

C.

Operation for maintenance

D.

Budget Criteria

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Question # 101

__________ are used to determine whether the standards have been adhered to or not.

A.

Processes

B.

Templates

C.

Checklists

D.

Guidelines

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Question # 102

Quality Control practices should be performed during which of the following product phases?

A.

Product Acquisition

B.

Product Development

C.

Product Operation

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Question # 103

Which of the following is one of the two major objectives for establishing a security baseline?

A.

Developing a security budget

B.

Determining the effectiveness of the security program

C.

Determine where security training is necessary

D.

Developing a security policy

E.

As a basis for organizing a security function

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Question # 104

The level of quality can vary significantly from project to project. These levels of quality, which can be quantified and measured, are called:

A.

Defect Density

B.

Quality Attributes

C.

Quality Control

D.

Quality Assurance

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Question # 105

A test case tested data values at 0, 9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51, 100. Which black-box technique was most likely used to generate these data points.

A.

Error Guessing

B.

Boundary Analysis

C.

Equivalence Partitioning

D.

Data Sampling

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Question # 106

Which of the following would be considered an important prerequisite to quality planning?

A.

Establishing a Quality Assurance Function

B.

Defining the IT Vision, Mission, and Goals

C.

Defining the Quality Assurance Mission and Goals

D.

Adopting the Six Sigma Concept

E.

Calculating Cost-of-Quality for the IT Organization

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Question # 107

Which of the following is a level for maturing the Quality Assurance Processes?

A.

Controlling

B.

Verification

C.

Business Requirements

D.

Relational Requirements

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Question # 108

COQ is also known as 'Price of Non-Conformance'.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 109

Which of the following is considered a metric?

A.

Lines of code

B.

Hours worked

C.

Pages of documentation

D.

Mean time to failure

E.

Number of staff assigned to a project

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Question # 110

Which of the following is considered a product measure?

A.

Overall development time

B.

Average level of experience of development staff

C.

Rate time

D.

Quality

E.

Time spent fixing errors

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Question # 111

Which of the following activities should occur before processes are defined to ensure that the most critical processes are defined first.

A.

Do

B.

Design

C.

Implementation

D.

Check

E.

None of the above

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Question # 112

Which of the following should be kept under version control?

A.

Code

B.

Procedures

C.

Plans

D.

Operating Systems

E.

All of the above

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Question # 113

If a programmer follows a series of steps to write a computer program, the programmer is following:

A.

A Workbench

B.

A Procedure

C.

A Standard

D.

Entry Criteria

E.

Exit Criteria

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Question # 114

When making a judgment while compliance monitoring, experience plays a larger role when:

A.

The standard is objective

B.

The standard is subjective

C.

Standards should not be a factor

D.

None of the above

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Question # 115

While unit testing should be done, it is not necessary to spend the time and effort to develop and document the unit test plan and cases because it is conducted by the developers themselves.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 116

Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?

A.

Automatic

B.

Auditors

C.

Peer Reviews

D.

Supervisory

E.

Third Party

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Question # 117

Testing to determine whether current changes have adversely affected previous functionality is called:

A.

Regression Testing

B.

System Testing

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Acceptance Testing

E.

Integration Testing

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Question # 118

Tracking the status of each requirement throughout the development and test phases is called:

A.

Requirements Checking

B.

Requirements Verification

C.

In-Process Review

D.

Requirements Tracing

E.

Phase-End Review

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Question # 119

Conducting software inspections would be considered which of the following cost-of-quality categories?

A.

Prevention

B.

Failure

C.

Appraisal

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Question # 120

Which of the following statements completely interprets the 'Act' phase of PDCA cycle?

A.

Correct the abnormality and prevent its recurrence

B.

Correct the abnormality

C.

Prevent the recurrence of abnormality

D.

Follow quality control activities

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Question # 121

The core activity of Process Definition is not only defining the process but also:

A.

Performing walkthroughs of the process before publication

B.

Piloting the process

C.

Marketing the process

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Question # 122

Which of the following is NOT a QFD Horizontal Deployment?

A.

Functional Deployment

B.

Information Deployment

C.

Customer Deployment

D.

Task Deployment

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Question # 123

When listening to a speaker, the speaker's verbal, vocal, and body channels always convey the same message.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 124

The quality control function in an organization is responsible for identifying, documenting, and reporting defects to the appropriate individual/organization to act on those identified defects. To properly describe a defect you need to identify the attributes of the defect.

