PMI-ACP Practice Exam Questions with Answers PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Certification

The correct answer isBbecause agile approaches prioritizecontinuous stakeholder engagement,collaboration, andadaptive communicationstrategies. When stakeholder roles are redefined due to an organizational restructure, the agile team should proactively and directly engage with the newly impacted stakeholders to clarify expectations, responsibilities, and to maintain alignment with evolving needs.

ThePMI Agile Practice Guidestates:

“Engaging stakeholders directly and frequently fosters a shared understanding of objectives and priorities. Two-way communication, such as conversations and collaboration sessions, is preferred over one-way communication such as reports or status updates.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

In addition,Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Booksupports this approach by highlighting:

“An agile team should regularly revisit and refresh stakeholder analysis. When changes occur in the stakeholder landscape, it's essential to revalidate stakeholder needs through open, two-way communication, rather than assuming static roles.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Stakeholder Engagement)

Options A, C, and D fail to incorporate agile’s emphasis ondirect engagement and collaboration. Option D, while partially correct, lacks the proactive communication componentthat agile requires. Option C suggests a passive communication method (email), which is discouraged in agile practices for important stakeholder interactions.

Therefore, the best agile-aligned choice is: B

Thesprint review/demois the meeting where the teamshows completed work to stakeholdersandgathers feedback. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Sprint Review)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), stakeholders such as department heads or executives should attend sprint demos to stay informed and provide input.

Option Cis correct: sprint demos foster transparency and stakeholder involvement.

Option Ais typically for the Scrum team and product owner.

Option Bis for team internal coordination only.

Option Dis reserved for team process improvement—not stakeholder participation.

Iteration reviews (or sprint reviews) are designed to demonstratecompleted, potentially shippable product increments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance), the purpose of the iteration review is toshowcase work that meets the Definition of Done (DoD)and to receivestakeholder feedback. Demonstrating incomplete or in-progress stories can mislead stakeholders about progress and reduce trust in the team.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)emphasizes the importance of showing only completed work to maintain transparency and clarity in stakeholder communication.

Option Ais correct: only completed stories should be demoed to ensure expectations are managed effectively.

Option BandCare not part of the typical iteration review agenda unless explicitly required.

Option Dis incorrect, as it blurs the line between done and in-progress work.

Spikes are valuable for reducing uncertainty, but agile discouragesspending multiple sprints solely on spikeswithout delivering value. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Exploration)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), learning and delivery should occurconcurrentlywhenever possible. Teams should strive toinclude high-priority deliverables alongside spikes, particularly in early sprints, to build momentum and maintain stakeholder engagement.

Option Cis correct: executing high-priority stories in parallel with spikes promotes learning and value delivery.

Option AandDsupport spikes but ignore the risk ofdelayed value.

Option Bis valid but administrative; the better choice is to avoid needing prolonged spike sprints at all.

The correct answer is C — Call an onsite meeting where ground rules will be discussed and agreed upon.

When multiple distributed teams begin working together, the first priority is to establish common ground rules, expectations, and working agreements. This sets the foundation for effective communication and collaboration. An initial face-to-face (or virtual face-to-face) meeting is often critical for forming trust and shared norms.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should establish working agreements early in the project. These define expectations for communication, decision-making, and collaboration—especially critical for distributed or cross-functional teams.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Collaboration and Communication)

Mike Griffiths:

“Setting ground rules helps build team cohesion, especially in distributed teams. It ensures that all members agree on protocols for meetings, updates, and decision-making.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A is important but typically follows after agreements are in place.

B is routine communication—not the first foundational step.

D supports cohesion but does not establish operational alignment.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is D – Increase the opportunities to confirm common understanding with the client.

The rise in defects and change requests indicates a disconnect between what the team is delivering and what the customer expects. Agile emphasizes constant feedback and collaboration. Ensuring shared understanding through frequent interaction and validation reduces misunderstandings and rework.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent interactions with customers and stakeholders help teams build a shared understanding and reduce the risk of misaligned expectations and defects.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“A high defect rate often results from unclear requirements. Teams should improve communication loops with stakeholders to confirm understanding before development begins.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Why the other options are suboptimal:

A doesn’t address the root cause: misalignment with the client.

B is reactive and temporary, not a sustainable solution.

C may help but should be preceded by improving collaboration and understanding.

Answer: D

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

When a team reports that user stories are unclear or lack sufficient detail, the correct agile response is to fostercollaborative refinement and shared understanding. Auser story workshopis a well-recognized practice that involves the team and product owner collaborating to write, clarify, and refine stories. This is supported by thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Backlog Refinement), which recommends story-writing workshops as a proactive way to clarify requirements.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)notes that good agile teams collaboratively refine stories in grooming sessions or workshops to ensure shared clarity and alignment.

Option Cis correct: a workshop enables both the team and product owner to collaborate in improving story clarity.

Option Aoversimplifies the solution—acceptance criteria alone don’t fully define a story.

Option Bmisuses the retrospective, which is for process improvement, not story editing.

Option Descalates prematurely and undermines team ownership and collaboration.

Stakeholder participation, especially during sprint reviews, iscritical to agile success. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes the importance ofactively engaging stakeholdersthroughout the project lifecycle, particularly during key ceremonies like sprint reviews, where feedback shapes the product.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)states that stakeholders need tounderstand the value of their inputand how it influences product direction. The agile practitioner or Scrum Master should educate and influence stakeholders bydemonstrating the tangible impact of their participation.

Option Dis correct: aligning stakeholders with thebenefits of engagementfosters participation.

Option A,B, andCare passive substitutes and don’t address the root issue of stakeholder disengagement.

The correct answer is D – Make use of a Kanban board so that the team will have a clear view of the work in progress (WIP) for the release.

Agile teams use information radiators like Kanban boards to visualize work, improve flow, identify bottlenecks, and maintain team focus. Visibility of work enhances self-organization and accountability while reducing ambiguity and delays.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Kanban boards provide visibility into the work in progress. They support collaboration, improve team focus, and are effective in both Scrum and Kanban approaches.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.1 – Visual Controls)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Visual tools such as task boards and Kanban boards allow the team to manage their flow and workload. This enables collaboration and transparency without micromanagement.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options fall short:

A introduces unnecessary meetings, potentially disrupting flow.

B may lead to micromanagement and undermine team ownership.

C implies a command-and-control style, which is contrary to Agile principles.

Answer: D

The "Life Timeline" exercise is a technique used to buildpsychological safety and vulnerability-based trust. According toMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), exercises that encourage sharing personal stories and emotional journeys fosterdeep interpersonal connection, which is foundational tohigh-performance teams.

ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Building Trust)emphasizes the role of emotional intelligence and trust-building in agile teams, stating that teams become high-performing when they feelsafe to express themselveswithout fear of judgment.

Option Bis correct: the exercise builds vulnerability and trust—key drivers of high performance.

Option Afocuses on trust but doesn't emphasizevulnerability, which is central here.

Option Cis too generic.

Option Dmisframes the purpose—it’s about building connection, not assessing competencies.

As a servant leader, it is important to address the root cause of the disruption, which in this case is the director's repeated visits and distracting conversations. Coaching the company director on agile practices and good communication helps them understand the need to minimize interruptions and foster a productive environment for the team. This approach will help align the director's behavior with Agile principles, ensuring that the team can focus on delivering value without unnecessary distractions. By educating the director, the servant leader can improve overall team dynamics and project efficiency.

When overwhelmed by support tickets, the agile approach is toprioritize systemic problem-solving over reactive work. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5: Quality and Continuous Improvement)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), agile teams should identifyroot causesrather than just addressing symptoms. Byanalyzing the backlog, the team can spot patterns and addresssystemic issues, reducing incoming ticket volume in the long run.

Option Cis correct: addressing the root cause improves sustainability and overall efficiency.

Option Aleads to burnout and is unsustainable.

Option Bignores prioritization or value.

Option Dis not a strategic response—it increases cost without solving the core issue.

The correct answer is C – Ask the team to discontinue developing the component. Agile empowers the product owner to make real-time scope decisions based on changing customer needs. If a feature no longer delivers value, continuing it violates agile's principle of maximizing value and minimizing waste—even if partially complete.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile welcomes changing requirements—even late in development. The product owner’s role is to ensure that the team focuses on work that delivers the most business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value Prioritization and Scope Management)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“If a component is deemed unnecessary, even mid-development, the product owner has the authority to reprioritize the backlog and halt the work. Agile values responding to change over following a fixed plan.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A suggests unnecessary bureaucracy; agile favors decentralized, empowered decision-making.

B ignores the updated feedback and would create waste.

D is redundant since the sponsor already communicated disinterest; the product owner can act.

Answer: C

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C – Use class of service. In Kanban, the Class of Service (CoS) model is a key technique for prioritization and flow management. It helps teams decide which work items should be expedited, delayed, or treated as standard. Using CoS enables teams to handle tasks based on urgency, business value, and risk.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Classes of service define the rules by which work is selected, prioritized, and delivered. They help make prioritization policies explicit and transparent to stakeholders and team members.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Kanban and Flow-Based Approaches)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Class of service models—such as ‘Expedite’, ‘Fixed Delivery Date’, ‘Standard’, or ‘Intangible’—allow teams to prioritize tasks by business value, risk, and urgency. This is particularly useful in Kanban systems where items flow continuously.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Kanban Practices)

Option A (involving the product owner) is more applicable to Scrum teams; Kanban teams often have shared ownership of flow.

Option B (reviewing WIP limits) affects flow but doesn’t guide task prioritization.

Option D (measuring lead time) helps with process analysis but not immediate prioritization.

Answer: C

????????????????????????????????????????????

In Agile, one of the key principles is to provide continuous feedback and integration throughout the development process, ensuring that components are tested, integrated, and iterated upon regularly. By separating the work into three teams that work independently and only integrate at the end, the strategy risks delaying feedback and potentially causing integration problems. This approach could lead to significant issues when the components are eventually integrated, as they may not work together as expected due to lack of ongoing collaboration and integration. Therefore, working in parallel with proper continuous feedback and integration is crucial in Agile to minimize risks and ensure smooth delivery.

