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CTFL_Syll2018 Practice Exam Questions with Answers ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Certification

Question # 6

Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product? [K1]

A.

The number of staff available to execute tests

B.

The level of detail in the test plan

C.

The requirements for reliability and security in the product

D.

The test estimation method used

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Question # 7

While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of business importance assigned to the defect?

A.

Urgency

B.

Priority

C.

Difficulty

D.

Severity

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Question # 8

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described?

A.

Test plan

B.

Project plan

C.

Test design specification

D.

Requirements specification

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Question # 9

Which of the following can be a common objective of testing?

A.

Gaining confidence about the level of the system's quality

B.

Fixing defects to improve the system's quality characteristics

C.

Providing information as part of the debugging activity

D.

Making sure the system performs as fast and as efficient as needed

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Question # 10

What is the ideal number of regression test cycles?

A.

As many as time and budget allow

B.

2

C.

1

D.

Until the quality requirements are met

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Question # 11

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

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Question # 12

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

A.

unit test framework tool evelopers who are familiar with the system's structure.

B.

configuration management tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

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Question # 13

Which of the following approaches is/are used in Integration tests?

A.

Both functional and structural

B.

Usability

C.

Functional only

D.

Structural only

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Question # 14

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4, which are shown below:

CTFL_Syll2018 question answer

Given the following additional test cases:

CTFL_Syll2018 question answer

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve fill coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules a and 4?

A.

DT1, DT2

B.

DT2, DT3

C.

DT3, DT4

D.

DT1, DT4

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Question # 15

Which of the following BEST describes checklist-based testing?

A.

An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

B.

An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a high-level list of items to be noted, checked or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product has to be verified.

C.

A procedure to derive and/or select test cases based on an analysis of the specification, either functional or non-functional, of a component or system without reference to its internal structure.

D.

A test design technique which ensures that test cases are checked for consistency and completeness against an organisation’s list of formatting rules and best practices.

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Question # 16

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the contained in a small, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

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Question # 17

Which of the following BEST explains a drawback of Independent testing?

A.

An independent test team may be isolated from the rest of the development and project team

B.

Due to their differing backgrounds and perspectives, an independent lest team may discover defects which the developers did not uncover

C.

An independent test team may possess specializations in specific test types such as usability or security which detract from the overall effectiveness of the test team

D.

Having the business organization participate as an independent test team can hurt the overall testing effort since business participants are often not trained nor experienced in testing

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Question # 18

Tests have been specified for the latest software release and users have prioritised these.

However, there are some dependencies between tests as shown in the table below (e.g. Test ID. ‘123’ cannot be run until Test ID. ‘456’ has been successfully completed).

CTFL_Syll2018 question answer

Which test execution schedule best meets the prioritisation and dependency conditions?

A.

3, 5, 7, 10, 2, 4, 6, 8, 9, 1.

B.

5, 7, 4, 3, 9, 10, 1, 6, 8, 2.

C.

6, 1, 2, 9, 4, 3, 5, 7, 8, 10.

D.

1, 4, 3, 5, 2, 7, 9, 10, 6, 8.

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Question # 19

What is Test Design?

A.

The overall process of testing a system to verify that it meets specified requirements.

B.

The process of selecting test techniques to exercise the functions implemented by the tested system

C.

The process of transforming general testing objectives into tangible test conditions and test cases

D.

An approach to testing to reduce the level of product risks by focusing on high-risk areas in the product

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Question # 20

Which of the following sentences is correct?

A.

Functional and Structural tests can be performed at all test levels

B.

Functional tests can be performed at Unit and Integration test levels, while Structural tests can be performed at System test level

C.

Functional and Structural test levels can be performed for all test types

D.

Functional tests can be performed at Integration and System test levels, while Structural tests can be performed at Unit test level

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Question # 21

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display Age groups are

Group I: 0-12

Group II: 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

A.

(0, 12, 13,18,19)

B.

(-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19)

C.

(4,5,15,20)

D.

(-1.0,12,13,18,19)

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Question # 22

Which ONE of the following is the BEST way to take advantage of the different mindsets of testers and developers?

A.

Insist on independent testing at all stages in the lifecycle.

B.

Have all developers undergo ISTQB training.

C.

Keep developers and testers in separate teams.

D.

Bring the two mindsets together.

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Question # 23

The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.

Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights

Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights

Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted

Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights

Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit

Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight

Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?

A.

6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

B.

3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6

C.

3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5

D.

3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

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Question # 24

Which of the following apply to System Testing?

a) May satisfy legal requirements.

b) Can use system specifications as a test basis.

c) Often the responsibility of business users.

d) Main goal is to establish confidence.

e) Should focus on the communication between systems.

A.

a and c.

B.

b and d.

C.

a and b.

D.

c and e.

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Question # 25

Which of the following is a direct benefit of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products'?

A.

The ability to give meaningful names to documents

B.

The ability to analyse the impact of changes

C.

The ability to identify the author of each document

D.

The ability to determine the best test design approach

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Question # 26

Which of the following BEST describes a methodical approach to the Error Guessing test technique?

A.

A tester dynamically designs and executes tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

B.

An experienced tester makes a list of potential defects and failures, and designs and runs tests to generate these failures should the defects be present in the code.

C.

A tester designs, implements and executes tests to cover test conditions found in checklists that are based on what is important for the user.

D.

An inexperienced tester is asked to attempt to guess errors that may have been missed by experienced testers during formal test design.