List below what you consider to be the five most important attributes/components of a defect, and explain why you believe that attribute/component is important.

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Question # 125

An inspection is a very detailed quality control practice that compares the work actually done against the specifications and standards. In performing an inspection, there are at least three different roles to be performed. List each of these roles below, and explain the purpose for each of the three roles you have identified.

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Question # 126

There are four main "testing stages" in a structured software development process. Name the four testing stages and describe what the primary purpose of that test stage is.

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Question # 127

A well-known benefit of process maturity is reduction in cycle time. Explain two ways by which cycle time reduces as process maturity increases.

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Question # 128

Quality factors, or quality attributes, are attributes of a software system that primarily describe the structural nature of the software. Four of these quality attributes are reliability, maintainability, reusability, and efficiency. Define each of these four attributes. Then, rank the four attributes in importance for a web based e-commerce application and explain why you chose these rankings.

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Question # 129

The “cost of quality” (COQ) is not the price of creating a quality product or service. It is the cost of NOT creating a quality product or service. Name and describe the three COQ categories. Provide one example of a cost associated with each COQ category.

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Question # 130

The project team in the XYZ Company's IT Department has been provided with a system development methodology. The methodology details the standards and procedures that are to be followed in building an application system. A project team assigned to build an application system followed those procedures exactly and met the standards. However, when the project was completed it was late, over-budget, and the users of that application were dissatisfied.

Provide four reasons that could have caused this project to fail.

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Question # 131

What is difference between structural and functional testing? State two advantages of both.

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Question # 132

The Quality Management Infrastructure is made up of three levels: the Quality Council, Management Committees, and Teams/Work Groups. Describe who typically makes up each of these three levels in the QM Infrastructure (e.g., top executives) and describe the purpose of each level.

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Question # 133

Good quality management principles state that any organization committed to quality should define its vision, values, and goals. For each of these: a) define the term; b) list who establishes the item (use job title); and c) give a brief example of the item.

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Question # 134

CobiT enables an enterprise to implement effective governance over IT. Briefly describe the CobiT Model.

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Question # 135

As more of an organization’s business goes online the need for security increases. As a quality assurance manager, your IT Director knows that security is comprised of technical controls and management controls. The technical controls such as virus protecting software are very complex and its effectiveness would be difficult to evaluate by the average quality assurance professional. However, quality assurance professionals should be able to evaluate the management controls over security. To accomplish this, your IT Director has asked you to develop a ten question checklist that could be used to determine whether or not adequate management security controls exist over online software systems.

List below the ten questions you would put on that checklist.

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Question # 136

What is independent monitoring and who can perform it?

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Question # 137

The IT staff must be aware, understand and embrace quality management principles and practices. List and explain four tactics (e.g., approaches / methods) you would use to communicate these concepts to your IT staff.

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Question # 138

Preventive controls act as a guide to help things happen as they should. This type of control is most desirable because it stops problems from occurring. List three preventive controls and describe why those controls are important.

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Question # 139

Describe the major components of acquisition life cycle for contracted software?

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Question # 140

Briefly explain the "Check" processes of process management. What are the challenges faced in identifying and implementing process controls?

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Question # 141

Two of the best accepted industry models are the SEI Capability Maturity Model Integration for Software and ISO 9000 standards. Describe the two models, and explain the differences between the two models.

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Question # 142

Explain what you think is the single most important goal of quality control in system development.

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Question # 143

______________is a statement of principles, and a broad guide to action.

A.

Quality Standards

B.

Quality Policy

C.

Quality Procedures

D.

Guidelines

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Question # 144

A measure is a single attribute of a product or process.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 145

While contracting for outsourced software development, ___________ refers to the rights of the customer to run the application system in more than one location.

A.

Maintainability

B.

Transportability

C.

Security

D.

Reliability

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Question # 146

One of the tools used to analyze process improvement results is:

A.

Developing measurement capability: Pie Charts

B.

Analyzing results: Control Charts

C.

Identifying advanced statistical techniques: QFD

D.

Identifying data collection tools: Force Field Analysis

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Question # 147

A common term that is used today for contracting for software development is "performance based contracting." Performance based contracting means:

A.

The previous performance of a contractor is a critical success factor

B.

The performance criteria for a contractor will be defined in the contract

C.

The performance of the software will be defined in the contract

D.

The contractor will receive a bonus if performance exceeds the contract provisions

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Question # 148

Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of management committees (or process management committees)?

A.

Developing quality charter

B.