The correct answer is D — Ensure that planning and prioritizing includes consideration of security requirements.

Non-functional requirements (such as security, performance, or compliance) must be included in backlog prioritization and planning sessions. Agile teams must incorporate these concerns into their definition of done and acceptance criteria to ensure continuous compliance and product integrity.

PMI Agile Practice Guide emphasizes:

“Non-functional requirements (NFRs) must be prioritized and planned for alongside functional user stories. They are not optional, and failure to include them early often leads to system failure or technical debt.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Planning Considerations)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile teams should treat NFRs as constraints that are baked into every sprint. Rather than isolating them, they should be considered in backlog refinement and story definition.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A may help, but meeting agendas alone are not sufficient for managing NFRs.

B may assist with knowledge, but it doesn’t guarantee prioritization.

C implies treating the NFR as a risk rather than a core requirement.

Answer: D

Tounderstand the needs of different user types, agile teams usepersonasandextreme charactersto represent a range of users, including edge cases. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Requirements and Personas)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), personas help teams build empathy and ensure that stories reflect actual user roles—not just generic assumptions.

Option Dis correct: personas and extreme characters ensureinclusive and realistic story coverage.

Option AandBfocus on communication and sequencing but not user diversity.

Option C(process flows) is more technical and doesn’t solve the misalignment with user perspectives.

When a feature is too large to fit into a sprint, agile recommendsdecomposing it into smaller user storiesor increments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and MVPs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), teams should break down epics or large stories intoMinimum Viable Product (MVP)segments and deliver value incrementally.

Option Ais correct: this enables the team to deliver value sooner and iteratively build on it.

Option Bdelays addressing customer concerns.

Option Csacrifices overall product balance.

Option Dviolates time-boxing principles in Scrum and agile.

The correct answer is B — Chair a weekly team retrospective focusing on identifying areas for continuous improvement.

Retrospectives are a core Agile practice used to inspect and adapt the team’s process, foster self-improvement, and enhance performance. If productivity is flat, the best approach is to collaboratively reflect with the team to uncover bottlenecks, identify areas for experimentation, and implement process adjustments.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a key feedback loop that allow the team to assess their performance and decide how to improve it. The retrospective is a cornerstone for continuous improvement and high-performing teams.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Rather than externally imposed metrics, agile teams should drive performance improvements through retrospectives where they inspect their own work and collectively identify opportunities for efficiency.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is diagnostic but insufficient for process improvement without team involvement.

C introduces hierarchy and undermines team empowerment.

D introduces extrinsic motivation, which may damage team collaboration and intrinsic ownership.

Answer: B

—

To effectively address blockers and minimize their occurrence, the team should first analyze the root causes of the blockers. By grouping them and identifying patterns, the team can understand the common causes of delays and take targeted actions to eliminate or mitigate these issues. This practice aligns with continuous improvement in Agile, where teams reflect on their processes, identify areas of inefficiency, and adapt their workflow to reduce future blockers and lead times. This approach allows the team to address the underlying issues and make process improvements that benefit future sprints.

As a servant leader, one of the key responsibilities is to protect the team from external distractions and interruptions that could affect their ability to focus and deliver value. This allows the team to work in a productive environment and maintain their focus on the important tasks, such as delivering the minimum viable product (MVP). By removing impediments and guarding against distractions, the servant leader enables the team to be more effective and efficient.

The correct answer is B – Prioritizing stories.

The MoSCoW method is a prioritization technique used in Agile to categorize requirements and backlog items based on their business value. It helps stakeholders and teams agree on what is essential to deliver versus what is desirable or optional.

MoSCoW stands for:

M – Must have

S – Should have

C – Could have

W – Won’t have (this time)

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The MoSCoW prioritization method helps stakeholders classify backlog items based on their criticality and desired delivery timing. This enables better alignment with business objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“MoSCoW is a simple but effective method for clarifying which features are essential and which can be deferred. It enhances transparency during prioritization discussions.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A – Estimating story size involves techniques like planning poker or T-shirt sizing.

C – Product validation is done via demos, acceptance criteria, and stakeholder feedback.

D – Progress tracking uses tools like burndown charts or cumulative flow diagrams.

Answer: B

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C – Seek regular input from project stakeholders, and reflect this input in the backlog’s priorities. Agile is a stakeholder-driven process, and backlog refinement should be informed by continuous feedback. The product owner maximizes value by regularly reviewing stakeholder needs and reprioritizing accordingly.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The product owner is responsible for maintaining the backlog and ensuring it reflects stakeholder priorities. Ongoing engagement with stakeholders ensures the product delivers maximum value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Management)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile product owners engage stakeholders continuously to update priorities and deliver value incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is good practice but doesn’t address the stakeholder engagement challenge.

B confuses story size with business value.

D lacks the agility required in a fast-moving project.

Answer: C

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C — Ask the team member to update daily progress on the information radiators.

In Agile, transparency and self-organization are key. Information radiators (e.g., task boards, digital dashboards) allow all team members and stakeholders to see the current state of work at any time. If a team member cannot attend stand-ups, they should still update their tasks on the board so that others are informed.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Information radiators ensure transparent communication of progress, risks, and blockers to all team members and stakeholders. These should be updated in real-time or daily by those responsible.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.6 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths:

“Task boards and progress charts allow anyone to see project status without waiting for meetings. Team members must take responsibility for keeping them current.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A punishes the team for one member’s lack of participation and doesn’t solve the communication issue.

B reintroduces a command-and-control model, reducing team ownership.

D is dishonest and violates agile principles of transparency.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is A – Use the DISC framework with each team member.

The DISC model (Dominance, Influence, Steadiness, and Conscientiousness) is a well-established behavioral assessment tool used to understand communication preferences, motivators, and individual work styles. Agile leaders may use tools like DISC to foster emotional intelligence, improve collaboration, and re-engage disengaged team members.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Effective agile leaders understand individual team members' communication styles and motivations. Tools such as DISC or MBTI can help assess personality preferences and enable better coaching.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Behavioral models such as DISC support the development of emotionally intelligent teams. They help leaders tailor their coaching and communication approaches to individual needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are incorrect:

B (MoSCoW) is a prioritization technique, not a tool for personal engagement.

C (Hiring a SAFe coach) is overkill and not the most direct or relevant response.

D (BDUF – Big Design Up Front) is a traditional approach unrelated to team dynamics or motivation.

Answer: A

The correct answer is C — Generate insights at the next retrospective and adjust processes as decided by the team.

The retrospective is the proper agile ceremony for identifying issues related to team performance, communication, and process inefficiencies. It's an opportunity for the team to collaboratively review their work, generate insights, and agree on improvements. Inconsistent defect data is a team-level issue best addressed through inspection and adaptation during the retrospective.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Retrospectives allow the team to inspect how they work together and continuously improve their team norms, working agreements, and definitions of done.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 — Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Retrospectives provide teams the opportunity to identify recurring problems, such as inconsistent defect documentation, and agree upon actions for improvement. Teams should self-organize and own their process improvements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 — Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is disruptive — iterations are not stopped unless critical.

B misuses the planning meeting, which is for backlog commitment, not process review.

D treats a process improvement as a backlog item, which may dilute accountability.

Answer: C

—

With a limited budget of $17,000 remaining, the product owner should prioritize features that provide the most value to the customer. This means considering the business needs, customer feedback, and potential value of each feature rather than focusing solely on completing all planned features. Features like the Reporting Module, which have not started and have a high estimated cost, might need to be reconsidered or deferred based on priority. By assessing which features deliver the most value to stakeholders and aligning with the overall objectives, the product owner can make the most efficient use of the remaining budget.

In an Agile environment, fostering a culture of collaboration and effective communication is key to success, especially when working with a diverse team. By creating a shared vision, the project manager aligns the team towards common goals, which helps reduce misunderstandings. Using techniques to increase empathy and positive interaction ensures that team members understand and respect each other's different perspectives. This approach promotes a collaborative environment where diverse ideas can be valued and conflicts can be addressed constructively.

When comparingtotal scope (story points)andvelocity, you can calculate the number of sprints each team expects:

Team A: 420 / 30 = 14 sprints

Team B: 280 / 20 = 14 sprints

Even though the story points are different,both teams estimate the same number of sprints, which means they estimatesimilar effort and durationrelative to their own internal baselines. This aligns with the concept thatstory points are relative and not comparable across teams.

PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Velocity and Relative Estimation)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)explain that velocity is ateam-specific measureand cannot be directly compared between teams.

Option Dis correct: both teams have estimated thesame project size in their own context.

Options A and Bincorrectly compare velocity between teams.

Option Cis irrelevant; velocity is based on team experience, not technology assumptions.

The correct answer is A — Establish and keep an active risk register that includes mitigation strategies and a cost-benefit analysis.

Risk management is essential to identifying and mitigating threats such as natural disasters. While Agile teams do not typically use traditional risk registers extensively, at the enterprise level (especially in regulated or high-risk environments), maintaining a risk register aligned with Agile values is appropriate. It should include mitigation options and their associated cost-benefit to guide decision-making.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile risk management practices include establishing lightweight mechanisms such as risk-adjusted backlog prioritization, risk registers (in high-risk or large programs), and risk mitigation strategies.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Managing Risk in Agile Projects)

PMBOK® Guide (6th Edition) supports this:

“The risk register is a critical project artifact that includes identified risks, their analysis, mitigation or response plans, and cost-benefit considerations for managing risks.”

Incorrect options:

B lacks the inclusion of mitigation strategies and full cost analysis.

C refers to surface-level risk visibility, not comprehensive risk planning.

D assumes avoidance is the only mitigation strategy, which is not always feasible or optimal.

Answer: A

—

When significant architectural flaws are discovered, agile teamsinspect and adapt. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives and Adaptation), the product owner and team shouldcollaboratively reassess priorities and rewrite backlog itemsto reflect the rework needed. This is aligned with agile’sincremental delivery and continuous adaptation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)stresses that rework should be handled through backlog refinement and collaborative planning—not panic or reactive decisions.

