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  • Exam Name: Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist
  • Last Update: Sep 12, 2025
  • Questions and Answers: 150
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250-580 Practice Exam Questions with Answers Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Certification

Question # 6

An organization identifies a threat in its environment and needs to limit the spread of the threat. How should the SEP Administrator block the threat using Application and Device Control?

A.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the file fingerprint.

B.

Gather the process name of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the device ID type.

C.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that uses regular expression matching.

D.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on specific arguments.

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Question # 7

A file has been identified as malicious.

Which feature of SEDR allows an administrator to manually block a specific file hash?

A.

Playbooks

B.

Quarantine

C.

Allow List

D.

Block List

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Question # 8

After several failed logon attempts, the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) has locked the default admin account. An administrator needs to make system changes as soon as possible to address an outbreak, but the admin account is the only account.

Which action should the administrator take to correct the problem with minimal impact on the existing environment?

A.

Wait 15 minutes and attempt to log on again

B.

Restore the SEPM from a backup

C.

Run the Management Server and Configuration Wizard to reconfigure the server

D.

Reinstall the SEPM

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Question # 9

Administrators at a company share a single terminal for configuring Symantec Endpoint Protection. The administrators want to ensure that each administrator using the console is forced to authenticate using their individual credentials. They are concerned that administrators may forget to log off the terminal, which would easily allow others to gain access to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console.

Which setting should the administrator disable to minimize the risk of non-authorized users logging into the SEPM console?

A.

Allow users to save credentials when logging on

B.

Delete clients that have not connected for specified time

C.

Lock account after the specified number of unsuccessful logon attempts

D.

Allow administrators to reset passwords

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Question # 10

Which technology can prevent an unknown executable from being downloaded through a browser session?

A.

Intrusion Prevention

B.

Insight

C.

Application Control

D.

Advanced Machine Learning

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Question # 11

Which designation should an administrator assign to the computer configured to find unmanaged devices?

A.

Discovery Device

B.

Discovery Manager

C.

Discovery Agent

D.

Discovery Broker

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Question # 12

What EDR function minimizes the risk of an endpoint infecting other resources in the environment?

A.

Quarantine

B.

Block

C.

Deny List

D.

Firewall

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Question # 13

An organization identifies a threat in its environment and needs to limit the spread of the threat. How should the SEP Administrator block the threat using Application and Device Control?

A.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the file fingerprint.

B.

Gather the process name of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the device ID type.

C.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that uses regular expression matching.

D.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on specific arguments.

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Question # 14

Which security threat stage seeks to gather valuable data and upload it to a compromised system?

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Impact

C.

Lateral Movement

D.

Command and Control

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Question # 15

A user is unknowingly about to connect to a malicious website and download a known threat within a .rar file. All Symantec Endpoint Protection technologies are installed on the client's system.

In which feature set order must the threat pass through to successfully infect the system?

A.

Download Insight, Firewall, IPS

B.

Firewall, IPS, Download Insight

C.

IPS, Firewall, Download Insight

D.

Download Insight, IPS, Firewall

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Question # 16

What prevention technique does Threat Defense for Active Directory use to expose attackers?

A.

Process Monitoring

B.

Obfuscation

C.

Honeypot Traps

D.

Packet Tracing

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Question # 17

What does the Endpoint Communication Channel (ECC) 2.0 allow Symantec EDR to directly connect to?

A.

SEDR Cloud Console

B.

Synapse

C.

SEP Endpoints

D.

SEPM

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Question # 18

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

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Question # 19

What is the result of disjointed telemetry collection methods used within an organization?

A.

Investigators lack granular visibility

B.

Back of orchestration across controls

C.

False positives are seen

D.

Attacks continue to spread during investigation

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Question # 20

What is an appropriate use of a file fingerprint list?

A.

Allow unknown files to be downloaded with Insight

B.

Prevent programs from running

C.

Prevent Antivirus from scanning a file

D.

Allow files to bypass Intrusion Prevention detection

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Question # 21

Which Firewall rule components should an administrator configure to blockfacebook.comuse during business hours?

A.

Host(s), Network Interface, and Network Service

B.

Application, Host(s), and Network Service

C.

Action, Hosts(s), and Schedule

D.

Action, Application, and Schedule

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Question # 22

How are Insight results stored?

A.

Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

B.

Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

C.

Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client

D.

Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client

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Question # 23

Why is it important for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the SEDR file store or create an image of the infected system during the Recovery phase?

A.

To create custom IPS signatures

B.

To test the effectiveness of the current assigned policy settings in the Symantec Endpoint ProtectionManager (SEPM)

C.

To have a copy of the file for policy enforcement

D.

To document and preserve any pieces of evidence associated with the incident

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Question # 24

An Incident Responder has determined that an endpoint is compromised by a malicious threat. What SEDR feature would be utilized first to contain the threat?