Deploying quality management practices

C.

Establish teams or work groups

D.

Defining mission and goals

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Question # 149

Objective of assuring that the software / COTS can be integrated into the business system work flow is to ensure that:

A.

There is no disruption to normal operation

B.

Proper training can be given to users

C.

Manual system can be replaced

D.

None of the above

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Question # 150

QFD can be used to provide forward and backward traceability of value in the software development life cycle.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 151

Staged models are composed of a number of distinct levels of maturity.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 152

Which answer below is NOT one of the seven steps for implementing an IT quality function?

A.

Develop a charter

B.

Identify a quality manager

C.

Staff and train the quality function

D.

Audit the use of quality tools

E.

Build support for quality

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Question # 153

Which of the following is associated with "Big-Q" quality as proposed by Dr. Juran?

A.

Cross-functional teams throughout an organization working to prevent problems

B.

Team working to improve a specific process

C.

Creation of quality analysts tool-box

D.

Departmental team leader's quality analysis

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Question # 154

The first step in establishing the strategy for process deployment is:

A.

Plan the deployment

B.

Set goals for deployment

C.

Identify deployment team

D.

Prioritize

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Question # 155

Which is NOT commonly used to develop a baseline?

A.

Customer Surveys

B.

Industry Models

C.

Management Established Criteria

D.

Expected Defect Counts

E.

Benchmarking

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Question # 156

Checking if the web page on a internet banking site comes up within 2 seconds is an example of:

A.

Functional Testing

B.

Structural Testing

C.

Stress Testing

D.

Performance Testing

E.

White-Box Testing

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Question # 157

Processes containing only common causes of variation are considered stable.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 158

The effort required for testing a program to insure it performs its intended function is called:

A.

Correctness

B.

Reliability

C.

Testability

D.

Flexibility

E.

Efficiency

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Question # 159

Using the PDCA Cycle concept, defining the mission of a Quality Assurance function would be considered which PDCA phase?

A.

Plan

B.

Do

C.

Check

D.

Act

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Question # 160

Which type of benchmark is used to set and validate objectives to measure performance?

A.

Process Benchmarking

B.

Product Benchmarking

C.

System Benchmarking

D.

Performance Benchmarking

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Question # 161

A major corporation issued this statement: "We see ourselves now and in the future as a company with a strong customer franchise, known for reliability, trust and integrity in all relationships. Our business will be based on technologies that have evolved over a long history and which will give us unique advantages over our competition. These technologies will span our core businesses and will also go beyond boundaries we can see today." What type of statement is this?

A.

Vision

B.

Value

C.

Goal

D.

Principle

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Question # 162

Effective QA reports written to management ___________.

A.

Convey Information

B.

Change the Behavior

C.

Convey Information and Change Behavior

D.

Demonstrate the Value of QA

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Question # 163

As per Crosby, to reduce Total Product Cost, the best approach is to:

A.

Increase prevention costs

B.

Increase appraisal and failure costs

C.

Reduce prevention costs

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Question # 164

SEI's CMMi maturity level 5 focuses on:

A.

Quantitative Project Management

B.

Customer Satisfaction

C.

Quantitative Process Management

D.

Continuous Process Improvement

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Question # 165

Which of the following would be considered a standard unit of measurement?

A.

Cost per unit of work

B.

Lines of code

C.

Percent over budget

D.

Defect removal efficiency

E.

Defects per thousand lines of code

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Question # 166

In the context of process maturity, 'check process continuum' moves from:

A.

Literal Controls to Intent Controls

B.

Management Controls to Employee Controls

C.

Intent Controls to Literal Controls

D.

Minimal to Heavy Controls

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Question # 167

Which type of monitoring focuses on the input or entrance criteria to a business process, for compliance to organizational policies?

A.

Preventive Monitoring

B.

Detective Monitoring

C.

Management Monitoring

D.

None of the above

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Question # 168

Which of the following tool(s) can be applied to determine the change in process scope?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Cause and Effect Diagram

C.

Flow Charts

D.

All of the above

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Question # 169

Within an ISO process assessment, a capability level is said to be established 'only' and 'only if' all the process attributes are 'fully achieved'.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 170

Prerequisites for quality planning is / are:

A.

IT vision, mission, and goals documented

B.

Management support for planning

C.

Planners competent in the planning process

D.

All of the above

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Question # 171

Which of the following models uses this four part cyclE. (part one - plan and organize; part two - acquire and implement; part three - deliver and support; part four - monitor)?