Option Cis correct: reassessing the backlog with stakeholders aligns with agile practices.

Option Aabdicates product responsibility.

Option Bis too rigid for agile, unless the risk matrix is already very mature and agile-focused.

Option Dcancels value delivery and is unnecessarily drastic.

The daily coordination meeting (often referred to as the daily standup) should be a brief check-in where each team member quickly shares their updates and impediments, focusing on the status of work and immediate blockers. If a detailed discussion arises during the meeting, the agile facilitator should politely stop the discussion and suggest scheduling a separate meeting to dive deeper into the issue. This ensures the daily meeting stays focused, time is used efficiently, and team members aren't distracted from their updates. By handling the issue separately, the facilitator helps maintain the flow and productivity of the team while still addressing the impediment effectively.

The agile lead should evaluate the team's capacity and help them select user stories that align with around 80% of their available capacity for the iteration. This approach takes into account potential issues or interruptions and helps ensure the team is not overcommitting. By selecting user stories based on a realistic understanding of the team’s capacity, the team is more likely to meet their commitments and avoid incomplete work. This method promotes sustainable work practices and helps the team maintain a predictable velocity over time.

DevOps is a methodology that focuses on enhancing collaboration between development and operations teams to create a continuous feedback loop and speed up the delivery process. The key to enabling and sustaining a fast workflow is the establishment of a culture of collaboration, supported by the right tools and processes that allow for continuous delivery. This culture helps break down silos between teams, leading to faster and more efficient workflows that can continuously deliver value to customers.

The project manager should ensure that risks are clearly visible to all team members so that everyone is aware of potential issues and can take action as necessary. Displaying the RAID log visually makes it easy for the team to see the status of risks, assumptions, issues, and dependencies in real-time. This encourages the team to follow up on risks and keep them top of mind, facilitating more proactive management of potential threats to the sprint's success. This approach also helps in maintaining transparency and continuous monitoring of risks throughout the sprint.

The correct answer is A — To better listen, serve, and help the team grow their strengths individually and as a team.

An agile coach is a servant-leader whose role is to guide the team by modeling agile values, being present, actively listening, and helping teams grow. Coaching in agile is about enabling—not controlling—the team. A coach’s mindfulness, authenticity, and presence inspire the same behaviors in the team.

PMI Agile Practice Guide notes:

“The agile coach models the agile mindset, including being present, self-aware, and aligned with agile principles. This helps the team build trust, foster collaboration, and grow capabilities organically.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Effective coaches guide by example. By modeling agile values and demonstrating presence, emotional intelligence, and listening, coaches help teams unlock their full potential.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B suggests control rather than collaboration.

C is anti-agile and contrary to the servant-leader model.

D is valid but lacks the depth of A, which captures the coach’s mindset and actions.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is A — Suggest the product owner start by focusing on the next 2 sprints instead of 10.

Agile embraces progressive elaboration — planning is done in detail only for the near term, while long-term plans remain high level and flexible. By encouraging short-term focus, the Scrum Master helps the product owner shift from a predictive mindset to an adaptive one.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects plan at multiple levels (release, iteration, and daily), focusing on near-term commitments while allowing flexibility for change. Planning multiple sprints in detail violates the principle of adaptability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Progressive Elaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Detailed long-term estimates reduce agility. The product owner should learn to prioritize work based on value, and accept that estimates beyond the next sprint or two are rough forecasts.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

B undermines agile principles by reverting to waterfall planning.

C misuses the retrospective, which is team-focused.

D may alienate the product owner rather than encourage a mindset shift.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is A – Plan activities that will require the team to work collaboratively on a regular basis.

Agile teams thrive on collaboration, shared ownership, and collective problem solving. While individual performance may meet goals short-term, long-term value and quality come from integrated teamwork. An agile practitioner should help foster collaboration through team-building activities or practices like pair programming, collective backlog grooming, and swarming.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are self-organizing and collaborative. Encouraging collaborative practices builds trust, increases quality, and improves alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Collaboration does not happen automatically—it must be supported. Facilitating shared work and group problem-solving leads to stronger team dynamics and better outcomes.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are less effective:

B introduces rigid evaluation that contradicts agile values.

C bypasses coaching and assumes the current team can’t improve.

D ignores the growing problem of misalignment and disengagement.

Answer: A

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The scrum master should emphasize the core principles of agile, which are centered around collaboration, delivering value incrementally, and fostering a shared mindset among the team. In an agile environment, success is not only about following processes but about the team working together towards a common goal, adapting to change, and continuously delivering value to customers. These principles are the foundation of agile methodologies and essential for teams that are new to agile to understand.

In an adaptive environment, the project manager’s role is focused on facilitating collaboration and communication among stakeholders, teams, and sponsors to ensure that decisions are made quickly and effectively as circumstances change. This aligns with the agile principle of collaboration over contract negotiation and emphasizes adaptability and the ability to respond to changing needs. While project managers may still contribute to planning and other activities, fostering a collaborative and flexible decision-making process is key in an adaptive environment.

Agile promotescross-functional teamsandreducing bottlenecksthrough knowledge sharing and skill development. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Cross-functional Teams)recommends that team members developT-shaped skillsto handle more types of work. Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)advocates forskill broadeningto improve team throughput and resilience.

Option Ais correct: cross-training removes dependencies and improves flow.

Option Bdelays action and prolongs the issue.

Option Creduces delivery capacity rather than addressing the root cause.

Option Darbitrarily limits scope and doesn’t resolve the underlying skill gap.

To prevent the issue of the customer declining to accept the final deliverable after the demo, the project manager should prioritize frequent releases and feedback loops. By releasing new features or updates frequently, customers have the opportunity to provide feedback earlier in the process, which allows for adjustments to be made during development rather than at the end. This iterative process ensures that the final product better aligns with the customer's expectations and requirements.

To prevent the prioritization meeting from turning into a brainstorming session, the product owner should ensure that user stories are well-defined before they are added to the backlog. By reviewing the items with the product owner’s teammates (or stakeholders) beforehand, the product owner can clarify the details of the stories and ensure they are properly defined. This allows the team to focus on prioritization during the meeting, rather than spending time clarifying vague requests. This proactive approach improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the prioritization process.

The correct answer is C — The stakeholders will learn whether or not the implementation has worked by getting immediate feedback so they can correct their assumptions for the next sprint.

Agile welcomes stakeholder involvement throughout the project lifecycle. Demos (also called sprint reviews) are critical opportunities for stakeholders to inspect the product increment and provide feedback, which helps teams pivot or adapt early and often. Immediate feedback reduces the risk of building features that do not meet business needs.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Iteration reviews/demos provide stakeholders with the opportunity to see working product increments and offer feedback while there is still time to make changes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.7 – Reviews and Demos)

Mike Griffiths supports this by stating:

“Engaging stakeholders during sprint reviews allows assumptions to be challenged early. This feedback loop ensures value alignment and reduces the likelihood of rework.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A incorrectly distances stakeholders from essential agile feedback cycles.

B shifts focus away from value to effort-based metrics.

D is more about long-term ROI, not immediate iterative feedback.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is B – Create a team norms document to set participation guidelines. Establishing team norms improves psychological safety, trust, and collaborative behavior. It provides a structured way to handle differences of opinion and ensure equal contribution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Team norms or working agreements are guidelines created by the team to set expectations for behavior, participation, and communication. These norms are agreed upon early and revisited as needed to support healthy collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“High-performing agile teams create shared agreements that clarify roles, expectations, and behavior. When team conflict or disconnects arise, practitioners should guide the team to revisit or develop such norms.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A lacks structure and may not address the root issue.

C delays resolution and misuses the stand-up’s purpose.

D waits too long to act; issues should be addressed immediately, not deferred.

Answer: B

?????????????????????????????????????????????????????????

The sprint retrospective is a key Scrum ceremony where the team reflects on the sprint, identifies what went well, what didn’t, and discusses ways to improve their processes. The focus is on continuous improvement, and the team makes plans to implement those improvements in future sprints. Stakeholders are typically not involved in the retrospective, but it’s important for them to understand that the meeting is about helping the team improve their collaboration, efficiency, and performance.

Servant leadership is about supporting the team, empowering them, and ensuring they have what they need to succeed. The team leader should focus on removing impediments that block the team's progress. By doing so, the leader enables the team to work more efficiently and effectively, without being obstructed by recurring issues. This aligns with the servant leadership mindset of putting the team's needs first and helping them reach their goals.

The correct answer is A – Cross-train some members in the automation framework to broaden their capacity with that skill. Agile teams are cross-functional and self-organizing. Cross-training helps build resilience, reduce skill bottlenecks, and ensure continuous delivery without unnecessary delays or dependence.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Cross-training improves team performance and flexibility. Agile encourages developing T-shaped skills—broad knowledge across functions and deep knowledge in one.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Cross-Functionality)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“High-performing agile teams actively cross-train to address skill gaps and reduce dependencies. This enhances velocity and self-sufficiency.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B undermines team self-management and is not the PO’s responsibility.

C delays the needed skill improvement.

D sacrifices quality and value.

Answer: A

????????????????????????????????????

The Scrum Master should help ensure that stakeholders understand Agile principles and terms correctly to facilitate smooth decision-making. Organizing training sessions is an effective way to address misunderstandings and create awareness around Agile values. By ensuring all stakeholders are on the same page, the team can move forward with a shared understanding, which is critical for successfully implementing Agile methodologies. This approach promotes long-term buy-in and alignment, rather than simply pushing for a decision without proper education or consensus.

The correct answer is C – Non-functional requirements should have been added to the definition of done. Non-functional requirements such as performance, security, or usability criteria apply across stories and should be included in the Definition of Done (DoD) to ensure consistent delivery of quality attributes.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The definition of done should incorporate quality standards, including non-functional requirements. This ensures these standards are consistently applied across all deliverables.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Non-functional requirements are often best represented in the DoD so they’re applied universally. Without this, teams may deliver functionality that lacks necessary quality characteristics.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A would help but isn’t sufficient for global system qualities.

