220-1202 Practice Exam Questions with Answers CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Certification

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once a malware incident has been confirmed, the immediate next step is to contain the threat. Quarantining infected systems prevents the malware from spreading to other devices and isolates the malicious code for further analysis or remediation.

B. Educating end users is important but occurs later in the incident response process.

C. Disabling System Restore is part of cleanup, not containment.

D. Updating and scanning should occur after the system is quarantined to prevent further infection or spread.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Just recognizing the device isn’t enough—audio output must be routed to it manuallyby setting it as the default playback device in sound settings.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“If audio is still playing through the internal speaker, verify that the Bluetooth headset is set as the default playback device. This can be configured under Windows Sound Settings.”

In AI terminology,hallucinationrefers to generated output that appears plausible but is factually incorrect.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“AI hallucination describes output that is fluent and coherent but includes information that is entirely fabricated or inaccurate.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires at least two different types of authentication factors:

Something you know (e.g., password or PIN)

Something you have (e.g., smartphone or hardware token)

Something you are (e.g., fingerprint or facial recognition)

Option A, sending a code to the user’s phone, is an example of "something you have" — a physical device that receives a one-time passcode. Combined with a password, this forms a proper MFA implementation.

B. Date of birth is another knowledge-based factor (like a password), not a second factor type.

C. Solving a math problem is not a recognized authentication factor.

D. A PIN is also "something you know" and does not count as a distinct MFA factor when paired with a password.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The net use command in Windows is used to map (assign) a shared drive from the command line. The syntax typically looks like: net use X: \server\share where X is the drive letter and \server\share is the network path.

A. pathping tests network latency and packet loss.

B. nslookup is used for DNS troubleshooting.

D. tracert shows the route packets take to reach a destination — not for drive mapping.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In secure or isolated network segments, DHCP may be disabled to reduce the risk of unauthorized device connections or to maintain strict IP assignment control. In such cases, the help desk technician must manually configure IP settings (including IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS servers). This ensures the workstation communicates properly within that segment.

A. DNS server restriction is unrelated to manual IP configuration.

B. Allow lists refer to traffic access, but manual IP assignment is due to lack of DHCP, not allow lists.

D. NAC servers control access but don't replace the need for IP addressing.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.

B. Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.

C. User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.

D. Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity—it’s for accessibility features.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A .bat file (batch file) is a script file in DOS, OS/2, and Microsoft Windows. It contains a series of commands that are executed by the command-line interpreter. In Windows environments, batch files are commonly used to automate log-in tasks, such as mapping network drives, launching applications, or setting environment variables during the user's logon process.

B. .sh is a shell script used in Linux/Unix environments.

C. .py is a Python script, which can be used for automation but is not commonly run directly at user logon in standard Windows environments.

D. .js is JavaScript, used mainly in web development and not for system-level scripting in Windows logon automation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows an organization to enforce security policies, such as denying network access to jailbroken/rooted devices.

From the All-in-One Exam Guide by Travis Everett and Andrew Hutz:

“MDM software allows administrators to monitor, manage, and secure mobile devices connected to enterprise networks. One key feature is the detection and denial of access for rooted or jailbroken devices”.

Quentin Docter also confirms:

“An MDM solution can check if a device has been rooted and prevent it from accessing the network, ensuring compliance with corporate security standards”.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Thepowercfg commandis a built-in utility for controlling power settings including hibernation. It can be used in scripts and does not require domain access.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“The powercfg command provides granular control of power settings, useful for scripting and configuring systems without Group Policy access.”

Removing users from thelocal admin groupprevents them from installing unauthorized software.

FromQuentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“Local admin privileges allow users to install unauthorized apps. Removing them from this group restricts installations and helps prevent malware.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

These symptoms strongly indicatemalware infectionor a malicious app running in the background. The first action should be torun a malware scanto identify and remove malicious components.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“If a mobile device is overheating and the battery drains rapidly after installing an app, this could point to malware. Begin by scanning the device with a mobile anti-malware application.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Resource Monitor provides real-time monitoring of system performance and resource usage, including CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. It helps technicians identify performance bottlenecks (e.g., high memory or CPU usage) that can cause slowdowns in applications over time without producing crash errors.

A. Reliability history logs application crashes or errors — not helpful if the app doesn’t crash.

B. Computer Management is a broad utility with limited real-time monitoring capability.

D. Disk is too vague — tools like CHKDSK can help with disk errors but not general performance degradation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To ensure the authenticity of a downloaded application, the most reliable method is to verify the file’s hash (e.g., SHA256, MD5) against the value provided by the legitimate vendor. If the hash values match, the file has not been altered or tampered with. This verification confirms the integrity and authenticity of the executable.

