A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following
commands should the administrator use?
Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
A technician has verified full system functionality. Which of the following actions should the technician take next?
Documenting the findings is the last step in the troubleshooting process, after verifying full system functionality. Documenting the findings helps to create a record of the problem and thesolution, which can be useful for future reference or training purposes. Questioning the users, determining if anything has changed, and gathering information are steps that precede verifying full system functionality in the troubleshooting process. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 2: IT Concepts and Terminology1
Which of the following statements BEST describes binary?
An IT manager wants to prevent end users from booting alternative operating systems on workstations. Which of the following security-related best practices would be used to accomplish this?
Setting a BIOS password is a security-related best practice that would prevent end users from booting alternative operating systems on workstations. A BIOS password restricts access to the BIOS settings, which control the boot order and other hardware configurations of the computer. Installing a host-based firewall, patching the operating system, and removing unnecessary software are also security-related best practices, but they do not directly prevent booting alternative operating systems on workstations. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts1
Within a database, which of the following would be the best access method to use to display a subset of a table?
The SELECT statement is used to query a database and retrieve a subset of data that matches the specified criteria. For example, SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE City = ‘London’ will return all the records from the Customers table where the City column is equal to ‘London’. The SELECT statement can also be used to join multiple tables, perform calculations, sort and groupdata, and apply filters and functions. The SELECT statement is one of the most commonly used SQL commands and is essential for manipulating and analyzing data in a database.
Which of the following would MOST likely prevent malware sent as compromised file via email from infecting a person’s computer?
A user needs an interface that supports both video and data. Which of the following will meet this requirement?
Thunderbolt is an interface that supports both video and data. Thunderbolt is a high-speed serial interface that can connect multiple devices to a computer using one cable. Thunderboltcan support both DisplayPort and PCI Express protocols, which means it can transfer both video and data signals simultaneously. Thunderbolt can also provide power to connected devices and support daisy-chaining up to six devices per port. Thunderbolt offers faster data transfer rates than USB or FireWire interfaces. VGA is an interface that supports only video. VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, which is an analog interface that can connect monitors to computers using 15-pin connectors. VGA can only carry video signals and does not support audio or data transfer. VGA also has lower resolution and quality than digital interfaces such as HDMI or DVI. DVI is an interface that supports only video as well. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface, which is a digital interface that can connect monitors to computers using 24-pin connectors. DVI can carry either analog or digital video signals depending on the type of connector used (DVI-A for analog, DVI-D for digital, or DVI-I for both). DVI does not support audio or data transfer either. FireWire is an interface that supports only data.
A company wants its employee to use an email client that downloads and removes messages from the email
server. Which of the following protocols must be configured in the email client to facilitate this?
A company has installed an application that only requires a workstation to function. Which of the following
architecture types is this application using?
Which of the following BEST describes a technology that allows multiple users to create and edit reports at the
Which of the following database structures is the most granular?
A field is the most granular database structure among the options given. A field is a single unit of data that represents an attribute of an entity, such as name, age, or address. A field can have a specific data type, such as text, number, or date. A column is a collection of fields that share the same data type and name, such as the name column in a table. A record is a collection of fields that represent an instance of an entity, such as a person, a product, or an order. A record can be identified by a primary key, which is a unique value for each record. A table is a collection of records that represent the same type of entity, such as the customer table or the producttable. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals and Security Concepts, page 156
Which of the following contains exactly four copper wires?
A large payment website was breached recently. A user is concerned that the breach will affect account
security on other sites. Which of the following password best practices would mitigate this risk?
Which of the following protocols is used to relay email from a user's mail server?
SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is used to relay email from a user’s mail server to another mail server or from a mail client to a user’s mail server. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol, which is used to access and manage email messages on a mail server. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, which is used to transfer files between computers over a network. POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3, which is used to download email messages from a mail server to a mail client. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 5: Infrastructure Concepts1
Which of the following is the exact number of bytes in a gigabyte?
The exact number of bytes in a gigabyte is 1.073.741.824 bytes. A byte is a unit of digital information that consists of eight bits. A bit is a binary digit that can have one of two values: 0 or 1. A byte can store one character, such as a letter, a number, or a symbol. A gigabyte is a unit of digital information that consists of 1.073.741.824 bytes or 1.024 megabytes. A megabyte is a unit of digital information that consists of 1.048.576 bytes or 1.024 kilobytes. A kilobyte is a unit of digital information that consists of 1.024 bytes. These units are based on the binary system, which uses powers of two to represent values. However, there are also decimal units that use powers of ten to represent values, such as gigabyte (GB), megabyte (MB), and kilobyte (KB). These units are often used by storage devices and network services to measure capacity orspeed. In this case, one gigabyte (GB) equals 1 billion bytes or 1.000 megabytes (MB). One megabyte (MB) equals 1 million bytes or 1.000 kilobytes (KB). One kilobyte (KB) equals 1 thousand bytes. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 2: IT Concepts and Terminology
A technician replaces the video card in a user’s PC. The user reports the resolution on the display seems very low, but the operating system will not let the user adjust it any higher. Which of the following steps would MOST likely fix this problem?