B is suitable for specific stories but doesn’t ensure consistency across the product.

D is helpful but doesn’t guarantee alignment with quality standards.

Answer: C

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is B – Evaluate the impact of the change request and let the team and Product Owner decide and reprioritize based on value. Agile allows for mid-iteration changes only in exceptional cases where business value is at risk. Such changes must be evaluated collaboratively.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams may allow scope changes mid-iteration if the benefit clearly outweighs the cost. In such cases, the Product Owner and team collaboratively assess and decide whether to accommodate the change.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Iteration Planning and Scope Flexibility)

Mike Griffiths also explains:

“While mid-iteration changes are discouraged, if the change is critical to business value, the team and Product Owner may replan collaboratively. Agile encourages flexibility with customer-focused decision-making.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and D bypass collaborative evaluation.

C is too extreme for a small but valuable change.

Answer: B

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C – Identify and monitor issues through a risk burndown chart.

Risk burndown charts track how risk exposure is increasing or decreasing over time. This agile artifact is used to communicate risk trends and drive conversations around risk mitigation. It’s especially useful when risks threaten iteration goals or release timelines.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Risk burndown charts are visual tools that track remaining project risk. They help identify whether risks are increasing or decreasing and enable proactive management.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Risk Management in Agile)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Tracking risks visually, such as in a risk burndown chart, helps stakeholders understand exposure levels and fosters risk-mitigation behavior across the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Risk Management)

Why the other options fall short:

A delays action and does not help real-time monitoring.

B tracks tasks, not risk.

D (issue log) may help but lacks the proactive visual trend tracking provided by a burndown chart.

Answer: C

The correct answer is C – Encourage all feedback then work with the customer to prioritize work for future sprints. Agile welcomes continuous feedback and values customer collaboration. All feedback should be collected and considered, but the product backlog is reprioritized to align with capacity and business goals.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile promotes constant feedback to refine product direction. Feedback is incorporated into the backlog, prioritized based on value, and delivered incrementally according to capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery and Continuous Customer Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Stakeholder feedback is essential in agile. Not all feedback can be implemented immediately, but it should be welcomed, evaluated, and prioritized transparently in collaboration with the product owner and stakeholders.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A implies a heavy process not aligned with agile.

B prematurely limits feedback before collaborative prioritization.

D ignores the product owner’s prioritization role.

Answer: C

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C – Invite the new release manager to the sprint demo and ask for help. Agile encourages stakeholder collaboration and visibility. Sprint reviews (also known as demos) are key opportunities for stakeholders, including release managers, to engage directly with the team and provide feedback. Since the issue is related to environmental instability and the new release manager is a key stakeholder, involving them in the sprint review enables mutual understanding and sets the stage for collaboration.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use the sprint review to present completed work to stakeholders and receive direct feedback. It is also an opportunity to engage stakeholders who can influence the delivery environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile encourages frequent stakeholder collaboration. Sprint reviews should include key stakeholders who are responsible for operational and release matters to ensure alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Options A and D are passive approaches and may not lead to effective communication. Option B (attending daily standups) may be helpful but is not the best opportunity for strategic involvement compared to a sprint demo.

Answer: C

=========

Agile emphasizessustainable paceandcontinuous improvement, not overworking or overcommitting. The appropriate response is to identify why the team overcommitted, learn from it, andadjust future sprint planning. This aligns with thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Sprint Planning and Velocity)andSection 5.6: Retrospectives, which recommend using retrospectives to address such issues.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)explains that over-committing leads to poor predictability, and inspecting root causes helps refine estimation and velocity in future sprints.

Option Cis correct: it supports learning and improves future planning.

Option Apromotes unsustainable practices.

Option Bmisunderstands velocity—it’s a measurement, not something to be increased by will.

Option Dundermines team stability and agile planning based on consistent team capacity.

Spikes are meant forexperimentation and learning, not guaranteed outcomes. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes), if a spike does not lead to a clear solution, the team can extend or reframe it, especially when aiming for asustainable long-term solution. Agile supportsencouraging experimentationand learning from failure.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution) recommends adapting when a spike’s results are inconclusive—redefining the scope and collaborating as a teamincreases the chance of a valuable outcome.

Option Bis correct: it continues learning and promotes team collaboration.

Option Aundercuts team ownership.

Option Cprioritizes a short-term fix and undermines agile values.

Option Dis not needed at this early stage—root cause analysis is better for recurring or systemic issues.

Since PO Integration (Item #3) currently lacks user stories and estimated story points, the project team needs to break it down into smaller user stories or tasks before moving forward. This will allow the team to:

Assess dependencies and integration requirements more effectively.

Prioritize and deliver in smaller, testable increments.

Improve estimation accuracy using techniques like planning poker.

Ensure alignment with agile principles of incremental and iterative delivery.

The correct answer is D – Add a variety of users, such as business analysts and domain experts, to the team.

When direct access to a true end-user is not possible, Agile teams can maintain strong customer representation by including subject matter experts, business analysts, or domain experts who have a deep understanding of user needs. This helps maintain focus on value delivery and minimizes the risk of developing the wrong product.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“If actual customers are not available to participate, the team may rely on proxies, such as product owners, subject matter experts, or business analysts who can effectively represent the voice of the customer.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“In the absence of true users, teams can engage stakeholders who are closest to the user’s experience—such as domain experts or business analysts—to ensure continuous feedback and guidance.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options fall short:

A increases output speed but doesn’t address misalignment with user value.

B adds technical depth but not business perspective or user empathy.

C changes cadence but doesn’t improve customer representation.

Answer: D

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is B — They most likely discussed the best approach for this project with the team and will adapt and tailor the approach periodically by reviewing and verifying the scope with the customer.

In Agile, tailoring and adaptiveness are key. Agile projects are not "one-size-fits-all" — teams assess the context and collaboratively select and continuously tailor the best-fit practices. Agile also emphasizes engaging stakeholders frequently and iteratively refining scope.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams tailor their processes and continually adapt to changing needs. The decision to use agile practices should be based on the nature of the work and team collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Tailoring Agile)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile promotes adaptive planning and continuous stakeholder engagement to ensure alignment and responsiveness to change.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

—

The correct answer is C – Ask the Product Owner to select an item from the backlog on which to work. The Product Owner is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog. When a team finishes its sprint work early, it should collaborate with the Product Owner to identify the next highest-value item to pull into the sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner owns the backlog and prioritization. If work is completed early, the team may pull in the next most important backlog item, subject to capacity and readiness.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Execution)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“If there’s remaining capacity in the sprint, teams should consult the Product Owner to select the next item. The Scrum Master facilitates, but the PO owns content decisions.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A skips prioritization.

B misplaces decision-making authority.

D incorrectly involves the Scrum Master in backlog decisions.

Answer: C

Analyzing theburndown chart, we see:

Points Planned(gray squares): decreasing steadily from 50 to 0 over 10 days (ideal burn).

Points Completed(gray triangles):plateau between days 3–6, lagging significantly behind planned completion.

This indicates that theteam is behind schedule, and unless they accelerate, they mayfail to complete all committed work.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Burndown Charts)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Monitoring Progress), such divergence between the ideal and actual burn lines indicates that the iteration isat risk.

Option Ais correct: the iteration isin jeopardydue to lack of progress mid-sprint.

Option Bis incorrect—scope removal would show a downward shift in planned points.

Option Cis false—the team isbehind, not ahead.

Option Dis misleading—velocity appears inconsistent (e.g., plateau from day 3–6).

The correct answer is C – Work with the team to create a solution for disseminating team knowledge throughout the company.

Agile values shared learning and continuous improvement. A lack of accessible organizational knowledge is a systemic issue. The agile practitioner should help the team implement lightweight, repeatable knowledge-sharing practices—such as wikis, communities of practice, or internal retrospectives.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Organizational learning is an essential part of agile culture. Sharing information across teams enables continuous improvement and avoids repeated mistakes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.1 – Organizational Learning)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Coaching agile teams includes promoting knowledge sharing mechanisms across the organization. Practices like open reviews, documentation wikis, or retrospective reports can help teams learn from each other.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A suggests reporting but may become overhead without solving the core issue.

B avoids organizational improvement by isolating the team.

D brings in external help when the issue can be resolved internally.

Answer: C

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

At this point in the planning process, the team has not yet gathered enough data to provide a precise release date. The team's velocity (the amount of work they can complete in each iteration) has not been established, and the team needs some iterations to stabilize and gather insights. However, they can offer a broad range based on the current understanding of the backlog and priorities. This allows the sponsor to have a rough expectation while also managing the uncertainty involved at this stage in the process.

The correct answer is B – Ask the team for suggestions. Agile teams are self-organizing. The Scrum Master should facilitate problem-solving by enabling the team to collaboratively decide how to handle bottlenecks. This approach respects the team's autonomy and encourages shared ownership.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Scrum Masters facilitate team collaboration and self-organization. When problems arise, they engage the team in identifying and implementing solutions, rather than solving issues unilaterally.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Servant Leadership and Team Empowerment)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“The Scrum Master’s role is to facilitate rather than direct. If a team member falls behind, the team should collectively explore options for support, ensuring accountability and transparency.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A undermines team autonomy and assigns tasks, which the Scrum Master should not do.

C may help, but addressing issues privately doesn’t promote transparency.

D involves the Product Owner unnecessarily in team internal issues.

Answer: B

The correct answer is A — A formalized agile approach offers controlled flexibility in dealing with unknown variables in a manner that adds business value.

Agile is designed to operate effectively under conditions of high uncertainty. It allows for controlled experimentation, feedback loops, and adaptive changes, all while maintaining a focus on delivering business value. This makes it ideal for environments reliant on data analytics and frequent changes.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide the flexibility to respond to changing conditions and unknowns while ensuring that value delivery remains aligned with stakeholder needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 – Agile Principles)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile’s incremental delivery model enables teams to validate assumptions and adapt based on feedback and data—making it a natural fit for data-driven organizations.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

B is factually incorrect and overly simplistic.