B. Process IDs are dynamic and not unique to specific software.

C. Running in safe mode doesn’t validate legitimacy—it only runs the app in a minimal environment.

D. File names can be spoofed; matching the name does not prove authenticity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

TheDo Not Disturbsetting in Windows Notification settings allows users to suppress all notification banners and sounds during presentations or video calls.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use Windows ‘Do Not Disturb’ to prevent notifications from interrupting full-screen apps like video conferencing.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Whalingis a form of phishing that targets high-profile individuals or involves pretending to be them (e.g., CEOs) to trick lower-level employees into transferring funds or sensitive data.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Whaling is a phishing tactic targeting executives or masquerading as one. The attacker crafts emails that exploit authority and urgency to manipulate recipients.”

An MSDS providessafety and emergency procedures, such as what to do if a battery leaks or catches fire. It is not a technical or setup guide.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“An MSDS contains safety information, including handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to potentially hazardous components like UPS batteries.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In the context of artificial intelligence, "hallucinations" refer to instances where an AI system generates information that is plausible-sounding but factually incorrect or entirely fabricated. This is a known limitation of large language models, including generative AI tools.

A. Data privacy refers to the protection of personal or sensitive data, not content accuracy.

C. Appropriate use relates to ethical and policy-based concerns, not factual correctness.

D. Plagiarism involves presenting someone else's work as your own — this situation is about accuracy, not ownership.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Smishing (SMS phishing) is a type of social engineering attack where attackers send fraudulent text messages to trick users into revealing sensitive information or downloading malware. These messages often impersonate banks, delivery services, or official institutions to lure the victim into clicking malicious links.

A. Impersonation is an in-person or voice-based tactic.

B. Vishing refers to voice phishing over phone calls.

C. Spear phishing is a targeted email-based phishing method.

The correct syntax for mapping a network drive in Windows is:

net use Z: \\WinNAS\shared

This command connects the specified network share and maps it as drive Z:.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use net use followed by the desired drive letter and the UNC path to map network shares.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Many modern commercial software applications (including photo editors like Adobe Photoshop) offer tiered features based on user subscriptions or license levels. If certain features are locked and prompt for a login, the issue is likely due to a missing or unassigned software license. Assigning the correct license through a centralized license management system (such as Adobe Admin Console or Microsoft 365 portal) will enable those features.

B. VPN connection does not affect local software licensing.

C. Repairing the application does not resolve license entitlement.

D. Reinstalling the software won’t help unless the license is assigned.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Linux is an open-source operating system that is freely available and does not require traditional licensing fees. It is highly versatile and scalable, making it suitable for both workstations and servers. Many enterprise environments use Linux to reduce software costs and benefit from robust server features.

B. Windows requires per-device or per-user licensing for both workstation and server editions.

C. macOS is proprietary and limited to Apple hardware with licensing restrictions.

D. Chrome OS is designed for lightweight devices and lacks server functionality.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The symptoms suggest abrowser hijacker. Thefirst stepsshould be toremove any malicious extensionsandreset the startup pageto restore normal behavior.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Browser hijackers often install as extensions and change homepage settings. Removing these extensions and resetting the startup configuration typically resolves the issue.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Virtualization settings are typically found within the BIOS/UEFI firmware configuration. To prevent unauthorized users from changing these settings, the technician should set a BIOS password. This ensures only administrators with the password can access or modify BIOS settings, including virtualization support.

B. The guest account is a user-level feature in Windows and doesn’t control BIOS access.

C. A screen lock prevents casual access to the desktop but doesn’t protect firmware settings.

D. AutoRun controls how media and devices behave when inserted — unrelated to BIOS security.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.

A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.

C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.

D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Since the issue has recurred after a temporary fix, it is likely a deeper or persistent configuration or server issue. Escalating the ticket to the next tier of support (e.g., network or system administrator) ensures further investigation and permanent resolution. Escalation is part of the standard support protocol when issues reoccur despite initial troubleshooting.

A. Rechecking remotely may confirm the issue, but doesn’t resolve it long term.

B. Providing documentation helps the user but doesn’t solve the root cause.

D. Keeping the ticket open is passive and doesn’t address the recurring issue.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

BitLocker is Microsoft’s full disk encryption technology built into Windows Pro and Enterprise editions. It encrypts the entire drive, protecting data if the device is lost or stolen. BitLocker can use TPM (Trusted Platform Module) and can be configured with PINs or USB keys for added security.