A.

COSO Model

B.

ISO Model

C.

Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award Model

D.

Enterprise Risk and Management Model

E.

CobiT Model

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Question # 172

The methods that an organization uses for hiring, training, supervising, and evaluating personnel are what types of controls:

A.

Environmental Controls

B.

Transaction Controls

C.

Operational Controls

D.

Detective Controls

E.

Collective Controls

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Question # 173

Which of the following is not a planning activity?

A.

Environment Planning

B.

Capabilities and Opportunities Planning

C.

Assumptions and Potentials Planning

D.

Standards and Procedures Planning

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Question # 174

__________ is a software metric, developed by Thomas J. McCabe, used to indicate the complexity of a program.

A.

Knots

B.

Cyclomatic Complexity

C.

Lines of Code

D.

Function Points

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Question # 175

Many organizations use code inspections as a means for removing defects prior to commencing unit testing. When code inspections are performed, according to the generally accepted code inspection process, the code inspectors are:

A.

Other Coders

B.

Quality Assurance Personnel

C.

Independent Testers

D.

Internal Auditors

E.

Computer Operations Personnel

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Question # 176

Conducting an inspection of source code is:

A.

Quality Control

B.

Compilation

C.

Quality Assurance

D.

None of the above

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Question # 177

What type of graphical chart of individual measured values is organized by frequency of occurrence (from high to low frequency)?

A.

Pie Chart

B.

Chart

C.

Pareto Chart

D.

Bar Chart

E.

Quality Function Deployment Chart

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Question # 178

One of the first steps in establishing a security program is to develop a snapshot of the organization’s security program at a certain time. This snapshot is called:

A.

Security Snapshot

B.

Security Baseline

C.

Security Process

D.

Security Model

E.

Risk Assessment

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Question # 179

Mode is the measures of central tendency. What does it represent?

A.

Average of the items in the population

B.

Sum of the items in the population

C.

Items are repeated most frequently

D.

Item at which half the items in the population are below this item and half the items are above this item

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Question # 180

Which of the following is the correct definition of the quality attribute reliability?

A.

Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function with required precision

B.

Extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be controlled

C.

Extent to which a program can be used in other applications

D.

Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications and fulfills the user’s mission objectives

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Question # 181

Evaluating and quantifying the risks, controls, and vulnerabilities is called _________ .

A.

Risk Analysis

B.

Risk Planning

C.

Risk

D.

Risk Management

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Question # 182

Successful IT security programs consist of all the following EXCEPT:

A.

Developing an IT security policy that reflects business needs

B.

Informing users of their IT security responsibilities

C.

Establishing processes for monitoring and reviewing the program

D.

Gathering data on violations only

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Question # 183

Regression Testing can be performed in which test stage(s)?

A.

Unit Test

B.

String / Integration Test

C.

System Test

D.

None of the above

E.

All of the above

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Question # 184

One way to minimize risk is to:

A.

Install Controls

B.

Decrease Acceptance Testing

C.

Increase the Probability Factor

D.

None of the above

E.

All of the above

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Question # 185

Statement Testing is included in which of the following test data categories?

A.

Functional

B.

Structural

C.

Error Oriented

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Question # 186

Determining which risks are likely to affect the project and documenting the characteristics of each is called ________ .

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Risk Management

C.

Risk

D.

Risk Identification

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Question # 187

Which of the following is / are used for determining the magnitude of the Risk?

A.

Using Personal Opinion or Team Consensus

B.

Using a Risk Formula

C.

Using Annual Loss Expectation (ALE) Estimation

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Question # 188

Which of the following tools / techniques is a facilitated technique where all teammates participate by individually ranking ideas, issues, concerns, and solutions; then the group achieves a consensus by combining the individual rankings?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Nominal Group Technique

C.

Force Field Analysis

D.

Affinity Diagram

E.

Benchmarking

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Question # 189

Which of the following is NOT an example of a key indicator?

A.

Productivity

B.

Customer Satisfaction

C.

Estimated Size

D.

Defect Rates

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Question # 190

The system having adequate safeguards to protect the data against damage refers to which CSF?

A.

Maintainability

B.

Cost-effectiveness

C.

Security

D.

Reliability

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Question # 191

Matrix diagrams can be used for the following, except for:

A.

Focus on a specific objective and process

B.

Research or survey customer preferences

C.

Evaluate tools available versus usage

D.

Correlate defect rates, cycle times, and effort

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