C misrepresents agile as a formal change-control process.

D is an opinion, not a principle.

Agile teamsembrace changeandcollaborate with customersto deliver value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1: Agile Mindset)supports responding to change—even late in the development cycle—if it results in business value. The team shouldaccept the new goal, replan with the product owner, andadjust scope or priority if needed, rather than resist or escalate.

Option Ais correct: it reflects the agile value ofresponding to change and delivering early value.

Option Bis too rigid and contrary to agile principles.

Option Cimplies a punitive model that does not align with collaborative agile contracts.

Option Dintroduces unnecessary cost and overhead without first trying to replan collaboratively.

Stated understanding of the release goal

The release goal provides clarity on the purpose and objectives of the release. It helps stakeholders understand the value the team aims to deliver.

List of the user stories that will be part of the next releases

A well-defined list of user stories ensures that stakeholders know which features and functionalities are planned for upcoming releases.

To identify the features that offer the maximum value, the product owner should focus on understanding the needs and priorities of the product's end users. By identifying the users and their key activities, the product owner can ensure that the features included in the roadmap directly address the most important user needs and deliver the highest value. This user-centric approach ensures that the product delivers tangible benefits to its intended audience and aligns with their requirements.

As a servant leader, the agile coach’s role is to support and empower the team, helping them overcome obstacles that hinder their progress. In this case, the coach should focus on identifying and removing any impediments that are slowing down the work, whether they are technical, process-related, or communication-based. This approach enables the team to work more efficiently, enhances their ability to self-organize, and ensures they can deliver high-quality results. Simply adjusting the work plan or assigning more resources may not address the underlying issues, and a command-and-control approach is counterproductive in an Agile environment.

In Scrum, the goal is to have open discussions during estimation, where all team members, including junior developers, can express their thoughts and assumptions. The Scrum Master should encourage the junior developers to keep their estimations because these can highlight different perspectives, constraints, or assumptions that others may not have considered. This helps create a more comprehensive understanding of the work and fosters a collaborative environment. It also builds confidence in junior team members, allowing them to contribute more effectively and learn from their peers in the process.

When issuesrecur across multiple iterations, it’s a strong indication that theroot cause has not been addressed. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)recommend performingroot cause analysistechniques (e.g., 5 Whys, Fishbone diagram) to ensure that the true source of recurring problems is uncovered and resolved.

Option Bis correct: identifying root causes is essential to sustainable improvements.

Option Amay help but doesn’t address the underlying team-level process.

Option Cis usefulaftera solution is implemented but not the priority when the cause is unknown.

Option Dis helpful for tracking, but again, ineffective if the root cause is unidentified.

The purpose of the daily standup (or daily coordination meeting) is to help the development team stay aligned with the sprint goal and actively manage any risks or impediments that may be blocking progress. It allows the team to quickly discuss their progress, share potential issues, and identify dependencies that could affect the sprint's success. The focus is on team collaboration and ensuring that everyone is on track.

The correct answer is D – Reestimate all stories including values for A, B, and C. Agile promotes empirical process control, meaning teams adapt based on what they learn. When significant deviations are found in actual effort vs. story point estimates, the team should revisit and refine their estimation process, including reestimating stories to better align with reality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimates are revisited based on experience. Teams inspect and adapt during retrospectives, using data to improve future estimation accuracy.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When estimates prove inaccurate, teams should reestimate affected stories. Estimating is a collaborative process, and learning from past deviations is a key part of adaptive planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may distort estimation by comparison and not correct the root issue.

B manipulates velocity data and violates agile principles of transparency.

C attempts to “force fit” effort rather than inspect and adapt.

Answer: D

????????????????????????????????????

The Scrum Master should facilitate open discussions between the product owner and the development team to help them align on the initial features and the first stages of implementation. By encouraging dialogue, the Scrum Master can ensure that both parties understand each other’s perspectives and collaborate to find a solution that meets the goals of the project. This approach fosters a collaborative environment and ensures that everyone is aligned on what needs to be delivered, promoting shared ownership of the product’s success.

The correct answer is C – Schedule a story grooming session with the product owner before sprint planning. Story grooming (backlog refinement) ensures that stories are ready, appropriately detailed, and understood before planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Backlog refinement sessions are a key practice where the team, facilitated by the Scrum Master, ensures that backlog items are well-defined and sized appropriately for future planning. These sessions reduce ambiguity and promote shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Backlog refinement allows stories to be clarified, split, and estimated ahead of planning. Agile practitioners ensure backlog items meet the Definition of Ready (DoR) before sprint planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A delays collaboration and is too passive.

B lacks product owner involvement.

D is a sizing technique, not a requirement clarification method.

Answer: C

?????????????????????????????????????????????????????????

To ensure that the service will benefit the customer and meet their requirements, the product owner should build a prototype. Prototypes allow the team to create an early, low-fidelity version of the product that can be used to gather direct feedback from the targeted customer segment. This helps to validate whether the service aligns with the customer's needs and expectations before investing heavily in full development.

The correct answer is C – Asked to be relieved of project tasks to maintain team velocity.

Agile promotes transparency and accountability within teams. When a team member becomes unavailable due to competing priorities, it is their responsibility to inform the team so that work can be reallocated appropriately. This maintains the integrity of sprint commitments and avoids unplanned impacts on velocity.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Team members are expected to proactively communicate capacity issues. Agile teams thrive when individuals are transparent about availability and workload, allowing adjustments to commitments.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset and Team Behavior)

Mike Griffiths states:

“If someone’s availability changes, they must make that clear to the team. Holding on to tasks without capacity leads to velocity distortion and delivery issues.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are incorrect:

A attempts to do both initiatives, which may result in burnout or failed delivery.

B focuses effort away from the agile team’s responsibilities.

D is unrealistic in cross-functional organizations where members may support multiple initiatives.

Answer: C

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C – Risk-value quadrant. This technique is a prioritization matrix that helps teams identify and rank backlog items by evaluating their business value against their risk. This ensures early delivery of high-value and high-risk features, supporting fail-fast learning and reducing uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The risk-value matrix helps prioritize features by plotting them based on business value and implementation risk. High-value/high-risk items are often addressed first.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The risk-value quadrant is a powerful tool to guide agile prioritization. It ensures the most valuable and uncertain items are tackled early to deliver insights quickly.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is used for estimation, not prioritization.

B is a scheduling concept, not a prioritization method.

D refers to story quality (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable), not prioritization.

Answer: C

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is A – Hold a meeting with the team and the Product Owner to develop the team charter, working agreement, guiding principles, and product vision. This collaborative approach fosters shared understanding, ownership, and alignment early in the project.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team chartering process includes developing working agreements, clarifying the product vision, defining team norms, and establishing the team's mission. Early alignment builds trust and commitment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“A strong start includes co-creating team values, the product vision, and working agreements. Doing this together builds a strong foundation for delivery.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 2 – Agile Principles and Chapter 4 – Team Formation)

Incorrect options:

B separates the Product Owner from the team early on.

C reverses the roles—vision should be owned by the Product Owner.

D is helpful, but not a prerequisite for team alignment and success.

Answer: A

A key agile principle is that user stories should includeclear acceptance criteria, which must bereviewed and accepted by the product owner. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Acceptance Criteria)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), acceptance criteria ensure that the team and product ownershare a clear understandingof what constitutes “done.”

Option Ais correct: having the product owner validate acceptance criteria ensures alignment.

Option Baddresses technical quality but not stakeholder dissatisfaction.

Option Cunfairly shifts blame without addressing communication.

Option Dgoes against agile’s iterative and flexible nature.

The best approach to resolving this conflict is collaborating, as it encourages open communication and active participation from all team members. In this case, the graphic designer’s non-participation is causing frustration within the team. The Scrum Master should facilitate a discussion where the designer can express their concerns, and the team can share why their attendance in meetings is important. By collaborating, the Scrum Master can help find a solution that addresses both the designer’s needs and the team's expectations, ensuring better teamwork and alignment moving forward. This approach encourages mutual respect and fosters a cooperative environment.

The correct answer is D – Ask the team to estimate the amount of rework needed so that adjustments can be made to both the project and release plan.

Agile planning is adaptive and iterative. New information, including required rework, must be integrated into updated estimates and plans. Agile teams frequently replan based on the realities of work-in-progress.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

Capturing and reviewinglessons learnedis a vital practice in both agile and traditional environments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives)andPMBOK® Guide (Lessons Learned Register), continuous learning from project execution helps teams and organizationsimprove predictability, quality, and efficiency.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)highlights the importance of documenting insights and feeding them into future projects for organizational maturity.

Option Ais correct: creating and reviewing a lessons learned repository supportsorganizational learningand better delivery.

Option Bconfuses issue tracking with structured learning.

Option Cremoves responsibility from the team—agile encouragesteam ownership of improvement.

Option Dis helpful in some contexts but is not a repeatable organizational improvement tool like a lessons learned repository.

The correct answer is B – Conduct story-mapping exercises to clarify deliverables and release priorities. Story mapping is a visual practice that aligns stakeholders and teams around a shared understanding of the product vision, user workflows, and incremental delivery plans.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Story mapping is a collaborative activity used to understand the user’s journey, prioritize features, and identify releases. It is highly effective for stakeholder alignment and promoting shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Story Mapping)

Also supported by Mike Griffiths:

“Story mapping promotes visibility, alignment, and prioritization. It fosters collaboration between the team and stakeholders and helps translate business objectives into user stories.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options fall short:

A reverts to heavy documentation, which agile discourages.

C is a one-time event and doesn’t sustain alignment.

D focuses on adherence to process rather than collaboration and planning clarity.

In agile environments, planning should be flexible and adaptable to changing circumstances. Just-in-time (JIT) refinement refers to the practice of refining the backlog and details of the product features as they become more relevant, rather than attempting to plan everything upfront. This allows the team to respond to changes and new information as they emerge, which aligns with agile principles of iterative development and adaptability.