A. Active Directory is for centralized user and policy management in domains.

B. NTFS is the file system format and doesn't provide encryption by itself.

C. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts individual files or folders, not the entire drive.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The user’s issue likely stems from amobile data restriction or cap, especially since uploads work on Wi-Fi but not cellular. Checkingdata usage limitswill help determine if mobile uploads are blocked.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When data-intensive functions fail on mobile networks but not on Wi-Fi, it’s often due to data caps or metered connection limits.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

3G networks generally do not provide the bandwidth required for seamless HD video streaming. With only two signal bars and a 3G connection, the mobile device likely cannot maintain the necessary data throughput, resulting in timeouts or buffering failures. This is a classic symptom of insufficient network speed or signal strength.

A. Lack of Wi-Fi may contribute, but the root cause is the low mobile bandwidth, not the Wi-Fi state.

B. A website subscription lapse would return an account error, not a timeout.

D. Full device storage can affect downloads but not streaming from the internet.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) outlines the rules and guidelines for employees or users regarding the appropriate use of company systems, resources, and internet access. It defines permitted and prohibited activities, helping to mitigate security risks and establish clear behavioral expectations.

B. MNDA (Mutual Non-Disclosure Agreement) deals with confidentiality, not usage guidelines.

C. DRM (Digital Rights Management) controls access to copyrighted content.

D. EULA (End User License Agreement) pertains to software licensing, not internal policies.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

NET Framework versions are often required for applications to run. If an older app requires .NET Framework 3.5, it must be explicitly installed as it is not included by default in newer versions of Windows. The best method to do this safely is through the built-in "Turn Windows features on or off" utility, which downloads and installs it via official Microsoft services.

B. Using third-party repositories is unsafe and not recommended.

C. Installing .NET 4 does not include 3.5; versions are not fully backward compatible.

D. The issue is technical, not a security incident for the SOC team.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Carbon fiber filamentcan producefine particles or fumesduring printing, which may be harmful when inhaled. Wearing anair filter maskis essential to protect the respiratory system.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“When working with advanced materials like carbon fiber, always use appropriate personal protective equipment such as air filter masks to prevent inhalation of dangerous particles.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To work remotely without physically transporting a workstation, the user needs:

C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol): Allows graphical remote access to a Windows PC at the office.

D. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes a secure tunnel to access the corporate network remotely, making the internal PC reachable.

A. SPICE is used in virtual machine environments and is not typically used for end-user remote desktop access.

B. SSH is a text-based remote access tool used mostly for Linux systems.

E. RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) is used by IT administrators for support — not end-user remote access.

F. WinRM is used for Windows remote management via PowerShell, not for full desktop access.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Keychainis the built-in macOS utility that manages and stores credentials, including passwords and certificates.

According toQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Keychain Access in macOS is used for managing and storing passwords securely, similar to credential managers in Windows.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

For persistent printing issues due to spooler service, ensure theprint spooler is started and set to Automatic. This maintains print capability across reboots.

FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“If users lose printing capabilities on reboot, the print spooler service must be configured to start automatically and be confirmed as running.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier—often a steel or concrete post—designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.

A. PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.

B. Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn’t physically prevent entry.

C. Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Spear phishingtargets a specific individual using personalized tactics, as seen in emails impersonating a CEO to deceive a secretary.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“Spear phishing targets specific individuals or roles within an organization using tailored messages to increase success rates.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

High battery drain is often due to apps running in the background or using GPS during travel. Thefirst stepshould always be tocheck battery usage statisticsto see if an application is misbehaving.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Travel conditions can increase app activity, especially navigation or social media. Check app battery usage before assuming hardware faults.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Persistent pop-ups urging antivirus updates are likelyscareware or adware. The correct approach is toverify existing antivirus settings, run a trusted security scan, and avoid interacting with unknown pop-ups.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Users should verify antivirus status using trusted tools before responding to alerts. Fake updates are common vectors for malware.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An "OS Not Found" error typically indicates that the computer is attempting to boot from a drive that doesn't contain a valid operating system or bootable partition. The presence of a USB drive might be confusing the boot order. Therefore, the first step a technician should take is to verify and adjust the boot sequence in the system’s firmware (BIOS or UEFI). It's possible that the USB drive is being prioritized over the internal hard drive, which may cause the system to miss the OS entirely.

A. Running data recovery tools is premature before confirming boot order.

B. Repartitioning the disk would destroy existing data—this should not be done until confirmed the OS is actually missing.

D. Switching between UEFI and BIOS (legacy mode) might help in rare cases, but it is not the first step in standard OS boot issue troubleshooting.