A.

File Deletion

B.

Incident Manager

C.

Isolation

D.

Endpoint Activity Recorder

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Question # 25

What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?

A.

It prevents attackers from reading the contents of the Domain Admins Group.

B.

It assigns a fake NTLM password hash value for users with an assigned AdminCount attribute.

C.

It exposes attackers as they seek to gather credential information from workstation memory.

D.

It acts as a honeypot to expose attackers as they attempt to build their AD treasure map

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Question # 26

Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)

A.

Entire Network

B.

IP range within the network

C.

Subnet Range

D.

IP range within the subnet

E.

Entire Subnet

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Question # 27

Which designation should an administrator assign to the computer configured to find unmanaged devices?

A.

Discovery Device

B.

Discovery Manager

C.

Discovery Agent

D.

Discovery Broker

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Question # 28

What should an administrator know regarding the differences between a Domain and a Tenant in ICDm?

A.

A tenant can contain multiple domains

B.

Each customer can have one domain and many tenants

C.

A domain can contain multiple tenants

D.

Each customer can have one tenant and no domains

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Question # 29

Which other items may be deleted when deleting a malicious file from an endpoint?

A.

Registry entries that point to that file

B.

The incident related to the file

C.

SEP Policies related to that file

D.

Files and libraries that point to that file

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Question # 30

Which two (2) instances could cause Symantec Endpoint Protection to be unable to remediate a file? (Select two.)

A.

Another scan is in progress.

B.

The detected file is in use.

C.

There are insufficient file permissions.

D.

The file is marked for deletion by Windows on restart.

E.

The file has good reputation.

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Question # 31

How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?

A.

Edit theServer Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change theServer Communication Permission.

B.

Edit theCommunication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

C.

EdittheExternal Communication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

D.

Edit theSite Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change the server priority.

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Question # 32

What must be entered before downloading a file from ICDm?

A.

Name

B.

Password

C.

Hash

D.

Date

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Question # 33

Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."

A.

Level 6

B.

Level 5

C.

Level 2

D.

Level 1

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Question # 34

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

A.

LiveUpdate

B.

Firewall

C.

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.

Intensive Protection

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Question # 35

Which option should an administrator utilize to temporarily or permanently block a file?

A.

Delete

B.

Hide

C.

Encrypt

D.

Deny List

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Question # 36

What does an end-user receive when an administrator utilizes the Invite User feature to distribute the SES client?

A.

An email with the SES_setup.zip file attached

B.

An email with a link to register on the ICDm user portal

C.

An email with a link to directly download the SES client

D.

An email with a link to a KB article explaining how to install the SES Agent

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Question # 37

An administrator notices that some entries list that the Risk was partially removed. The administrator needs to determine whether additional steps are necessary to remediate the threat.

Where in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console can the administrator find additional information on the risk?

A.

Risk log

B.

Computer Status report

C.

Notifications

D.

Infected and At-Risk Computers report

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Question # 38

A Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator receives multiple reports that machines are experiencing performance issues. The administrator discovers that the reports happen at about the same time as the scheduled LiveUpdate.

Which setting should the SEP administrator configure to minimize I/O when LiveUpdate occurs?

A.

Change the LiveUpdate schedule

B.

Change the Administrator-defined scan schedule

C.

Disable Allow user-defined scans to run when the scan author is logged off

D.

Disable Run an Active Scan when new definitions arrive

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Question # 39

Which action is provided by Symantec EDR for the rapid remediation of impacted endpoints?

A.

Quickly filtering for specific attributes

B.

Detonate Memory Exploits in conjunction with SEP

C.

Automatically stopping suspicious behaviors & unknown threats

D.

Block Listing or Allow Listing of specific files

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Question # 40

Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

A.

Push Enrollment

B.

Auto Discovery

C.

Push Discovery

D.

Device Enrollment

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Question # 41

Which report template type should an administrator utilize to create a daily summary of network threats detected?

A.

Intrusion Prevention Report

B.

Blocked Threats Report

C.

Network Risk Report

D.

Access Violation Report

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Question # 42

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

A.

LiveUpdate

B.

Firewall

C.

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.

Intensive Protection

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Question # 43

How does IPS check custom signatures?

A.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine continues checking for other signatures.

B.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine restarts checking for signatures.

C.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine stops checking other signatures.

D.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine logs the other signatures.

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Question # 44

Which Incident View widget shows the parent-child relationship of related security events?

A.

The Incident Summary Widget

B.

The Process Lineage Widget

C.

The Events Widget

D.

The Incident Graph Widget

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Question # 45

Which of the following is a benefit of choosing a hybrid SES Complete architecture?

A.

The ability to use the cloud EDR functionality

B.

The ability to manage legacy clients running an embedded OS

C.

The ability to manage Active Directory group structure without Azure

D.

The ability to use Adaptive Protection features

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