The correct answer is B – Invite the team to evaluate the suggestion and measure the effectiveness of the implementation.

In Agile, continuous improvement is a shared responsibility, and retrospectives are meant to be collaborative sessions where all team members—regardless of experience—can contribute. Ideas that could enhance performance should be discussed by the team as a whole and, when deemed valuable, tested and evaluated in upcoming sprints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team owns the process and should inspect and adapt at regular intervals. During retrospectives, the team identifies potential improvements and experiments with them in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Retrospectives empower teams to improve. All suggestions, regardless of origin, should be treated with respect. Teams test ideas and inspect outcomes to improve incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why other options fall short:

A delays action and discourages innovation.

C makes the product owner responsible for a team process decision, which is outside their role.

D promotes hierarchy, which undermines team collaboration and Agile values.

Answer: B

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The Scrum retrospective is the appropriate place for the team to reflect on what went well and what didn’t, including the missed sprint goals. The Scrum master should facilitate an open and constructive discussion about the impediments faced during the sprint, such as the unavailability of the specialist, and help the team find ways to avoid or mitigate similar issues in future sprints. This helps the team continuously improve and ensures that they are better prepared for future challenges.

The correct answer is B — The stakeholder who can prevent the project from achieving its goals.

Stakeholder prioritization is based on power and influence. Those who can significantly impact or block project success (positively or negatively) should be prioritized. This ensures their concerns are addressed and their support is cultivated early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholder engagement is critical in agile. The team must identify those who have the most influence over project outcomes and ensure early and frequent communication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Stakeholder Engagement)

PMBOK® Guide:

“Stakeholder prioritization involves assessing who has the greatest influence on project success.”

—

In agile, theProduct Owner is the ultimate decision-makerregarding backlog prioritization and scope changes. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Backlog Prioritization), any changes thataffect value delivery, schedule, or scopeshould be discussed with the Product Owner, who evaluates the business impact.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)reinforces that product direction and scope decisions must be handled through collaboration between the team and the Product Owner.

Option Dis correct: seeking Product Owner input ensures value-based decision-making and customer alignment.

Option A(re-estimating the entire project) is unnecessary and burdensome.

Option Brejects valuable input and ignores iterative flexibility.

Option Cgoes against agile principles of focus and sustainable pace.

The correct answer is A – To participate in establishing a shared vision as a member of the team.

Stakeholder engagement ensures alignment between the team and business needs. Early and continuous involvement helps define product vision, clarify priorities, and ensure that the delivered product meets customer expectations.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engaging stakeholders early and often increases transparency, encourages shared ownership, and ensures that the product being developed aligns with business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Projects are more successful when stakeholders co-create the product vision and maintain involvement. Agile teams encourage active participation to ensure delivery of value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why other options fall short:

B (acceptance criteria) is mainly defined by the Product Owner, not all stakeholders.

C is typically owned by the development team.

D is not a core stakeholder responsibility in Agile.

Answer: A

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

Technical debtrefers to the accumulated cost of suboptimal design or code, often due to shortcuts or lack of refactoring. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Quality and Technical Debt)recommends treating technical debt as animpedimentthat should be logged, tracked, and discussed openly so it can be prioritized and addressed.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)advises teams to be transparent about technical debt and elevate its visibility so that product owners and stakeholders can make informed decisions.

Option Cis correct: logging technical debt as animpedimentbrings visibility and ensures discussion.

Option Amay indicate a problem, but it’s indirect.

Option Bdistorts estimation metrics and is not advised.

Option Dcould help but does not communicate impact explicitly.

This approach reinforces the core values of agile, particularly the idea that a self-managed team should be collaborative and support one another. The agile lead should focus on creating a safe environment where team members feel comfortable sharing challenges and asking for help. This will not only help the junior team member but also improve the overall team dynamics and performance by fostering a culture of openness and mutual support.

The correct answer is A — Make sure the product owner is fully embedded into the project team so that they are readily available to make quick decisions.

One of the major benefits of agile is that decision-making is streamlined by having empowered roles, such as the product owner, closely embedded with the team. This reduces delays and improves the responsiveness and accuracy of decisions, especially for prioritization and clarification.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Empowering the product owner and embedding them with the team ensures faster decision-making, increased feedback loops, and reduces delays.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile teams thrive when key decision-makers, especially the product owner, are available to provide clarification and approval on the spot.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B is too broad and may slow decision-making further.

C adds overhead and delays.

D misplaces decision authority; the Scrum Master is not responsible for product decisions.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is B – Break the story up and focus on the most valuable parts. Agile promotes progressive elaboration, and large or complex stories (epics) should be broken down into smaller, testable user stories. This practice enables clarity, faster feedback, and more accurate planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Large stories (epics) should be split into smaller user stories to enable understanding, estimation, and incremental delivery. Stories should be small enough to be completed within an iteration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – User Stories and Story Splitting)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When a user story is too large or unclear, the team should break it down into smaller pieces, focusing on the most valuable parts first. Story splitting is a key agile practice.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A discourages collaboration and learning.

C delays the resolution unnecessarily.

D avoids solving the actual problem and abandons valuable work.

Answer: B

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is B — Set the velocity to the delivered story points of the last sprint.

Agile velocity is a historical measure, not a target. It represents the amount of work a team actually completed in a previous sprint and should be used to help guide future sprint planning. Teams should not inflate, manipulate, or "game" their velocity; instead, they should use it as a basis for realistic planning.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Velocity is calculated by totaling the points for all fully completed stories. It is a measure of what the team can complete—not what it hopes to complete—and should be used as an empirical baseline for planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Velocity should be based on historical data from previous sprints. Teams should not artificially inflate velocity by changing estimation practices or slicing stories merely to appear more productive.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A promotes splitting for manipulation, not for clarity.

C suggests altering estimation practices for the sake of metrics.

D implies gaming the system to falsely increase velocity.

Answer: B

—

The correct answer is D — Facilitate a team retrospective.

A drop in team morale and performance signals the need for a structured conversation where the team can reflect, diagnose root causes, and propose changes. Retrospectives are the Agile mechanism for identifying and addressing performance issues in a collaborative, non-blaming environment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives allow teams to reflect on their performance, discuss what's working or not, and commit to improvement actions. This is the key mechanism for continuous team development.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Team disengagement often stems from unresolved issues or lack of empowerment. Retrospectives are critical for rebuilding engagement, trust, and improving team dynamics.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A skips team-level resolution and risks undermining trust.

B manipulates metrics without solving the root problem.

C is useful for daily progress updates but not for deep reflection.

Answer: D

—

—

Kaizen is a Japanese term that means "continuous improvement," which is a fundamental principle in Agile. It focuses on making incremental, continuous improvements to enhance processes and quality. Standup meetings and retrospective meetings are common Agile practices that support Kaizen. Standup meetings provide a daily check-in to ensure the team is aligned, while retrospectives allow the team to reflect on the sprint, identify areas for improvement, and make adjustments. Continuous improvement is at the core of Kaizen, and these practices enable the team to refine their processes over time, leading to better product quality and customer satisfaction.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2.2), one of the key responsibilities of the agile practitioner is toactively engage stakeholdersthroughout the development cycle—not just during review meetings. Agile frameworks promote continuous collaboration and frequent feedback. Merely attending sprint reviews is passive participation and may lead to missed alignment on expectations.

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)that stakeholder satisfaction requires more than periodic visibility—it requiresongoing interactionand inclusion in decision-making and backlog refinement sessions. This deepens shared understanding and reduces the risk of late-stage surprises.

Hence, answerBis correct because proactivestakeholder engagement with the product ownerfosters mutual understanding, timely feedback, and course correction—ensuring the product aligns with expectations.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communication)andPMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 13.3 Manage Stakeholder Engagement),transparency with stakeholdersis fundamental in agile environments. Delays or deviations from expected outcomes must bepromptly communicatedto affected stakeholders to adjust expectations and plans.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes that one of the key values in agile isresponding to change over following a plan, and that includes openly discussing risks and delays with impacted parties.

Thus,Option Dis correct: the agile coach shouldproactively engage marketing stakeholdersto inform them about the delay and support revised planning.

To address declining morale, mistrust, and isolation within the team, the agile project manager should focus on fostering collaboration, trust, and team cohesion. Cross-training and mentoring provide opportunities for team members to learn from one another, share knowledge, and build stronger interpersonal relationships. This not only enhances productivity but also helps break down silos, encourages mutual support, and increases trust across the team.

The correct answer is C – Low-risk and low-value. Agile teams prioritize features that deliver the highest value earliest while also addressing risk. Features with low business value and low risk can be deferred as they contribute the least to business objectives and present no urgency.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams maximize value by focusing on delivering high-value and high-risk features early. Low-value, low-risk items are often deferred or dropped entirely if they don’t contribute meaningfully to customer outcomes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Features should be prioritized by value and risk. Items with low value and low risk are the lowest priority. Delivering high-value features quickly enables feedback and learning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A should be prioritized early to mitigate risk and deliver value.

B are non-critical and risky—often avoided or discarded.

D delivers value, and therefore should be prioritized above low-value items.

Answer: C

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C — Introduce agile principles and processes, then make the change an experiment to obtain buy-in.

Agile transformation succeeds when it is driven through team engagement and experimentation, not top-down enforcement. Experimentation aligns with the principle of “failing fast” and encourages teams to experience the value of agile themselves before full adoption.

PMI Agile Practice Guide explains:

“To support organizational change, leaders should create safe-to-fail experiments to allow teams to explore and adopt agile in a non-threatening way. Buy-in emerges through shared learning, not forced compliance.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Organizational Change and Culture)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Effective agile leaders lead through influence and create an environment of experimentation and learning. Mandates create resistance, but pilots and feedback loops drive acceptance.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Answer A speaks only to executive buy-in. Answer B is directive and not collaborative. Answer D imposes agile through training but skips experiential learning and feedback.