Which of the following tasks is typically performed during the identification phase of the troubleshooting
An IP address is 32 bits long. If converted to bytes, it would be:
Ann, a user, is experiencing difficulty getting her IP-based security camera to function at her house after a rain storm that caused a power interruption. The camera has an LED light indicating it has power. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
Which of the following is most likely to disclose the data collection practices of an application?
The most likely source that will disclose the data collection practices of an application is the EULA. EULA stands for End User License Agreement, which is a legal contract between the software vendor and the user that defines the terms and conditions for using the software. The EULA often includes information about how the software collects, uses, stores, and shares user data, as well as what rights and responsibilities the user has regarding their data. A README.txt file is a text file that accompanies a software package and provides information about how to install, configure, or use the software. A README.txt file may not disclose the data collection practices of an application, unless it is explicitly stated by the vendor. A user’s guide is a document that provides instructions and tips on how to use a software application effectively. A user’s guide may not disclose the data collection practices of an application, unless it is explicitly stated by the vendor. A vendor website is a web page that provides information about a software vendor and their products or services. A vendor website may disclose the data collection practices of an application, but it may not be as detailed or accessible as theEULA. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 8: Software Development Concepts1
Which of the following best describes when lo use an array?
The best description of when to use an array is when the user needs to store multiple values in one object. An array is a data structure that can store multiple values of the same data type in an ordered sequence. An array can be accessed or modified by using an index or a position number that indicates the location of each value in the array. An array can be useful when the user needs to store multiple values in one object that can be easily manipulated or iterated over by using loops or functions. The user does not need the object to store one value and to bechangeable when using an array, but rather when using a variable. A variable is a data structure that can store one value of any data type in memory. A variable can be accessed or modified by using an identifier or a name that represents the value in the variable. A variable can be useful when the user needs to store one value in an object that can be easily changed or reused throughout the program. The user does not need one object to store numbers only when using an array, but rather when using a numeric data type. A numeric data type is a category of data that can store numbers in various formats or ranges, such as integers, floating-point numbers, complex numbers, etc. A numeric data type can be useful when the user needs one object to store numbers only that can be used for calculations or comparisons in the program.
A technician has successfully verified full system functionality after implementing the solution to a problem.
Which of the following is the NEXT troubleshooting step the technician should do?
Which of the following are benefits of a security awareness training program9 (Select two).
The benefits of a security awareness training program are enhancing overall security and providing information on how to avoid phishing. Enhancing overall security is a benefit of a security awareness training program because it helps users understand the importance and value of security for themselves and their organization. It also helps users develop good security habits and behaviors, such as choosing strong passwords, locking their devices, reporting incidents, etc., which can prevent or reduce security risks and threats. Providing information on how to avoid phishing is a benefit of a security awareness training program because it helps users recognize and respond to phishing attacks, which are one of the most common and effective types of social engineering attacks. Phishing attacks involve sending fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from legitimate sources to trick recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or providing personal or financial information. A security awareness training program can teach users how to identify phishing signs, such as spelling errors, generic greetings, urgent requests, etc., and how to verify the sender, the URL, or the attachment before opening or responding. Lowering the incidence of hardware failures is not a benefit of a security awareness training program, but rather a benefit of a hardware maintenance program. A hardware maintenance program involves performing regular checks and repairs on the physical components of a system or network, such as disks, memory, CPU, power supply, etc., to ensure their proper functioning and performance. A hardware maintenance program can prevent or reduce hardware failures, which can cause data loss, corruption, or interruption for the system or network and its users. Increasing the availability of computers is not a benefit of a security awareness training program, but rather a benefit of a backup and recovery program. A backup and recovery program involves creating and restoring copies of data or systems in case of data loss, corruption, or disaster. A backup and recovery program can increase the availability of computers by ensuring that users can access their data or systems from alternative sources or locations in case of an emergency. Advancing end users’ technical skills is not a benefit of a security awareness training program, but rather a benefit of a technical training program. A technical training program involves teaching users how to use various technologies or applications effectively and efficiently. A technical training program canadvance end users’ technical skills by increasing their knowledge, competence, and productivity with the technologies or applications they use. Creating IT security opportunities for end users is not a benefit of a security awareness training program, but rather a benefit of a career development program. A career development program involves providing users with guidance and resources to help them achieve their professional goals and aspirations. A career development program can create IT security opportunities for end users by exposing them to different IT security roles, paths, or certifications that they can pursue or obtain. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts
An application is hosted on a local network. Which of the following descriptions is correct?