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Question # 27

Which statement about deriving test cases from a use case is TRUE?

A.

Test cases are designed to exercise the defined behaviours.

B.

There should only be one test case for each use case.

C.

Test cases can only be derived if there is an activity diagram.

D.

It is not possible to measure use case test coverage.

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Question # 28

An online form has a "Title" input field The valid values for this field are: Mr, Ms. Mrs. Which of the following is a correct list of the equivalence classes of the input values for this field?

A.

Any one of: Mr, Mrs., Ms; any other input

B.

Mr: Ms; Mrs.: no input; any other input

C.

Any one of: Mr, Mrs., Ms; no input, any other input

D.

Mr; Mrs.; Ms; any other input

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Question # 29

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

A.

To identify the requirements for using a tool

B.

To make a selection between alternative tools

C.

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

D.

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

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Question # 30

Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

A.

Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.

B.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

C.

Adequacy of the test approaches taken.

D.

Discussions on disaster recovery.

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Question # 31

When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

A.

At the beginning of the project

B.

As soon as requirements have been approved

C.

As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted

D.

At any time before UAT begins

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Question # 32

A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.

Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

A.

Performance, Usability, Regression.

B.

System, Load, Fail-over.

C.

Performance, Load, Stress.

D.

Load, Volume and Component.

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Question # 33

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

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Question # 34

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

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Question # 35

Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

A.

At the component test level only

B.

At all test levels

C.

At integration testing and system testing levels only

D.

At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

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Question # 36

What is static analysis?

A.

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

C.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

D.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

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Question # 37

What is a test condition?

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Question # 38

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

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Question # 39

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

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Question # 40

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Question # 41

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

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Question # 42

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

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Question # 43

In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:

_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.

_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.

_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

A.

$28,000

B.

$1,500

C.

$33,501

D.

$5,000

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Question # 44

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

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Question # 45

Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

A.

An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.

B.

The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.

C.

A testable component derived from business requirements.

D.

Applies to software testing only.

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Question # 46

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

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Question # 47

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

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Question # 48

What is the value of static code analysis?

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

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Question # 49

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Question # 50

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 question answer

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

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Question # 51

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Question # 52

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

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Question # 53

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 question answer

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

A.

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B.

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

C.

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

D.

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

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Question # 54

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

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Question # 55

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

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Question # 56

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

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Question # 57

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

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Question # 58

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

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Question # 59

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

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Question # 60

Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Decision table testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Statement testing

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Question # 61

Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

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Question # 62

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

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Question # 63

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

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Question # 64

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

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Question # 65

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

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Question # 66

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

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Question # 67

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

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Question # 68

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

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Question # 69

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

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Question # 70

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

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Question # 71

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

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Question # 72

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

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Question # 73

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

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Question # 74

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

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Question # 75

When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

A.

multiple condition coverage

B.

decision table

C.

use case testing

D.

statement coverage

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Question # 76

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

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Question # 77

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

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Question # 78

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

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Question # 79

The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829). Which sentence is correct?

A.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

B.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

C.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

D.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

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Question # 80

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

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Question # 81

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

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Question # 82

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

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Question # 83

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

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Question # 84

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

CTFL_Syll2018 question answer

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

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Question # 85

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

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Question # 86

Which statement about use case testing is true?

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

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Question # 87

Which of the following is correct?

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

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Question # 88

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

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Question # 89

Given the following requirement:

CTFL_Syll2018 question answer

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

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Question # 90

Which of the following test techniques is structure-based?

A.

Control flow testing

B.

Use case testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Decision table testing

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Question # 91

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

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Question # 92

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

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Question # 93

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

D.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

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Question # 94

Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

A.

Variables that are never used

B.

Coding standard violations

C.

Memory leaks

D.

Uncalled functions and procedures

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Question # 95

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

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Question # 96

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

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Question # 97

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

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Question # 98

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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Question # 99

A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 question answer

A.

S2 and O4

B.

S4 and O2

C.

S4 and O4

D.

S2 and O2

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Question # 100

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

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Question # 101

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

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Question # 102

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

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Question # 103

A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

A.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

B.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

C.

The "dead" code has not been covered.

D.

Every executable statement is covered

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Question # 104

Which of the following BEST describes error guessing?

A.

Error guessing involves designing tests based on experience, defect data, or common knowledge about why software fails

B.

Error guessing involves building test cases based on the various experiences of developers, architects, users, and other stakeholders on project teams

C.

Error guessing is a suitable test technique and can be used effectively in place of more formal techniques

D.

Error guessing is a valid and useful white-box lest technique due to Its high degree ol statement coverage

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Question # 105

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage.

B.

100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage.

C.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage and vice-versa.

D.

It is impossible to achieve 100% statement coverage

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Question # 106

Which of the following activities do NOT belong to test implementation and execution?

A.

Checking if the preconditions of test execution have been met

B.

Logging of test results

C.

Test data generation

D.

Prioritizing test conditions

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Question # 107

Consider a document containing a classification of all the defects found during the system test phase and after the delivery in the production environment This document can be considered a test basis for which of the following test design techniques?

A.

Structure-based testing

B.

Experience-based testing

C.

Decision coverage testing

D.

Specification-based testing

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Question # 108

At what stage of the Fundamental Test Process do testers write the steps of the test procedures?

A.

Test implementation and execution

B.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

C.

Test closure activities

D.

Test planning and control

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Question # 109

Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?

A.

A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases

B.

An experience-based lest technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures

C.

A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite

D.

A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed

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