Answer: C

=================================

When considering an increase in scope, it's important to first align with the organization's higher-level objectives. Seeking executive approval on the approach ensures that the change is in line with organizational priorities and gets the necessary buy-in from key stakeholders. Additionally, determining the purpose and value proposition helps clarify the benefits of the new scope, ensuring the team focuses on delivering value that is clear and beneficial to the organization. These actions are critical before making any further decisions or changes.

When the client needs to release the product earlier than planned to start receiving revenue, the best way to accommodate this request is by focusing on delivering a minimum viable product (MVP). The MVP allows the team to prioritize the most essential features that provide value to the customer, ensuring that the product can be launched quickly, while still addressing the core needs of the business.

By focusing on the MVP, the product can still be launched on time, and the client can start receiving revenue sooner without waiting for the full product to be completed. This aligns with agile principles of delivering valuable, incremental releases.

The correct answer is C — Ask probing questions to other team members to encourage dissenting viewpoints.

Agile coaches foster team collaboration and help surface diverse opinions. When one member dominates, the coach should use facilitation techniques to ensure equal voice. Encouraging quieter team members to contribute through thoughtful questions promotes balanced participation and trust.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches foster an environment of trust and collaboration. When team dynamics are unbalanced, the coach helps ensure psychological safety and equal participation.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths:

“Coaches use powerful questions to draw out quieter team members and help build a culture where everyone feels heard and valued.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect choices:

A is extreme and non-collaborative.

B ignores the coach’s facilitative responsibilities.

D is reactive and too late.

—

The information radiator is a key tool in Agile that provides a real-time, visual display of the project's current status, including progress, completed tasks, blockers, and upcoming work. This is typically made accessible to all stakeholders and is updated regularly to ensure transparency and communication. Instead of relying on emails or meeting invites, the Scrum Master should direct the customer representative to the information radiator, as it provides the most up-to-date and easily accessible information about the project’s progress. This encourages transparency and aligns with Agile principles of open communication and visibility.

Velocity is ateam-specific metricand cannot be reliably estimated until the team has worked together forseveral sprints. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4 Sprint Planning and Velocity Tracking), velocity should bemeasured empirically, not predicted based on assumptions or external input.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning) emphasizes thatnew teams need to run a few sprints to establish a reliable velocitythrough real performance data, not estimation.

Option Dis correct: actual performance determines true velocity.

Option AandBrely on speculation.

Option Cincorrectly uses sponsor input for team planning, which goes against agile principles.

By moving to an iterative approach, the organization can focus more on delivering value and benefits incrementally, with each iteration producing a working product or a usable increment. This allows the team to receive feedback from stakeholders more frequently and make adjustments as needed, ensuring that the most valuable features are prioritized and delivered in a timely manner. Unlike a predictive approach, where the focus is often on completing tasks according to a strict plan, an iterative approach allows for flexibility and continuous improvement, ensuring the product better aligns with user needs and business objectives.

The correct answer is B – Suggest the Product Owner prioritize the work items by feature to maximize value.

In Agile, the Product Owner is responsible for backlog prioritization. When multiple stakeholders have differing priorities, it is the Product Owner’s job to evaluate business value and ROI to determine which features deliver the most value and should be addressed first.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner works closely with stakeholders to ensure that the most valuable work is prioritized in the backlog. When multiple stakeholders have competing interests, the Product Owner helps mediate and prioritize based on value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Based Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile avoids trying to define all requirements up front. Instead, the backlog is groomed regularly, and the Product Owner ensures that the team is working on the highest value features.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are less effective:

A contradicts Agile principles by suggesting complete upfront requirement definition.

C puts responsibility on the customer instead of the empowered Product Owner.

D implies a waterfall approach by requiring clarity before starting.

Answer: B

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The ideal way to resolve the conflict is to encourage the team to brainstorm and propose an alternative solution that meets the intent of the architect’s request (error logging) but with a solution that fits within the current release timeline. By implementing error logging at the client level, the team can still address the monitoring and logging needs without significantly delaying the release. This approach fosters collaboration, balances priorities, and focuses on delivering value within the agreed timeline.

The Definition of Done (DoD) is a shared understanding of what it means for work to be considered complete. It is typically defined by the project sponsor and project team in collaboration. The DoD outlines the criteria that must be met for user stories, features, or tasks to be considered done, ensuring alignment between stakeholders and the development team. While the product owner, Scrum master, and stakeholders may influence the criteria, the final agreement on what constitutes "done" is determined by the project team and sponsor.

The Scrum Master’s role as a servant leader is to support the team, not to resolve conflicts for them. It is important for the team to work through their disagreements themselves, as this fosters collaboration and improves their problem-solving skills. The Scrum Master should encourage open communication and guide the team toward healthy conflict resolution, ensuring that the disagreements are addressed constructively. This approach helps the team build trust, improves their cohesion, and strengthens their ability to handle challenges in the future.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), stories areonly marked complete if they meet the Definition of Done (DoD) and are accepted by the product owner and stakeholders. If the customer (or their representative) raises a legitimate concern during the review, the story should be treated asincompleteuntil consensus is reached or it meets expectations.

Option Ais correct: if the story does not meet customer expectations, it should be reprioritized for the next sprint or refined.

Option BandDincorrectly assume that product owner or team authority overrides customer feedback.

Option Csuggests discarding the story, which is inappropriate if the customer still needs the functionality.

Stakeholder feedback is critical in agile, and the goal isdelivering value, not simply completing a checklist.

The correct answer is A – Send the member to training. Agile encourages cross-functional teams and continuous improvement. When a team member identifies a skill gap that affects delivery, addressing it promptly through training or mentoring increases team capability and autonomy.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams strive for cross-functionality. When skill gaps hinder progress, organizations support learning to reduce dependencies and improve throughput.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Continuous Learning and Team Development)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Empowering team members through skill development enhances flexibility and velocity. Encouraging proactive learning improves team performance.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B defers ownership of the solution.

C unnecessarily delays action.

D delays learning due to unnecessary constraints.

Answer: A

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C – Determine who is best qualified to address the challenges. Agile teams are self-organizing and empowered to make technical decisions. When challenges arise, the team collaboratively identifies who is best suited to resolve issues, rather than relying on external direction or top-down task assignment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are self-organizing. When challenges or new work arises, the team decides how to proceed, including task allocation based on skills and availability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths also notes:

“Team members decide how work is divided and who tackles what. When technical complexity is involved, those with relevant expertise are encouraged to step in, with support from the rest of the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A violates the principle of team autonomy.

B delays delivery rather than solving the problem.

D incorrectly places the Product Owner in a team management role.

Answer: C

In Agile, ensuring that the product works without bugs or missing features can be achieved through continuous testing and validation of the product. Test-driven development (TDD) is an approach where tests are written before the code is developed. This helps ensure that each feature is fully tested as it is built, focusing on customer requirements from the start and preventing issues from accumulating. By using TDD, the product owner ensures the product is being tested incrementally, which reduces the risk of defects and aligns with customer expectations for a high-quality product upon release.

In Agile, flexibility and adaptability are key, especially when dealing with uncertain or changing requirements like evolving government regulations. The agile coach should ensure that the team is building the product incrementally, allowing for adjustments as needed. This way, when the regulatory changes occur, the team can adapt quickly without disrupting the entire release process. By focusing on delivering small, workable increments, the team can respond to changes more efficiently.

A psychologically safe environment is essential for aproductive retrospective, especially in the presence of team conflict. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives)recommends reviewingworking agreements or ground rulesto remind the team of respectful behavior and to promote openness. This helps reset expectations and encourages participation without fear of judgment.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)emphasizes that retrospectives are abouttrust and transparency, and setting the tone properly enables team learning and resolution.

Option Ais correct: reviewing ground rules reinforces team norms and supports safety.

Option Bmay make individuals feel singled out.

Option Cignores the interpersonal issue and postpones resolution.

Option Descalates unnecessarily and bypasses team ownership.

The product owner should ensure that the stakeholder has easy access to relevant project data by utilizing the information radiator. An information radiator is a visual display of important project information, such as progress, financials, and key metrics. By giving the stakeholder access to this information, they can get the data they need without disrupting the team's workflow or waiting for specific requests. The scrum master can help facilitate this process by making sure the relevant data is readily available and visible.

The Definition of Done (DoD) is a crucial agile practice that outlines the agreed-upon criteria for when a deliverable is considered complete and ready for release. It ensures that all aspects of the deliverable meet the necessary standards and requirements before it is finalized. Additionally, the team should demonstrate the deliverable, typically during a sprint review or other appropriate meeting, to confirm that it meets stakeholder expectations and aligns with the project goals. This practice helps ensure that the deliverables are truly complete and ready for release, avoiding rework and maintaining a high level of quality.

The correct answer is D – Work with the team to ensure that acceptance criteria is being properly defined and understood.

Incomplete work that fails to meet stakeholder expectations often results from unclear or misunderstood acceptance criteria. Clarifying the definition of “done” and ensuring alignment between the Product Owner and development team can drastically reduce rework and defects.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Clear and testable acceptance criteria help ensure shared understanding. Quality issues frequently stem from misaligned expectations or vague requirements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done and Acceptance Criteria)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Teams must understand what success looks like for each story. Poorly defined or misunderstood acceptance criteria are a major cause of defects and missed expectations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Other options explained:

A (spike) is used for research or uncertainty—not fixing misunderstood requirements.

B (burndown chart) helps track progress, not resolve defects.

C may help indirectly but doesn't address the core problem of unclear requirements.

Answer: D

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is B – Recommend an Agile delivery approach and provide information to the stakeholders on Agile values and principles.

Agile enables early and continuous delivery of valuable software, short feedback loops, and faster time to market. When competitive advantage and speed are critical, introducing Agile principles allows the organization to remain flexible, respond to change, and deliver increments faster.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide quicker feedback, faster time to market, and more opportunity to deliver business value early. They are ideal in dynamic environments with evolving customer needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 1.3 – When to Use Agile)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile emphasizes early and continuous delivery, allowing organizations to test, learn, and adjust quickly to changes—critical for achieving business agility and competitive advantage.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 1 – Agile Mindset)

Why other options are not optimal:

A suggests a predictive mindset and planning before implementation.