LAN access is required for an application that is hosted on a local network. A local network, also known as a local area network (LAN), is a group of devices that are connected within a limited geographic area, such as a home, an office, or a school. A LAN allows the devices to communicate and share resources, such as files, printers, or applications. An application that is hosted on a local network means that the application is installed and running on one or more devices within the LAN, and can be accessed by other devices within the same LAN. However, to access the application, the device must be connected to the LAN, either by a wired or wireless connection. The application does not exist locally on the device that accesses it, unless it is also installed on that device. The application does not save files in the cloud, unless it has a feature that allows it to sync with a cloud service. The application does not require internet access, unless it needs to communicate with external servers or services outside the LAN. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 3: Infrastructure, pages 83-84
Which of the following are the primary functions of an operating system? (Choose two.)
Which of the following is MOST likely used to represent international text data?
Which of the following is the slowest processing speed?
Processing speed is measured in hertz (Hz), which is the number of cycles per second that a processor can perform. The higher the hertz, the faster the processing speed. There are different units of hertz, such as megahertz (MHz), which is one million hertz, and gigahertz (GHz), which is one billion hertz. Therefore, 3.4MHz is the slowest processing speed among the given options, as it is equivalent to 3.4 million hertz. 2.6GHz is equivalent to 2.6 billion hertz, which is the fastest processing speed among the given options. 5000Kbps and 4Mbps are not units of processing speed, but units of data transfer rate, which measure how much data can be transmitted over a network in a given time. Kbps stands for kilobits per second, and Mbps stands for megabits per second. One megabit is equal to 1000 kilobits, so 4Mbps is equivalent to 4000Kbps. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 1: IT Fundamentals
A game developer is purchasing a computing device to develop a game and recognizes the game engine
software will require a device with high-end specifications that can be upgraded. Which of the following
devices would be BEST for the developer to buy?
Consider the following statements:
Given the input (userin) of“analyst”, to which of the following would the clearance variable be set?
Which of the following is an example of information a company would ask employees to handle in a sensitive manner?
Which of the following BEST describes a kilobyte?
A computer technician is assigned a ticket to install a laptop for a new employee. Due to the arrangement of the
workspace, the employee requests that the laptop be installed with the cover closed. Which of the following
would be required to satisfy this request? (Choose two.)
Which of the following filesystems would a Linux computer MOST likely use?
A technician needs to install a wireless router for a client that supports speeds up to 11Mbps and operates on the 2.4GHz band. Which of the following should the technician select?
Which of the following BEST describes the practice of providing user credentials when logging onto the
Which of the following actions is the FINAL step in the standard troubleshooting methodology?
Which of the following is an example of a compiled language?
C++ is an example of a compiled language. A compiled language is a programming language that requires a compiler to translate the source code into executable code before running the program. A compiler is a program that converts the entire source code into machine code or intermediate code that can be executed by the processor or another program. A compiled language usually offers faster performance and lower memory usage than an interpreted language, but it also requires more time and effort to compile and debug the code. SQL is not a programming language, but a query language that is used to interact with databases. SQL statements are usually executed by a database management system (DBMS) that interprets and processes them. Python is an example of an interpreted language. An interpreted language is a programming language that does not require compilation before running the program. An interpreter is a program that reads and executes the source code line by line at runtime. An interpreted language usually offers more flexibility and portability than a compiled language, but it also requires more memory and CPU resources to run the program. XML is not a programming language either, but a markup language that is used to define and structure data in a human-readable and machine-readable format. XML documents are usually parsed by another program that uses them for data exchange or presentation. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 4: Software Development Concepts, pages 134-135
Which of the following concerns does installing cross-platform software address?
A technician is troubleshooting an error message and tests the same program on a separate, identical
machine. Which of the following troubleshooting methodology steps is this an example of?
A company executive wants to view company training videos from a DVD. Which of the following components would accomplish this task?
Which of the following does a NoSQL database use to organize data?
A systems administrator wants to run a script at a certain time every day. Which of the following is the BEST
way to achieve this?
Which of the following is a value that uniquely identifies a database record?
Employees of a large technology company are provided access to the internet as a work resource. Which of the following most likely represents the level of privacy employees should expect when utilizing this resource?
Given the following pseudocode:
If there are seven apples in the basket, which of the following would be the number of oranges a person eats?
A desktop administrator just connected a printer to a workstation, but the workstation does not recognize the printer. Which of the following does the workstation MOST likely need for the printer to function?
A user wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to the Internet. Which of the
following would be the BEST choice to accomplish this task?
Which of the following types of encryption would BEST protect a laptop computer in the event of theft?
Which of the following network protocols will MOST likely be used when sending and receiving Internet email?
Which of the following is a compiled language?
A function is BEST used for enabling programs to:
A systems administrator is setting up a new server using RAID technology. If one hard drive in the array fails,
the data is stored on another drive, preventing data loss. Which of the following business continuity concepts
does this explain?
An employee is asked to generate a report on a student information system. The employee uses spreadsheet software and connects to a remote database to pull data for the report. Which of the following types of
application architectures did the employee use?