C focuses only on Scrum roles, which may be too narrow for organizational-level change.

D relies on traditional governance structures that may resist Agile change.

Answer: B

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is C – Priority list of desired features and functions.

Agile emphasizes customer collaboration and delivering the highest-value features early. The product owner works closely with the customer to prioritize the backlog so that the most valuable items are delivered first. A prioritized list ensures clarity and alignment with stakeholder expectations.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Work is prioritized to deliver the greatest value as early as possible. The product owner and stakeholders continuously collaborate to ensure that the backlog reflects current priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Prioritization and Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Agile teams deliver customer value incrementally by implementing high-priority items first. Prioritization is based on value, risk, and feedback.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are incorrect:

A is a traditional project artifact and not used in Agile backlog planning.

B emphasizes cost over value and may create waste.

D is predictive rather than adaptive; Agile favors short-term planning based on priority.

Answer: C

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

Estimation challenges are common among new agile teams. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Requirements and Estimating Techniques), improving estimation accuracy involvesteam collaboration, continuous feedback, and inspecting and adapting techniquessuch as Planning Poker, affinity estimation, or triangulation. These discussions should happen in dedicated planning or retrospective meetings, but estimation issues can be flagged and lightly discussed in daily scrums to initiate deeper review.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)advises that estimation is ateam activity, not an individual one, and that teams learn and improve accuracy over time throughfeedback loops and shared insights.

Option Bis correct because discussing estimating challenges—even briefly during daily scrums—raises team awareness and drives improvement.

Option AandCdeal with symptoms rather than the root cause.

Option Dsuggests using metrics for performance evaluation, which contradicts agile values (Agile Manifesto: "Individuals and interactions over processes and tools").

The correct answer is B – Retrospective meeting.

The retrospective is a key Agile ceremony dedicated to continuous improvement. It provides a safe space for the team to reflect on what went well, what didn’t, and how to improve. When morale is low or conflicts arise, retrospectives help surface issues and co-create solutions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a vital part of continuous improvement. They are used to inspect team processes, relationships, and interactions to find ways to work more effectively.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.7 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The retrospective is the heartbeat of improvement. It is where the team reflects, adjusts, and grows. Conflict and low morale are ideal triggers for a meaningful retrospective.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Other options explained:

A (Standup) is for daily coordination, not reflection.

C (Demo) is customer-facing and not a morale tool.

D (Offsite) may help later, but is not a formal Agile method for resolving internal team issues.

Answer: B

The correct answer is A – Perform value stream analysis to eliminate the processes with wastage. Value stream mapping is a lean and agile technique used to identify and eliminate non-value-adding activities, optimize flow, and increase delivery efficiency—especially crucial when facing tight deadlines.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Value stream mapping is used to analyze the flow of materials and information required to bring a product or service to a consumer. It helps teams eliminate waste and improve speed and quality.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.4 – Continuous Improvement and Feedback Loops)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Value stream analysis is a lean technique that helps agile teams identify delays, bottlenecks, and handoffs that waste time. When velocity lags behind expectations, understanding the end-to-end process is essential to improvement.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Option B (removing high-risk stories) may introduce more long-term risk and undermine value.

Option C suggests manipulating metrics instead of addressing root causes.

Option D may help identify risks early, but it doesn’t address why velocity is low.

Answer: A

The agile lead is emphasizing the importance of creating a safe environment for disagreement, which encourages constructive conflict. In Agile, this is crucial because it allows team members to openly express differing opinions and perspectives. Such discussions often lead to better decision-making by surfacing various viewpoints and potential solutions. When teams feel safe to disagree, it fosters creativity, innovation, and problem-solving without fear of retribution. This aligns with Agile principles of collaboration, transparency, and continuous improvement.

In an agile environment, conflicts are seen as opportunities for collaboration and finding the best solution. The project manager should help the team by restating the positions of the team members to clarify their viewpoints and identify common ground. This approach encourages active listening, fosters understanding, and helps the team focus on shared goals rather than individual positions. Once the commonalities are identified, the team can collaboratively find a resolution that benefits the project, leveraging diverse perspectives to improve the outcome.

The project manager should engage in a constructive conversation with the team member to understand the reasons behind the performance dip. Instead of focusing on blame, it’s important to discuss the specifics of the project deliverables and identify any challenges or factors that may be affecting the team member's performance. Providing constructive feedback helps the team member understand the areas of improvement while maintaining a supportive environment. This approach encourages open communication, identifies potential solutions, and can lead to a positive outcome for both the team member and the project.

To ensurehigh code quality, especially for critical products, agile teams employtechnical practiceslikepair programmingandpeer code reviews. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5: Technical Practices and Quality)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 5: Quality and Technical Excellence)support these practices as part ofbuilt-in quality—ensuring that issues are caught early in the development cycle.

Option Ais correct: pair programming and peer reviews increase code quality and reduce defects early.

Option Bis essential but a feedback tool—not a direct quality assurance practice.

Option Cimplies waterfall-style handoffs.

Option Dis inefficient and risky without integrated testing or validation.

Kanban is continuous and can lead toburnout or low moraledue to lack of visible milestones. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7: Flow-based Agile)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)suggest thatrecognizing and celebrating milestones or delivery pointsis essential to maintain motivation, especially in long-running Kanban teams.

Option Ais correct:celebrating completed workgives the team a sense of closure and achievement, improving engagement.

Option Bmight help temporarily but doesn’t address theroot motivational issue.

Option Cadds pressure and is counterproductive.

Option Dmay improve flow but doesn't directly address thelack of visible progress recognition.

Social awareness—a key element ofemotional intelligence (EI)—is the ability to understand and respect others' feelings, perspectives, and dynamics, especially indiverse teams. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Emotional Intelligence and Team Collaboration)highlights that social awareness is essential when planning inclusive team-building activities, as it helps the leader consider cultural and personal differences.

Mike Griffiths also discussesEQ (Emotional Quotient)in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)as vital to managingdiverse, high-performing teams.

Option Bis correct: social awareness allows the leader to design inclusive and engaging team activities.

Option A(networking) is more external-facing.

Option C(communication) is important but not specific to diversity sensitivity.

Option Dis broad and not specific to the interpersonal nuance required here.

The correct answer is D – Have the Product Owner explain the product vision and review the release plan with the team. One of the Product Owner’s key responsibilities is to communicate the product vision and ensure the team understands how their work aligns with business value. This fosters alignment and motivation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner is responsible for communicating the product vision and roadmap. This ensures that the team understands the ‘why’ behind the work and how each piece contributes to overall business goals.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and Product Vision)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams need context for their work. The product owner provides this by clearly sharing the vision and maintaining a transparent roadmap.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is useful but doesn’t address the larger product context.

B may help with story structuring but doesn’t clarify vision.

C delays resolving an immediate misunderstanding.

Answer: D

????????????????????????????????????

The correct answer is A – Conduct regular one-on-one meetings to review development features and trace them back to the product roadmap. Close collaboration between the agile leader (e.g., Scrum Master or Project Lead) and the Product Owner ensures alignment between the product strategy and development execution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent and open collaboration between the Product Owner and agile project leader helps maintain alignment between delivery and business objectives. These discussions link work to roadmap-level planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile leadership includes partnering with the Product Owner to ensure that work being done contributes to overall product goals. Roadmap alignment is critical.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

B is more appropriate for the Product Owner, not the project leader.

C implies waterfall-style communication.

D oversteps the Product Owner’s authority in setting feature priorities.

Answer: A

????????????????????????????????????

Before the workshop, the team members should read and identify relevant user stories from the product backlog that directly contribute to the goal of developing the feature for receiving and resolving customer complaints. This ensures that the stories being worked on are well-understood and aligned with the release goal.

The team should also consider the possible risks associated with each selected user story, such as technical challenges or dependencies. Additionally, they should evaluate the value each story adds to the final user (customer), ensuring that the team focuses on delivering maximum value in the release.

A clear, sharedvision statementis essential foralignment, motivation, and guidance. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.3.1: Product Vision Statement), a strong vision statement enables team members and stakeholders to stay focused on what matters most, even as requirements evolve.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset)stresses the importance of ashared understandingand active participation when forming the vision.

Option Ais correct: it reinforces the value of shared vision and encourages stakeholder engagement.

Option Bis helpful but doesn't ensureshared understanding across the team.

Option Crisks misinterpretation and omits team collaboration.

Option Ddismisses a core agile practice—vision clarity is crucial, even in a change-friendly environment.

The correct answer is C – Encourage the product owner and team to analyze the impact of the changes and prioritize the backlog.

Agile embraces change, even late in the development cycle, but it must be managed through value-driven prioritization. Instead of blindly accepting all changes or overrunning the budget, the product owner collaborates with the team and stakeholders to evaluate the impact, adjust priorities, and ensure high-value items are delivered within constraints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams welcome change but balance it with value delivery by continuously prioritizing the product backlog. When scope increases, the team and product owner must evaluate trade-offs and adjust delivery accordingly.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Based Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Backlog grooming is a key mechanism to handle change. Product owners collaborate with stakeholders and the team to evaluate new requests, weigh impacts, and reprioritize as necessary.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are incorrect:

A may be true in some organizations but is not an Agile principle.

B contradicts Agile’s emphasis on sustainable pace.

D may help clarify budgets but doesn’t resolve the issue collaboratively.

Answer: C

??????????????????????????????????????????????????

The Walking Skeleton approach involves developing a minimal, end-to-end working system with just enough functionality to demonstrate how the product works in its simplest form. This is often used in Agile to ensure the core structure of the product is in place, and it allows stakeholders to see how basic features are implemented and how the product will evolve. By highlighting this approach, the project manager can help the sponsor understand the essential features and the incremental development process, making it clear what will be developed and when, without overwhelming them with detailed planning at this stage.